Q Banks: Week of 03/27/17 # 2 Flashcards
1
Q
If a man can get an erection but not maintain it, then he likely has ________________ erectile dysfunction.
A
psychogenic
Don’t be tricked into picking physiologic if they give you red herrings like diabetes or stroke.
2
Q
How does AMP affect glycogen phosphorylase?
A
It is an allosteric activator.
3
Q
What are catabolite activators?
A
Transcription factors that activate genes in response to metabolic activity
4
Q
What is tactile fremitus and how is it used?
A
Tactile fremitus is vibration felt on the chest wall while the person is speaking.
It is decreased in pleural effusion, pneumothorax, and COPD.
It is increased in pneumonia.
5
Q
Hyperresonace occurs in which lung disorders?
A
Emphysema and pneumothorax
6
Q
Which lung disorders present with decreased breath sounds?
A
- COPD
- Pneumothorax
- Pleural effusion
- Bronchial occlusion
- Atelectasis
7
Q
True or false: dullness to percussion can be found in atelectasis.
A
True!
8
Q
Describe the role that each of the following nerves plays in micturition:
•Hypogastric
•Pelvic
• Pudendal
A
- Hypogastric: sympathetic to detrusor and internal urethral sphincter (“You need a lot of GAS if you’re in flight or fight.”)
- Pelvic: parasympathetic to detrusor and internal urethral sphincter (“The PElvic makes you PEe.”)
- Pudendal: volUNtary to external urethral sphincter
9
Q
High levels of ________________ in the nephron prevent formation of kidney stones.
A
citrate
Citrate binds to calcium and does not form stones, so it helps shuttle excess calcium out of the kidney. In fact, potassium citrate can be given to help treat recurrent kidney stones.
10
Q
BK virus causes ________________.
A
hemorrhagic cystitis and nephropathy in immunocompromised individuals (fountain peeing in the Sketchy scene)
11
Q
EBV can cause what cancers in those with AIDS?
A
CNS lymphoma and Burkitt lymphoma
12
Q
True or false: head bobbing is seen in those with aortic stenosis.
A
False. It is seen in those with aortic regurgitation.
Other signs of AR include bounding femoral pulses and a blowing diastolic murmur best heard at the lower-left sternal border.
13
Q
Why does CCl4 damage the liver?
A
It gets oxidized by CYP450 and causes free radical damage.
14
Q
Fever, anorexia, and dark urine are signs of what viral infection?
A
HAV
15
Q
Describe the histologic signs of HAV.
A
“Spotty” –i.e., not widespread –ballooning degeneration of hepatocytes with inflammatory infiltrate
16
Q
LDH will be elevated in those with what histologic sign of ovarian cancer?
A
Dysgerminoma with “fried egg” cells
17
Q
True or false: all ovarian cancers secrete CA-125.
A
False. Only epithelial.
18
Q
Other than VEGF, _________ is an important stimulator of endothelial cell formation.
A
FGF
19
Q
Why does oxygen supplementation cause damage to the retinas of newborns?
A
For some reason, hyperoxia causes neovascularization in the retina which increases likelihood of retinal detachment.
20
Q
What wrist sign is typical of rheumatoid arthritis?
A
Ulnar deviation
21
Q
Healed areas of necrosis in the brain are lined with _______________.
A
astrocytes
22
Q
How does aflatoxin cause HCC?
A
Aflatoxin B1 causes mutations in p53.
23
Q
Non-bacterial endocarditis – characterized by sterile, platelet-rich thrombi –can be found in advanced ____________.
A
malignancy
It’s thought that adenocarcinomas secrete mucin into the bloodstream which damages endothelium and leads to widespread coagulation.
24
Q
Hypoplasia of the cerebellar vermis and cystic dilation of the fourth ventricle is called ______________.
A
Dandy-Walker malformation
The other disorder you’re likely to mistake for this is Chiari II malformations (also called Arnold-Chiari malformations), but DW will definitely be symptomatic early on, whereas Chiari II presents later.
25
How can you distinguish parietal cells on H&E staining?
They are highly eosinophilic.
26
Ras is normally only active when binding _______.
GTP
27
Unilateral swelling from the TMJ to the mandible in an intubated patient likely indicates ____________.
parotitis
Parotitis is an infection of the parotid glands. Risk factors include anticholinergic medications (because of xerostomia), intubation, and dehydration. It presents with fever and swelling over the parotid gland. Definitive diagnosis can be made with CT or elevated serum amylase in the absence of pancreatitis.
28
If a section of spinal cord has a lateral horn, then it must be from what area?
T1 - L2
The lateral horn is the sympathetic nervous system which is only found in these levels.
29
What is transthyretin deposition?
Transthyretin is a protein produced by the liver that binds to thyroxine. It can accumulate in the heart and produce restrictive cardiomyopathy.
30
How will reduced compliance appear on an LV pressure-volume curve?
Increased pressure at the same volume as a normal curve
31
Temporal lobe lesions produce what visual defects?
Meyer's loop passes through the temporal lobe, so disruptions here – such as from a tumor – usually produce the contralateral "pie in the sky" defect.
32
In developed countries, the most common pathology that leads to subacute bacterial endocarditis is __________________.
mitral valve prolapse
In third-world countries, it is rheumatic heart fever. If a stem says a patient has "no significant medical history," then mitral valve prolapse is a better answer than rheumatic heart disease.
33
True or false: mitral annular calcification can cause infective endocarditis.
False. Mitral annular calcification is a valve defect that presents in older adults with calcification around the valve. It is not a nidus for IE.
34
How does the hot tub folliculitis from P. aeruginosa present?
As multiple, small papulopustular lesions
35
How can mania be differentiated from substance-abuse-induced psychosis?
Mania does not usually cause disturbances in vital signs, so if a patient presents with signs of mania but has diaphoresis, mydriasis, hypertension, or tachycardia, then consider substance abuse as a cause.
36
NPH insulin is an intermediate between which two other types of insulin (in terms of duration)?
Regular insulin (8 hours) and detemir (20 hours)
37
Which part of the urinary tract is most likely to become obstructed in a male with a pelvic fracture?
The bulbomembranous junction (just inferior to the prostate)
This area is least supported by adjacent tissues and is thus most likely to be blocked.
38
What x-ray sign is typical of necrotizing enterocolitis in an infant?
Curvilinear lucency lines around the bowel
39
Histologically, what are nevus cells?
Melanocytes without dendrites
40
Histologically, melanoma cells have what feature that nevus cells don't?
Prominent nucleoli
41
True or false: any nevus cells that are below the basement membrane are malignant.
False. Compound nevi and intradermal nevi are both in the dermis but are benign.
42
Without using a microscope, how can you tell compound nevi and interdermal nevi apart?
Intradermal nevi have lost their melanin and typically appear as skin-colored.
43
The "air crescent" in lung cavitary lesions is indicative of _______________.
Aspergilloma
44
Varicella zoster virus (VZV) is also called _______________.
human herpesvirus 8
45
Which Gram-negative rod is triple positive?
H. pylori: catalase-, oxidase-, and urease-positive
46
What is the Sister Mary Joseph nodule?
Gastric adenocarcinoma that has metastasized to the periumbilical region
47
A positive quellung test indicates _______________.
S. pneumoniae
48
Risk of ovarian cancer ___________ with use of OCPs.
decreases
49
Back pain, jaundice, hematemesis, and fever are indicative of what virus?
Yellow fever
50
List two things that progesterone does at the hypothalamus.
* Negative feedback for both LH and FSH
| * Increases basal body temperature (gotta warm the oven to cook a bun)
51
How do the testes stop producing sperm in response to increased temperature?
The Sertoli cells are heat-sensitive and down-regulate sperm production when the body gets too hot.
52
Which cytokines does the body make in response to LPS?
TNF-alpha, IL-1, and IL-6
53
HSV temporal lobe encephalitis is especially common in ________________.
the immunocompromised
54
True or false: Candida infections can make the vaginal pH as low as 1.0.
False. No vaginal pathology has a pH that low.
The normal pH is 3.8 to 4.5, and Candida does not alter the normal pH.
55
Describe the usual presentation of subacute sclerosing panencephalitis.
This neurodegenerative disorder most often presents 6-8 years after the primary measles infection! It is caused by demyelination and leads to progressive visual, motor, and behavioral disturbances. It presents with multifocal enhancing lesions on MRI and neurons with intracytoplasmic inclusions.
56
Which drug causes nystagmus at therapeutic levels?
Phenytoin
57
You know that phenytoin can cause cleft palate in fetuses, but what else can it cause?
* Hirsutism
* Microcephaly
* Low nasal bridge
* Cardiac defects
* Phalange hypoplasia
58
Why does the clitoris enlarge during puberty in girls with 5-alpha reductase deficiency (and XY chromosomes)?
Because there is still testosterone present, but not DHT. At puberty, the amount of testosterone vastly increases and leads to clitoromegaly.
59
What happens if an XY baby has defective AMH?
He will develop male external genitalia with both male and female internal genitalia.
60
Which type of estrogen rises the most in pregnancy?
Estriol ("esTRIol in your TRImesters")
61
Diphtheria toxin leads to impaired _______________.
translocation – remember that it is elongation factor, not initiation factor, that diphtheria toxin binds to
62
Centrolobular hemorrhagic necrosis in the liver is caused by ________________.
ischemic injury (occlusion of the hepatic artery)
63
Which bacteria can undergo phage transformation?
* group A streptococcus
* Botulinum
* Cholera
* Diphtheriae
* shigElla
64
What does AIDS stand for?
Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
65
What is found in the CSF of those with PML?
Nothing
MRI is the best diagnostic for PML.
66
Which antiviral is used to prevent vertical transmission of HIV?
Zidovudine
67
If a woman has pelvic pain and there are large red chunks in her cells, then she likely has _____________-.
C. trochomatis
68
What is the "classic sign" of yellow fever?
Bradycardia with fever
| Think of the slow, languid water buffalo in the Sketchy scene – his heart was definitely slow.
69
How can you differentiate between late proliferative and early secretory endometrium?
Early secretory endometrium will have vacuoles starting in the glands – little cleared out areas of the glandular cells near the basement membrane.
Also, the secretory endometrium will start to have tortuous glands.
70
HEV used to be classified as a ____________ virus.
Calici
This is useful in remembering HEV's features.
71
Scalded skin syndrome disrupts which intercellular connections?
Desmosomes (hence the easily ruptured blisters)
72
The biggest difference between IgA nephropathy and PSGN is ____________.
time!
IgA nephropathy presents in two or three days, while PSGN presents in two weeks.
73
Persistent activation of stellate cells is found in ______________.
micronodular cirrhosis; the stellate cells are what lay down the collagen
74
Which type of testicular cancer has an alveolar/papillary pattern?
Embryonal carcinoma
75
What is the histologic appearance of seminomas?
Large cells with watery cytoplasm (the fried-egg look)
76
Which testicular mass is most common in boys younger than 3?
Yolk sac
| "Yolk sac for the Young."
77
Which obstetric complication leads to dark blood from the vagina?
Abruptio placentae
It is darker because the fetal blood leaks from the intravillous spaces.
78
True or false: the macula densa secretes renin.
False. The macula densa senses flow and communicates with the juxtaglomerular cells of the afferent arteriole to induce renin release.
79
Which CCBs can be used in a hypertensive emergency?
Nicardipine and clevidipine (nice card with clover?)
The other agents, like amlodipine, take too long to become effective.
80
Discuss the risks of aniline, cigarettes, and helminths on bladder cancer.
* Aniline: only raises risk of transitional cell carcinoma (like how dyes cause your fabric to transition)
* Cigarettes: raise risk of both transitional and squamous carcinomas, but mainly transitional
* Schistosoma haematobium: squamous only (SCC from S. haem.)
81
The main difference between Chlamydia and Mycoplasma pneumonia (histologically) is _________________.
inclusion bodies; Chlamydia produces inclusion bodies while Mycoplasma does not
82
Painless genital ulcers with lymphadenopathy indicates ______________.
lymphogranuloma venereum (i.e., Chlamydia)
83
b-hCG has a homologous domain with what other hormones?
* TSH (not TRH!!!!!!)
* LH
* FSH
The alpha is the same. The beta confers specificity.
84
CT of someone with PCP will show _____________.
diffuse covering of the airways and alveoli that can look like cavitations
85
What is the "pathognomonic" toxin produced by P. aeruginosa?
Exotoxin A – this is the ribosylating molecule that is similar to C. diphtheriae's
86
What STD makes subcutaneous granulomas?
Syphilis
87
What kind of channel is the CFTR?
ATP-gated
88
Patients with _____________ often note visual improvement with age.
myopia
This is because the presbyopia (farsightedness) that comes with age counteracts the myopia (nearsightedness).
89
True or false: those with deficiencies in tetrahydrobiopterin synthesis cannot make phenylalanine.
False!
They have excess phenylalanine because they can't make tyrosine from phenylalanine. They will be deficient in serotonin and tyrosine, however.
90
What are symptoms of West Nile virus?
* Morbilliform rash
* Flaccid paralysis
* Encephalitis
* Fever
91
Endocardial thickening and noncompliant ventricles are suggestive of _______________.
restrictive cardiomyopathy
92
Where are the two watershed areas in the large intestine?
* Splenic flexure (between SMA and IMA)
| * Rectosigmoid junction (between IMA and rectal artery from internal iliac)
93
What is uremic coagulopathy?
Patients on hemodialysis can accumulate uremic toxins that inhibit platelet function. All of their coagulation labs will be normal except bleeding time. Removal of the toxins can cure this.
94
Chronic lung transplant rejection leads to destruction of which part of the airways?
The small airways
95
On an MRI, how can you differentiate pilocytic astrocytomas from medulloblastomas?
Pilocytic astrocytomas have a cystic, fluid-filled component, whereas medulloblastomas are solid.
96
What are dominant negative mutations?
When mutation of one allele is sufficient to negatively affect the wild-type allele, such as in osteogenesis imperfecta when the bad collagen disrupts the good collagen.
97
Which two cultures can grow Bordetella?
* Bordet-Genou (made from potato)
| * Regan-Lowe
98
What does the cAMP-raising toxin of Bordetella ultimately do?
Inhibits phagocytosis
99
PBC presents with what skin findings?
* Jaundice
| * Xanthomas (because the bile cannot get into the bile duct with cholesterol and cholesterol builds up)
100
Guillain-Barre usually presents with elevated ____________ in the serum.
gamma-globulin
101
What is the only male pelvic organ that does not arise from the mesonephros?
The prostate
In men, the mesonephric (Wolffian) duct develops into the bladder (trigone only), epididymis, ejaculatory ducts, ductus deferens, and seminal vesicles (BEEDS).
102
How do statins affect triglycerides?
They decrease VLDL and thus decrease triglycerides. (Imagine one of the steam punks stabbing the hot air balloon with a sword.)
103
Pneumonia with intracellular inclusions in a person who owns a pet shop suggests ____________.
C. psittaci
104
Low levels of all three maternal amniotic levels suggests which trisomy?
18 (like how the voter turnout at Elections is so low)
Note: trisomy 13 presents with low b-hCG but normal estriol and alpha-fetoprotein.
105
What is it called when one bacterium exchanges plasmids with another bacterium through a pilus?
Conjugation
106
What is the genetic process of translocation?
When a bacterium moves a gene around within its genome to create new forms/expressions of the gene.
107
What's a good mnemonic for the circular RNA viruses?
"Dhey Are Balls"
Deltavirus
Arenavirus
Bunyavirus
108
The most common meningitis between the ages of 3 and 10 is ______________.
S. pneumoniae
109
What is mittelschmerz?
Bleeding from an ovulated follicle
The key signs of this are as follows:
1) Unilateral lower abdominal pain
2) Menstrual period ~ 2 weeks ago
3) Pregnancy test negative
4) Normal ovaries and uterus on ultrasound
5) No fevers
("I'm in the MITTLE of my cycle and something hERZ.")
110
True or false: S. pyogenes impetigo is more likely to lead to PSGN than valvular heart disease.
True.
Remember that impetigo does not lead to rheumatic fever – only pharyngitis can do that.
111
Ruptured ovarian cysts can look like what other disorder?
Ectopic pregnancies
Test the b-hCG!
112
Describe fibrocystic disease.
* Other multifocal
* Changes with menstrual cycle
* Proliferation of acini and intralobular stroma
113
Although Coxsackie B was the most common etiology for viral myocarditis until the 1990s, _____________ have become the most common recently.
Parvovirus and HHV6
114
What is Loffler syndrome?
Restrictive cardiomyopathy due to endocardial fibrosis with eosinophilic infiltrate (think of a laughing little kid in the restrictive CM scene)
115
The most common cause of impetigo is _______________.
S. aureus
116
Acid-fast stains are also called _____________.
Ziehl-Neelsen
117
What treatment is indicated for B. cereus food poisoning?
Just supportive therapy
It is a toxin-mediated illness, so antibiotics won't help.
118
Haemophilus ducreyi is what kind of bacteria?
Just like H. influenzae, it is a Gram-negative diplococcus
119
What chromosomes have the BRCA genes?
13 and 17
| Think: if you have BRCA, you're likely to get cancer before age 30... which is equal to 13 and 17.
120
Individuals with Pott disease may or may not _________________.
have pulmonary symptoms
121
What two facial features are common in those with Prader-Willi?
* Narrow forehead
| * Downward sloping mouth
122
If Addison's disease results in all three adrenal layers failing, why don't men get loss of libido?
In men, the androgens are mainly made in the testes.
123
Busulfan and cyclophosphamide are specific to which phase?
Trick question. They're not cell-cycle dependent.
124
What does the CCA sequence in tRNA do?
It serves as the recognition site and acceptor stem for AAs. It is the 3' end.
(It "Can Catch Acids" and it "Can Clarify Arrivals".)
125
If it has been more than _________ hours since an ischemic stroke, give aspiring instead of alteplase.
4.5 (like how the school painting went from 3:00 - 4:30 in the Sketchy scene)
126
What is different between the spread of Shigella and Salmonella?
Shigella only spreads cell-to-cell, while Salmonella can spread hematogenously.
127
What are the two most common pneumonias in those with CF?
* Younger than 20: S. aureus
| * Older than 20: P. aeruginosa
128
Urethral disruption in males is common with saddle injuries. How can you tell if the disruption is above or below the urogenital membrane?
Below the membrane will leak urine into the scrotum.
129
Describe Meigs syndrome.
* Ovarian fibroma
* Ascites
* Hydrothorax
(Think of the -igs as standing for "I Go Swimming" to remember the fluid accumulation with ovarian neoplasm.)
130
What is the difference between Mallory bodies and Councilman bodies?
Both are eosinophilic inclusions in hepatocytes in response to injury, but Councilman bodies are diffuse while Mallory bodies are rope-like. Also, Mallory bodies are most characteristic of alcoholic injury.
(Think of the climber George Mallory to remember rope-like, and imagine him drunkenly climbing Everest to think of alcohol injury.)
131
Sperm acquire mobility in the ___________.
epididymis
132
What epithelium lines the epididymis?
Pseudostratified columnar epithelium with stereocilia
133
True or false: acetyl-CoA gets pumped out of the mitochondria to be synthesized into fatty acids.
False. Citrate gets pumped out and then citrate is converted to acetyl-CoA by ATP citrate lyase.
134
What two stages do oocytes get stuck in?
• Gametogenesis to ovulation: prophase I
("I PROmise I'll ovulate some day!")
• Ovulation to fertilization: metaphase II
("When the egg MET the sperm.")
135
Ketoconazole for tinea cruris can cause atrophy in which cells?
Leydig cells
Ketoconazole inhibits testosterone synthesis. When applied to the groin it can lead to atrophy of the testicles from inhibited testosterone synthesis in Leydig cells.
136
List the order of spots most likely to have ectopic pregnancy.
1) Ampulla
2) Isthmus
3) Fimbriae
4) Uterine interstitium
137
In addition to prospective cohort studies, ______________ can also determine relative risk.
retrospective cohort studies
138
What x-ray signs are suggestive of transposition of the great vessels?
* Narrowed mediastinum
* Egg-shaped heart
Taken together, these make up the "egg on a string" appearance of the heart in those with TGV (which Sketchy symbolized by the Pokeball yoyo!).
139
True or false: uterine fibroids are estrogen-sensitive.
True! They often vary in size and symptom presentation with the menstrual cycle or increase in size with pregnancy and decrease in size with menopause.
140
Obesity ______________ the risk of endometrial cancer.
increases
141
Radiation raises the risk of ____________ thyroid cancer.
papillary
142
What is true hermaphrodism?
Presence of both ovaries and testes
143
True or false: hereditary spherocytosis can go undiagnosed for years.
True. It often takes infection with Parvovirus to unmask symptoms.
144
Amphotericin is indicated in ______________ fungal infections, regardless of immune status.
systemic
For instance, if a person presents with disseminated Blastomycosis they'll need amphotericin even if they aren't immunosuppressed.
145
The most common cause of HCC worldwide is _____________.
HBV
146
What drug treats Echinococcus?
Albendazole (like how the dog is just above the strong man BENDing the pipe)
147
A major complication of preeclampsia is ________.
DIC
148
On histologic exam, how can you diagnose CMV vs. EBV?
CMV causes basophilic intranuclear inclusions. Although EBV increases risk of Hodgkin's lymphoma – which also presents with owl-eye inclusions – regular EBV infections do not cause this.
149
Once again (you've missed this a lot), differentiate lymphogranuloma venereum and syphilis.
• Syphilis:
- painless ulcer
- painless lymph nodes
• LGV:
- painless ulcer
- PAINFUL lymph nodes
150
Don't forget that Brucella can also be acquired from contact with ___________________.
dairy
151
How can the bleeding from ectopic pregnancies and placenta previa be differentiated?
Ectopic pregnancies will be painful, while placenta previa is painless.
152
The right recurrent laryngeal nerve courses around _________________.
the right subclavian (think of this if the patient can't move their right vocal cords after a thyroidectomy).
153
How can you differentiate cholecystitis from cholangitis?
Cholangitis usually presents with marked fever and leukocytosis.
154
What is the name of the area of the brain that can lead to the pie-in-the-sky defect?
Fusiform gyrus
| Think of mike MEYER as a FUSsy baby.
155
What drugs are commonly used for post-transplant organ immunosuppression?
* IL-2 inhibitors: sirolimus, tacrolimus, basiliximab, daclizumab, and cyclosporine
* Azathioprine
* Steroids
* Mycophenolate mofetil
156
What does the SRY gene do?
It transcribes the testis-determining factor (TDF) that stimulates the development of testes from primordial gonads. This leads to the development of Leydig cells – which make the testosterone needed for development of the Wolffian duct and external genitals – and Sertoli cells – which make MIH.
157
Give the FENa for prerenal, renal, and postrenal azotemia.
* Prerenal: less than 1%
* Postrenal: 1% - 2%
* Renal: greater than 2%
158
Damage to the levator ani during labor leads to ____________________________.
urinary incontinence
Fecal incontinence results from damage to the anal sphincter.
159
Other than Neisseria and S. pneumoniae, ____________ also secretes IgA protease.
Haemophilus
160
What dermatomes cover the back of the arm?
C8 (medial)
C7 (intermediate)
C6 (lateral)
161
Remember that antibiotics can worsen a certain kind of inflammatory diarrhea: _________________.
Salmonlla from non-typhi strains like tyrphimurium and enteriditis
Only give antibiotics to those with S. typhi!
162
What two agents stimulate platelet formation?
* Eltrombopag
| * Oprelvekin
163
True or false: a swelling in the inguinal region is likely a femoral hernia.
False. Swelling in the inguinal region is most likely an indirect inguinal hernia. The patent processus vaginalis can pulse and lead to fluid accumulation in the inguinal canal.
164
Which recombinant agent stimulates both granulocytes and monocytes?
Sargramostim (notice the G and M)
165
The uterine artery runs through the _______________ ligament.
cardinal
| Imagine a retinue of papal CARDINALs riding a carriage over the ureter creek.
166
Give a rundown on Ehrlichiosis.
* Obligate intracellular Gram-negative bacteria
* Related to Rickettsia
* Causes fever and maculopapular rash
* Treatable with doxycycline
* Creates "berry-like" monocytic inclusions
167
Because they're so similar, what's a good way to remember the difference between Ehrlichiosis and anaplasmosis?
Ehrlichiosis is inclusions in monocytes and anaplasmosis is inclusion in granulocytes.
(MEGA berry: Monocytes = Ehrlichiosis; Granulocyte = Anaplasmossi)
168
Dissection of the cardinal ligament can sometimes snag pieces of the ________________.
ureter
169
Meigs tumors are fibromas that typically present with what under histologic examination?
Calcification
170
What cells will be present in pseudomyxoma peritonei?
PP is a variant of variant cystadenocarcinoma that presents with glandular columnar epithelium.
171
Which ovarian neoplasm is associated with arrhythmias?
Struma ovarii (look for thyroid tissue)
172
Which ovarian tumor presents with transitional epithelium and how might it look under the microscope?
Brenner tumors (remember: "Brenner Bladder")
This usually is benign ("Benign Brenner Bladder") and show nests of transitional epithelium.
173
What drug is commonly used to treat endometriosis?
Leuprolide (watch out for osteoporosis)
Danazol, a partial androgen agonist, is also used but less commonly so.
174
Describe globozoospermia.
A disorder in which the Golgi body fails to form the acrosome and sperm have round (globe-shaped) heads
175
Enterococcus UTI should be treated with _____________________.
Ampicillin (like the rockers in amino's cantina)
176
What amount of vaginal discharge is normal?
About one teaspoon of thick white discharge daily (don't be tempted to jump for Candida!)
177
The majority of the fluid in semen comes from ____________, but the prostate ___________________.
the seminal vesicles; produces the alkaline component
178
The pseudohyphae of Candida are also called _______________.
germ tubes
179
How do tinea look under the microscope?
The dermatophytes have branching, septate hyphae.
180
_________ automatically makes a minor emancipated.
Marriage
181
True or false: clindamycin is not effective against Enterococcus.
True. Ampicillin is first-line.
182
What process is inhibited in fetal alcohol syndrome?
Cell migration
183
How does pyruvate kinase deficiency often present?
With hemolytic anemia in the newborn
184
Where are self-antigens packaged into MHC I?
In the endoplasmic reticulum
MHC II loading occurs in acidified endosomes.
185
Homozygous mutations in ___________ have been shown to make people immune to HIV.
CCR5
186
What is encoded on gag and pol?
* gag: p17 and p24 (matrix and capsid proteins)
| * pol: protease and reverse transcriptase
187
Which STDs are reportable?
Gonorrhoeae
| Chlamydia
188
Briefly describe limb formation.
The apical ectodermal ridge leads the protrusion outward.
Wnt and the zone of polarizing activity determines the ventral-dorsal development.
The mesoderm makes the underlying structures.
189
Endometrial carcinoma risk does not increase with __________ hormone replacement therapy.
combined (the progestin opposes the estrogen)
190
The medical term for lockjaw is __________.
trismus (tenesmus is the urge to defecate)
191
"Significantly decreased volume" of an ejaculate indicates what source of infertility?
Obstruction in the vas deferens
192
What did Sketchy neglect to mention about Legionnaire's disease?
It can cause TTP by generating autoantibodies to ADAMSTS13.
193
A guy with an artificial mitral valve gets endocarditis after going to the dentist. The most likely cause of infection is ____________.
S. viridans
Even with the artificial valve, the dental visit suggests S. viridans.
