Psychotherapy (MRCP) Flashcards

1
Q

Lisa is a 35-year-old lady, diagnosed with depression. She has been referred
by her psychiatrist for psychodynamic psychotherapy. According to her
therapist, Lisa has the ability to conceive of her own mental state as
explanations of her behaviour. This phenomenon is called
A. Transference
B. Mentalization
C. Counter transference
D. Empathy
E. None of the above

A

B. The capacity for mentalizing grows out of attachment theory and refers to a person’s
ability to conceive of his or her own and others’ mental states as explanations of behaviour.
Hence, it is related to psychological mindedness. The psychodynamic clinician assesses the
ability of a patient to see that his or her behaviour grows out of a set of beliefs, feelings, and
perspectives that are not necessarily the same as others’. Like empathy, mentalizing requires
a capacity to sense what is going on in another’s mind and respond accordingly. This capacity
to be sensitive to what others are feeling and to know that one’s internal states contribute
to one’s behaviour augurs well for a more exploratory or interpretative approach in dynamic
psychotherapy.

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2
Q

Which of the following suggests suffi cient psychological mindedness in Lisa?
A. She needs a lot of prompts to give her story
B. She fi nds it diffi cult to bring up memories with appropriate affect
C. She is unaware of this unconscious mental life
D. She does not have poor self-esteem
E. She is unable to step back and observe refl ectively

A

D. According to Nina Coltart, during psychotherapy, a therapist is exercising his/her skills and
psychological mindedness to explore the patient’s psyche. If the patient is also psychologically
minded, the prospects of treatment success are thought to be greatly increased. Whether a
patient is psychologically minded depends on a number of characters. They include:
1. The capacity to give a history that deepens, acquires more coherence, and becomes texturally
more substantial as it goes on.
2. The capacity to give such a history without needing too much prompting, and a history which
gives the listener an increasing awareness that the patient feels currently related in him/herself,
to his/her own story.
3. The capacity to bring up memories with appropriate affects.
4. Some awareness in the patient that he has an unconscious mental life.
5. Some capacity to step back, if only momentarily, from self-experience, and to observe it
refl ectively.
6. The capacity, or more strongly a wish, to accept and handle increased responsibility for the self.
7. The capacity to imagine and dream and use metaphors.
8. Some capacity for achievement, and some realistic self-esteem.

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3
Q

During her fi rst session, Lisa asks her therapist about certain terms she
came across on the internet. “What is transference?”
A. Empathy in relationships
B. Therapist’s response to the patient based on the therapist’s previous relationships
C. Patient’s response to the therapist based on the patient’s previous relationships
D. Transfer of positive thoughts from the therapist to the patient through self-disclosure
E. All of the above

A

C. Transference is the displacement of feelings and thoughts associated with a fi gure in
the patient’s past onto the therapist. Transference is often unconscious, at least initially, and the
patient is often puzzled by their behaviour towards the therapist because it does not make sense,
based on who the therapist really is. Hence the enactment of missing a session or of coming late
to a session may reveal unconscious transference. The prevailing view about transference is that
the therapist’s actual behaviour always infl uences the patient’s experience of the therapist. Hence
the transference to the therapist is partly based on real characteristics and partly on fi gures
from the patient’s past: a combination of old and new relationships. Many therapists believe
that interpretation of this transference is an essential process of psychodynamic psychotherapy.
Gabbard says that one should postpone the interpretation of transference until it becomes
a resistance and until it is close to the patient’s awareness. In other words, if things are going
reasonably well, it makes no sense to interpret transference. If the patient develops, for example,
erotized or highly negative feelings, which impede the process of the therapy, interpretation may
be essential. Many therapists regard treatment that focuses on transference as more exploratory
than therapy geared to extra-transference relationships. In supportive therapy, interpretation of
the transference may be minimized, although the therapist may silently interpret the transference
as a way of increasing his or her understanding of the patient.

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4
Q

Which of the following correctly describes counter-transference?
A. The analyst’s or psychotherapist’s transference reactions to the patient
B. His or her reactions to the patient’s transferences
C. Any reactions, feelings and attitudes of the analyst or therapist towards the patient,
regardless of their source.
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

A

D. Freud used the term counter-transference to describe the analyst’s transference
towards the patient. In other words, the patient might remind the therapist of someone
from the therapist’s past, so that the therapist starts to treat the patient as though he or she
were that fi gure. Over time, this view of counter-transference was broadened to include the
total emotional reaction of the therapist to the patient. Today it is recognized that countertransference
is jointly created—it partly involves the therapist’s past relationships, but it also
involves feelings induced in the therapist by the patient’s behaviour. Counter-transference is
variously defi ned as (1) the analyst’s or psychotherapist’s transference reactions to the patient;
(2) his or her reactions to the patient’s transferences; and (3) any reactions, feelings and attitudes
of the analyst or therapist toward the patient, regardless of their source. These responses are
manifestations of the requisite engagement by the therapist or analyst in the emotional process
of treatment. Moreover, these reactions are a rich source of understanding of the patient’s
experience as it touches the therapist affectively.

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5
Q

During the psychotherapy sessions, the therapist notes that Lisa uses a
number of defence mechanisms that are classifi ed as ‘mature defences’
according to Vaillant. Which of the following is a mature defence?
A. Suppression
B. Repression
C. Dissociation
D. Passive aggression
E. Denial

A

A. George Vaillant classifi ed defences hierarchically according to the relative degree of
maturity associated with them. Narcissistic defences (denial, distortion, and projection) are the
most primitive and appear in children and persons who are psychotically disturbed. Immature
defences (acting out, passive-aggression, blocking, introjection, and regression) are seen in
adolescents and some non-psychotic patients. Neurotic defences (dissociation, displacement,
intellectualization, isolation, reaction formation, and repression) are encountered in obsessive–
compulsive and hysterical patients as well as in adults under stress. Mature defences according
to Vaillant are altruism, anticipation, asceticism, humour, sublimation, and suppression. These
mechanisms often are used in healthy coping mechanisms.

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6
Q

Nearing the end of her therapy session, Lisa blurts out ‘I am abusing my
children’ before quickly shifting the topic to other things. What is the most
immediate appropriate thing for the therapist to do?
A. End the session on time and explore it in the next session
B. Ask her what she meant by ‘abusing’
C. Reassure her that everything said in therapy is confi dential
D. Tell her that you have to report her to the social services
E. Carry out an extensive assessment of risk to the child

A

B. In the USA, therapists have a legal duty to warn and protect third parties endangered by
their patients. In the UK, there is no binding requirement on clinicians to disclose dangerousness.
The decision to disclose is based on the judgement that the responsibility to protect the public
outweighs the duty to the patient to protect confi dentiality. The clinician has the responsibility
to make a considered decision whether or not to infringe the right to confi dentiality. Statute law
(e.g. notifi cation of diseases) determines when the clinician ‘must’ infringe that right; case law
when he ‘may’ do so. Most psychotherapy falls under the latter. Each case must be considered
on its merits, possibly on the basis of a risk assessment, and where there is a doubt, the clinician
must discuss it with another clinician. In any case, welfare of children is of foremost importance.
In this particular case, Lisa said she was abusing her children. We do not know what she meant
by ‘abuse’. So, as common sense would inform, the fi rst step is for the therapist to confi rm what
she means by ‘abuse’. If there is a need, the next step would be an informed risk assessment.
Confi dentiality and disclosure are usually discussed with the patient before therapy. Since there
is a potential risk to children, ending the session and reassuring Lisa about confi dentiality are
obviously wrong choices. Premature reporting to social services would result in unnecessary
labelling and also possible loss of rapport and therapeutic alliance. Criticizing her would also lead
to a break in the therapeutic relationship and would be against the principles of ‘unconditional
positive regard’. If there is a case for disclosure, the patient herself should be encouraged to
disclose to social services, as this would be in the best interests of the children involved and the
patient. It is generally thought that inexperienced staff and students should not enquire about
abuse or ask known victims about details of their experience, although they may be approached
by patients making tentative attempts at disclosure, the general rule must be that inexperienced
individuals should not invite discussion of a sensitive subject such as sexual abuse unless they are
being supervised and trained to deal with it. In this case, it is thought that the psychotherapist is
being supervised and would do a general risk assessment based on history and mental state.

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7
Q

Which of the following represents the concept of borderline personality
organization?
A. Identity diffusion
B. Utilizing primitive defences
C. Intact reality testing
D. Characteristic splitting in object relations
E. All of the above

A

E. Otto Kernberg proposed the term ‘borderline personality organization’ (BPO), a broad
concept encompassing all severe personality disorders. BPO is a stable permanent state based
on four criteria: diffuse identity; primitive defences, including splitting, projection, and projective
identifi cation; intact reality testing that is prone to alterations and failures because of aggression;
and object relations characterized by splitting. The term ‘Identity diffusion’ was developed by
Erikson and later used by Kernberg in his concept of BPO. In psychodynamic terms an individual
with identity diffusion has not integrated good self-images with bad, and, instead, has multiple,
contradictory self-images, some good, some bad. These are invoked at different times and in
different situations so that a meaningful, integrated image of the self is never formed. Salman
Akhtar delineates the syndrome of identity diffusion as consisting of six clinical features:
(1) contradictory character traits, (2) temporal discontinuity in the self, (3) lack of authenticity,
(4) feelings of emptiness, (5) gender dysphoria, and (6) inordinate ethnic and moral relativism.
This syndrome implies severe personality pathology. The inner world in BPO according to
Kernberg, is characterized by split objects. Instead of stable and smoothly integrated internal
representations of people and their relationships, the self and others are experienced in
contrasts of either black or white – ‘no grey zones’. These people generally have an intact reality
testing, but are prone to breaks in it, leading to the so-called ‘micropsychotic’ episodes.

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8
Q

In dynamic psychotherapy, the therapist at times uses certain techniques
that represent the ‘supportive’ end of the psychodynamic continuum
rather than the ‘expressive’ end. Which of the following is suggestive of a
‘supportive’ technique?
A. Confrontation
B. Clarifi cation
C. Interpretation
D. Interpretation of transference
E. Giving advice

A

E. Dynamic (psychoanalytic) psychotherapy is often conceptualised as being on a continuum
of expressive to supportive. Traditionally, psychoanalytic psychotherapy has focused on the
recovery of repressed psychological material. This process has been called ‘expressive’ and is
distinguished from the ‘supportive’ psychotherapies, which concentrate on supporting healthy
defence (coping) mechanisms. The therapist may employ more or less expressive and supportive
interventions, depending on the needs of the patient. Among the given responses in the question,
advice giving leans towards the supportive end of the continuum. In addition to advice giving,
other techniques usually employed that are at the supportive end of the continuum are praise,
suggestions, reassurance, environmental intervention, and manipulation.

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9
Q
The process by which unconscious ideas are repressed and prevented from
reaching awareness because they are unacceptable in psychotherapy is
called
A. Transference
B. Counter-transference
C. Resistance
D. Therapeutic alliance
E. Repression
A

C. Resistance is broadly defined as the conscious or, more often, unconscious force within
the patient opposing the emergence of unconscious material. Resistance is thought of as the
patient’s attempt to protect her or himself by avoiding the anticipated emotional discomfort that
accompanies the emergence of conflictual, dangerous, or painful experiences, feelings, thoughts,
memories, needs, and desires. Resistance occurs through the use of unconscious defence
mechanisms. The recognition, clarification, and interpretation of resistance constitute important
activities of the psychoanalyst and the psychoanalytic psychotherapist, both of whom must
first appreciate how a patient is warding off anxiety before understanding why he or she is so
compelled.

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10
Q

Jack is a 35-year-old man who perceived his parents as overly authoritarian.
His therapist on the other hand, is friendly and non-authoritarian, but at
times fi rm and sets defi nite limits. The attitude of his therapist gave Jack
the opportunity to identify with a new parent fi gure. This is an example of
a process described by Franz Alexander. Which of the following terms best
represents this process?
A. Resistance
B. Counter-transference
C. Corrective emotional experience
D. Therapeutic alliance
E. Childhood neurosis

A

C. The therapeutic relationship between therapist and patient gives a therapist an
opportunity to display behaviour different from the destructive or unproductive behaviour of a
patient’s parent. At times, such experiences seem to neutralize or reverse some effects of the
parents’ mistakes. If the patient had overly authoritarian parents, the therapist’s friendly, fl exible,
non-judgemental, non-authoritarian, but at times fi rm and limit-setting attitude gives the patient
an opportunity to adjust to, be led by, and identify with a new parent fi gure. Franz Alexander
described this process as a corrective emotional experience. It draws on elements of both
psychoanalysis and psychoanalytic psychotherapy

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11
Q

Nick has been diagnosed with major depression. His GP is considering
referring Nick for psychodynamic psychotherapy. According to the GP,
Nick has certain qualities he thinks are important for a good prognosis
in psychodynamic psychotherapy. Which of the qualities shown by Nick
has been shown NOT to predict good response in psychodynamic
psychotherapy?
A. Psychological mindedness
B. Introspectiveness
C. Acting out affects
D. Reasonable object relationships
E. Intense search for understanding

A

C. Most psychotherapists consider certain qualities in their patients as prerequisites for
engaging in psychodynamic psychotherapy. These include psychological mindedness: curiosity
about oneself and the capacity for self-scrutiny. Those who are unable to articulate and
comprehend their inner thoughts and feelings cannot negotiate with the fundamental analytical
words and their meanings. The inability to examine one’s own motivations and behaviours
precludes benefi ts from the analytical method. Introspectiveness: the person should be able
to experience and learn from intense affects or confl icts without acting them out. The person
should be able to form reasonable object relationships, usually the capacity to form and maintain,
as well as to detach from, a trusting object relationship is essential. High motivation: the patient
needs a strong motivation to persevere, in light of the rigors of intense and lengthy treatment.
The desire for health and self-understanding must surpass the neurotic need for unhappiness.
The person should be able to tolerate frustration and therapeutic regression.

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12
Q
Brief psychodynamic psychotherapy has been shown NOT to be of benefi t
in which of the following conditions?
A. Panic disorder
B. Severe depression
C. Interpersonal diffi culties
D. Opiate dependence
E. Somatoform disorder
A

B. Inclusion criteria for brief psychodynamic psychotherapy diagnoses: depression, mild
to moderate; anxiety, post-traumatic stress disorder, social, panic; somatoform disorders; eating
disorders; opiate dependence;. Patient characteristics include good object relationships (has
had at least one relationship); highly motivated, ‘willing’ patient; narrow symptom/problem focus;
interpersonal diffi culties. Exclusion criteria for brief psychodynamic psychotherapy include a
diagnosis of severe depression, bipolar disorder, psychosis, suicidality; obsessive compulsive
disorder (OCD); severe somatizing disorders; severe eating disorders; poor object relationships;
poor motivation; chronic, severe character pathology; diffuse, ill-defi ned symptomatology. Most
of the above criteria are derived from a systematic review of psychodynamic psychotherapies by
Leichsenring in 2005.

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13
Q
Which of the following therapies involve ‘strokes’ that people exchange and
‘games’ that people play?
A. Person-centred psychotherapy
B. Gestalt therapy
C. Transactional analysis
D. Existential therapy
E. Physiotherapy
A

C. Transactional analysis developed by Eric Berne in 1960s. According to Berne, transactions
are stimuli presented by one person that evoke a corresponding response in another. Berne
defi ned psychological ‘games’ as stereotyped and predictable transactions that people learn in
childhood and continue to play throughout their lives. Strokes, the basic motivating factors of
human behaviour consist of specifi c rewards such as approval and love. All people have three ego
states that exist within them: the child (the primitive element), the adult (the reality element),
and the parent (an introject of the values of a person’s actual parents). The therapeutic process
helps people to understand whether they are functioning in a child, adult or parent mode when
interacting with others. It is thought that as patients learn to recognize characteristic games being
repeated throughout life, they can ultimately function in the adult mode as much as possible in
interpersonal relationships.

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14
Q
Focusing on a detail out of context while ignoring other, more salient
features in the situation is called
A. Arbitrary interference
B. Selective abstraction
C. Overgeneralization
D. Dichotomous thinking
E. Personalization
A

B. The statement refers to selective abstraction, one of the cognitive biases seen in
depression. Other cognitive biases include arbitrary inference, drawing a specifi c conclusion in
the absence of evidence or when the evidence is contrary to the conclusion; overgeneralization,
drawing a conclusion on the basis of one or more isolated incidents; dichotomous thinking, the
tendency to classify experience in one of two extreme categories, ignoring more moderate
variations; personalization, the tendency to relate external events to oneself; magnifi cation/
minimization,- exaggerating (i.e. catastrophizing) or belittling the signifi cance or magnitude of an
event.

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15
Q

Global, rigid, absolute, and overgeneralized convictions about the self that
have powerful effects on how we perceive ourselves are called
A. Core beliefs
B. Conditional rules
C. Automatic thoughts
D. Intermediate beliefs
E. None of the above

A

A. Core beliefs are global, rigid, absolute, and overgeneralized convictions about the self,
others, and the personal world that have powerful effects on how we perceive ourselves and
our context. They often have their root in early childhood development. An example of core
beliefs is ‘I’m incompetent’. These lie dormant until they are activated by certain situations (which
refl ect childhood events that laid down the core belief). At the next level are ‘intermediate
thoughts’, which consist of rules, assumptions, and attitudes that we use to evaluate ourselves
as well as other people and personal experiences. On most occasions, these rules tend to
contradict the core belief (in a way reinforcing them). Examples of intermediary beliefs might be
‘I need to succeed in everything I do, in order for me to be seen as competent’. A special class of
intermediary beliefs is the conditional rule, which takes the form of ‘If … then’ statements (e.g. ‘If
I succeed in everything I do, only then others will consider me competent’). Automatic thoughts
are cognitions that intervene between external events and a person’s emotional reaction to the
event. For example, the belief that people will laugh at me when I don’t get a distinction at the
exam is an automatic thought that occurs to someone who has the aforementioned ‘core belief ’.

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16
Q
Which of the following terms refer to beliefs that thoughts and behaviours
have reciprocal and equivalent effects?
A. Anxiety sensitivity
B. Pathological worry
C. Thought–action fusion (TAF)
D. Intolerance of uncertainty
E. None of the above
A

C. TAF is a cognitive distortion. It is thought to have two forms: ‘probability TAF’ in which
the intrusive thought is believed to increase the probability that a specifi c negative event will
occur. This is prominent in those with violent obsessions. ‘Morality TAF’ in which experiencing
the intrusive thoughts is morally equivalent to carrying out a prohibited action. This distortion is
especially prominent in obsessions, is closely related to guilt, and is associated with subsequent
attempts at neutralization. A comparable cognitive distortion termed ‘thought–shape fusion’ is
thought to be present in a minority of people with eating problems and occurs when the thought
of eating induces feelings of fatness, moral unacceptability, and weight gain. These cognitive
distortions can be manipulated experimentally and have clinical implications that include
improvement in understanding the nature of the disorder and its treatment.

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17
Q
Which of the following is a technique for automatic thought modifi cation?
A. Guided discovery
B. Recognizing mood shifts
C. Checklists for automatic thoughts
D. Imagery
E. Examining the evidence
A

E. Examining the evidence is a technique in which the therapist and patient collaboratively
explore the evidence for and the evidence against a specifi c distorted thought or belief. When
working through the exercise, the therapist asks the patient to write the thought or belief at
the top of a piece of paper and then label two columns with ‘evidence for’ and ‘evidence against’
the thought. The patient is then guided to explore methodically and write down each piece of
evidence. At the end of this procedure, the evidence for and against the cognition is quantifi ed
and estimated. Guided discovery is the most frequently used technique to help patients articulate
automatic thoughts in sessions. The specifi c technique used is called Socratic questioning. One
of the most powerful ways of teaching patients to detect automatic thoughts is to fi nd a real-life
example of how automatic thoughts infl uence their emotional responses. A shift in mood during
the therapy session can be an opportune time for the therapist to facilitate the identifi cation of
automatic thoughts. The Automatic Thoughts Questionnaire devised by Hollon and Kendall is a
comprehensive list of dysfunctional thoughts that has been used primarily in research studies.
Similar lists can be used in clinical settings when patients are having diffi culty detecting their
automatic thoughts. Imagery and role-play are two methods for uncovering cognitions when
direct questions are unsuccessful (or partially successful) in generating suspected automatic
thinking.

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18
Q

A woman comes to your outpatient clinic. She has recurrent thoughts of
contamination with germs and has to wash her hands up to 20 times every
time she touches wooden surfaces. This prevents her from looking after
her 2-year-old child. She is worried that the child may not be gaining the
required weight. She has also started to lose the skin of her palms due to
the excessive washing. The treatment you would recommend would be
A. Cognitive behaviour therapy (CBT)
B. Combination of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and CBT
C. SSRI only
D. Psychodynamic therapy
E. Eye movement desensitization therapy (EMDR)

A
B. According to NICE guidelines, in the initial treatment of adults with OCD, low-intensity
psychological treatments (including exposure and response prevention (ERP)) (up to 10 therapist
hours per patient) should be offered if the patient’s degree of functional impairment is mild and/
or the patient expresses a preference for a low-intensity approach. These include brief individual
CBT (including ERP) using structured self-help materials; brief individual CBT (including ERP)
by telephone; group CBT (including ERP) (note, the patient may receive more than 10 hours of
therapy in this format). Those with mild functional impairment who are unable to engage in low
intensity CBT (including ERP), or for whom low-intensity treatment has proved to be inadequate,
should be offered the choice of either a course of an SSRI or more intensive CBT (including
ERP) (more than 10 therapist hours per patient). Adults with OCD with moderate functional
impairment should be offered the choice of either a course of an SSRI or more intensive CBT
(including ERP) (more than 10 therapist hours per patient). Adults with OCD with severe functional
impairment should be offered combined treatment with an SSRI and CBT (including ERP).
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19
Q

Jack has certain core beliefs about being unlovable. He thinks that this
characteristic makes people abandon him. In order to avoid this, he turns
out to be excessively self-sacrifi cing to his family. From a schema-based
therapy point of view, what is the underlying cognitive process that is
maintaining the schema?
A. Schema surrender
B. Schema compensation
C. Schema avoidance
D. Schema utilization
E. None of the above

A

B. Schema-based approaches in cognitive therapy are based on the original ideas of Beck.
Early life experiences produce a number of thought patterns or schemata. These thought patterns
are like ‘block moulds’ into which thoughts fi t in when evaluating events. They are otherwise
called core beliefs. These result in underlying ‘assumptions’ which reinforce the core beliefs and
from these arise the negative automatic thoughts. Schemata are thought to be dormant, and
get activated during a depressive episode. Schemata are patterns of unconditional beliefs that
are hard to access and are self-maintaining. There are thought to be three main processes that
maintain schemata. Schema surrender is the process where the person seeks evidence that
supports the beliefs and dismisses any evidence to the contrary. Schema compensation refers to
compensating for the core belief by doing the exact opposite, but, ultimately, this action acts as
a reinforcer that maintains the schema, as in the case described in the question. Ultimately, the
person believes that the family loves him only because he is self-sacrifi cing, and if he was not, he
would still remain unlovable. Schema avoidance is a group of blocking behaviours that help avoid
emotional arousal – e.g. comfort eating.

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20
Q

Maria has obsessive thoughts of a violent nature towards her mother. Which
of the following is the least characteristic of dysfunctional assumptions likely
to be seen in Maria?
A. Having a thought about stabbing my mother is like doing it
B. I should exercise control over my thoughts
C. Although I believe that I will not hurt my mother, I am still responsible for this harmful
thought
D. Not neutralizing the thought of stabbing her mother is equivalent to wishing her mother
stabbed
E. If I don’t please everyone, I am a failure

A

E. Salkovskis described fi ve characteristic dysfunctional assumptions in patients with
obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD). The fi rst option refers to thought–action fusion, i.e.
having a thought equates to performing the action. This is consistent with the thoughts of
patients with OCD, especially those who have ‘violent’ obsessions. The second statement that a
person should (and can) exercise control over one’s thoughts is also consistent with thoughts in
OCD. Responsibility is not attenuated by other factors (e.g. the low probability of occurrence)
is a typical assumption in patients with OCD. The fourth option is also typical of an obsessive
cognition. The fi nal option is an assumption that is not typical of OCD. This is probably more
typical of a depressive assumption that reinforces the core belief ‘I am a failure’. As a corollary,
there may be another secondary assumption – ‘If I please everyone, I am considered successful’.

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21
Q
Covert sensitisation is best used in the treatment of which of the following
A. Alcohol dependence
B. Panic disorder
C. Generalized anxiety disorder
D. OCD
E. Major depressive disorder
A

A. Covert sensitisation is a variant of aversive conditioning wherein images (e.g. of drinking
situations) is paired with imaginary aversive stimuli (e.g. a scene of a person vomiting all over
the place, or a scene of a person dying of alcohol-induced liver damage). It is called covert
because neither the undesirable stimulus nor the aversive stimulus is actually presented except
in the imagination. Sensitization refers to the intention to build up an avoidance response to the
undesirable stimulus. This is based on aversion therapy.

22
Q
Parent management training is based on the principles of
A. Psychoanalysis
B. Learning theory
C. Systems theory of family therapy
D. Object relations theory
E. Play therapy
A

B. Parent management training was fi rst established as a treatment programme by Gerald
Patterson in the 1970s. The programme was based on the principles of learning theory, both
operant theories and social learning theories, which teach parents to use positive reinforcers,
like stickers, toys, or snacks to increase positive behaviour, while using time out tactics to
reduce negative behaviour like temper tantrums. Focus is on one problem behaviour at a
time. The parents are taught to observe the problem behaviour – the situations and timings
at which it occurs. The frequency of this behaviour is usually charted to look at the progress,
while abstinence from the behaviour is positively rewarded and indulgence in the behaviour is
rewarded with time outs. Parents are also taught to identify behaviours that are incompatible
with the ‘problem’ behaviour – e.g. talking nicely instead of whining. These are called ‘competing’
behaviours – and these are usually rewarded. Consistency in rewarding and punishing is
important in this setting. This treatment is usually used in childhood disruptive disorders such as
oppositional defi ant disorder or conduct disorder. Shaping and chaining are operant techniques
used to induce target behaviours. Approximating ‘da’ and ‘da’ to form the word ‘dada’ – to
which the daddy hugs the child (reinforcer) is an example of shaping. Chaining is linking of more
complex tasks such as wearing a pull-over shirt – this consists of a number of complex steps.
Modelling is a social learning technique where a social behaviour is reinforced by society.
For example a student who changes dress to fi t in with a certain group of students has a strong
likelihood of being accepted and thus reinforced by that group.

23
Q
Which of the following is the fi rst step in systematic desensitization?
A. Constructing a hierarchy
B. Relaxation training
C. Exposure in vivo
D. Exposure in vitro
E. Flooding
A

B. Systematic desensitization was fi rst developed by Joseph Wolpe in the 1950s to treat
phobic patients. It is based on the principles of counter-conditioning. It attempts to replace the
‘fear’ response to phobic stimuli with a new response (muscle relaxation) that is incompatible
with fear. The fi rst step in systematic desensitization is to train the clients in deep relaxation
until they can rapidly achieve muscle relaxation when instructed to do so. The second step is
to construct what is known as an ‘anxiety hierarchy’, in which the client’s feared situations are
ordered from the least to the most anxiety-provoking. Thus, for example, a person with phobia
for ‘cockroaches’ might regard a photograph of a cockroach as only modestly threatening, but a
large, rapidly moving cockroach close by as highly threatening. The client reaches a state of deep
relaxation, and is then asked to imagine (or is confronted by the photograph of a cockroach)
the least threatening situation in the anxiety hierarchy. The client repeatedly imagines (or is
confronted by) this situation until it fails to evoke any anxiety at all, indicating that the counterconditioning
has been successful. This process is repeated while working through the levels in the
anxiety hierarchy until the most anxiety-provoking situation is reached.

24
Q

Habit reversal components include all the following except
A. Training to be aware of onset
B. Training in thought stopping
C. Training in initiating competing response
D. Relaxation
E. Social support

A

B. Habit reversal is a complex procedure used generally to treat tics, Tourette’s syndrome
and stuttering. The treatment has fi ve components – training in becoming aware of the onset
of the behaviour; monitoring the behaviour; training in initiating competing responses that are
compatible with the behaviour; relaxation; and social support. Training in thought stopping is not
a component of habit reversal training.

25
Q
Orgasmic reconditioning is used in
A. Premature ejaculation
B. Erectile dysfunction
C. Delayed ejaculation
D. Changing sexual preferences
E. None of the above
A

D. Orgasmic reconditioning was fi rst described by Marquis in 1970. In this treatment, the
individual is asked to masturbate regularly to their troublesome deviant fantasies, but at the point
of orgasmic inevitability, to switch to a desired non-deviant fantasy. As treatment progresses, the
non-deviant stimulus is introduced earlier and earlier in the arousal process until masturbation
is achieved without the deviant fantasy. This technique obviously is used when the behaviour
or sexual preference that is of concern is not in itself dangerous or causing a public nuisance.
Following the treatment, further sexual and social skills training is usually needed to ensure that
the arousal to non-deviant stimuli is maintained.

26
Q
Massed negative practice treatment is used in the treatment of
A. Tic disorder
B. OCD
C. Generalized anxiety disorder
D. Panic disorder
E. None of the above
A

A. Massed negative practice requires the individual to deliberately perform the tic
accurately and with effort for a specifi c amount of time during the day. In theory, this is supposed
to induce conditioned inhibition or conditioned fatigue of the behaviour, which results in a
decrease in the tic. This is usually employed when habit reversal techniques have not been found
to be useful. The evidence for the effectiveness of this treatment is not compelling, especially
when compared with habit reversal training

27
Q
Token economy programmes are based on which of the following
psychological principle?
A. Classical conditioning
B. Operant conditioning
C. Vicarious learning
D. Aversive conditioning
E. None of the above
A

B. Token economy is based on operant conditioning theory. Their aim is to reinforce
desired behaviour, while undesired behaviour is extinguished or punished. In token economy, the
therapist distributes so-called tokens for occurrences of desired behaviour, e.g. brushing teeth or
cleaning the room. These tokens are chips that function as secondary reinforcers. The patient can
exchange the tokens for various objects (such as money or sweets) and favours (like watching
television or taking a walk outside). This was widely used in the treatment of schizophrenia in the
past, although most behaviour techniques are thought to be of ethical concern. Voucher-based
token economy programmes are also used in substance use programmes, where ‘supermarket’
vouchers worth certain amounts are given to the patient as a reward for abstinence

28
Q

Dawn is known to have moderate learning disability. She hits her head very
often with her right hand. Her therapist teaches Dawn to engage in knitting
with her right hand. This gradually replaced her maladaptive behaviour.
The process through which the therapist replaced a maladaptive behaviour
with an adaptive constructive one is through the principles of
A. Positive behavioural programming
B. Massed negative practice treatment
C. Functional communications training
D. Habit reversal programme
E. None of the above

A

A. Positive behavioural programming was developed to concentrate solely on interventions
designed to increase desired behaviours with the theoretical argument that these would
then replace problem behaviours. In this case there has been differential reinforcement of a
more positive activity. Functional communication training is an example of positive behaviour
programming. It is based on the hypothesis that problem behaviours are usually communication
needs. Individuals are taught to communicate through alternative more acceptable ways

29
Q

Which of the following in the least likely outcome in a patient undergoing
CBT for hypochondriasis?
A. Decrease in hypochondriacal thoughts
B. Better social role functioning
C. Less distress at thoughts of illness
D. Decrease in health-related anxiety
E. Remission of hypochondriacal somatic symptoms

A

E. In a 12-month follow-up randomized controlled trial of CBT vs treatment as usual, CBT
was found to be better than medical care as usual. Compared with the control group, the CBT
group had signifi cantly lower levels of hypochondriacal symptoms, beliefs, and attitudes and
health-related anxiety at 12 months. They also had less impairment of social role functioning
and intermediate activities of daily living. However, hypochondriacal somatic symptoms did
not improve signifi cantly. The authors of the study Barsky and Ahern explained, ‘Conceptually,
hypochondriacal somatic symptoms cannot simply be stripped away with symptomatic treatment,
because they exist for underlying psychological and interpersonal reasons. This suggests that
a realistic goal in treating hypochondriasis is amelioration of distressing fears and beliefs and
improved coping, rather than the elimination of somatic symptoms per se.’

30
Q
Which of the following approaches have shown to be the most effective in
bulimia nervosa?
A. CBT
B. Interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT)
C. Psychodynamic psychotherapy
D. Family therapy
E. Exposure and response prevention.
A

A. Most evidence suggests that CBT specifi c for bulimia nervosa (CBT-BN) devised
by Fairburn has a better and faster outcome than most other psychological therapies. NICE
guidelines recommend a self-help programme as possible fi rst step for treatment. CBT-BN, a
specifi cally adapted form of CBT, is offered to adults with bulimia nervosa as an alternative. The
course of treatment should be for 16–20 sessions over 4–5 months. When people with bulimia
nervosa have not responded to or do not want CBT, other psychological treatments should be
considered. Interpersonal psychotherapy should be considered as an alternative to CBT, but
patients should be informed it takes 8–12 months to achieve results similar to CBT.

31
Q
How would you treat an intelligent 15-year-old boy with moderate
depression but no suicidal thoughts?
A. CBT
B. SSRI and CBT
C. TCA alone
D. TCA and CBT
E. SSRI alone
A

A. NICE guidelines recommend referral to CAMHS tier 2 or 3. The fi rst step in the
management is to offer one of the following specifi c psychological therapies (for at least
3 months) as a fi rst-line treatment:
• individual CBT, or
• interpersonal therapy, or
• shorter-term family therapy.
If the depression is unresponsive to the above therapies in four to six sessions a multidisciplinary
review should follow. Further psychological assessment for comorbidity and further psychological
and social treatments that address these should be considered. Only after these steps, is
medication considered as an addition.
• For young people aged 12–18 years offer fl uoxetine in addition to
psychological therapy.
• For children aged 5–11 years cautiously consider the addition of fl uoxetine (evidence for its
effectiveness in this age group is not established).

32
Q

The therapeutic work of interpersonal psychotherapy is organized
around central interpersonal problem areas in the patient’s life. Which
of the following situations are possible problem areas in a case of acute
depression?
A. Role transition
B. Grief
C. Role dispute
D. Interpersonal defi cits
E. All of the above

A

E. In acute treatment for depression with IPT, the problem areas can be classifi ed as
role transitions (associated with stressful life events), grief, role disputes (e.g. in marriage), or
interpersonal defi cits (lack of social support). Although specifi c stressful experiences are relevant
to other IPT problem areas in the broadest sense, adjusting to stress and change in the social
context requires a role transition. This might be the case in depression following the birth of
a child, retirement, medical illness, divorce, etc. According to IPT, bereavement is thought to
be a potential precursor of clinical depression. Development of clinical depression following a
death is evidence that the normal grief process did not take place and that the individual has
had an abnormal grief reaction. In such cases the work of IPT is to help the patient experience
the normal grief process. A role dispute can occur in any important relationship especially the
patient’s relationship with his or her spouse or signifi cant other. In interpersonal defi cits, the
patient’s primary problem is seen as a paucity of social connections. Relationships buffer the
individual against stressful life events and are essential to psychological well-being. As such, the
primary goal is to enhance the level of social connection through concrete positive changes in
the patient’s social activities (e.g. joining a club, taking a class). Attention to social support and a
positive social network is also a component of work in the other IPT problem areas

33
Q

Which of the following is NOT a step in interpersonal psychotherapy for
depression?
A. Evaluating depressed mood
B. Evaluating interpersonal relationships
C. Employing thought records
D. Improving capacity to communicate
E. Enhancing understanding of depression as a medical illness

A

C. Because guilt and low self-esteem are characteristic of depression, patients frequently
blame themselves and think of themselves as ‘bad’ when problems arise. Although many
depressed patients report these negative cognitions, the therapist does not systematically
question and evaluate the automatic negative thoughts. Unlike cognitive therapists, interpersonal
therapists neither employ thought records nor weigh the evidence to help patients re-evaluate
negative cognitions. Instead, therapists shift blame to the illness, which often provides patients
with an immediate feeling of relief. Therapists then capitalize on this transient mood improvement
by encouraging patients to take positive steps towards resolving interpersonal problems.

34
Q

In the landmark National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) Treatment
of Depression Collaborative Research Program, which of the following
psychotherapies was found to be equivalent to imipramine in severe
depression?
A. CBT
B. IPT
C. Psychodynamic psychotherapy
D. Family therapy
E. All of the above

A

B. A landmark trial in the history of antidepressant psychotherapy was the multisite NIMH
Treatment of Depression Collaborative Research Program. Investigators randomly assigned
250 outpatients with major depression to receive 16 weeks of IPT, CBT, imipramine plus clinical
management, or placebo pills plus clinical management. This study was the fi rst comparison
of IPT and CBT, each of which had demonstrated effi cacy in separate trials, and the fi rst trial
to use treatment manuals and monitor the psychotherapeutic input of pharmacotherapists.
Most patients completed at least 12 once-weekly treatment sessions or 15 weeks of therapy.
Those with milder depression (defi ned as a score of <20 on the 17-item Hamilton Rating Scale
for Depression) improved equally regardless of which treatment was used. For more severely
depressed patients (those with a Ham-D score of 20), imipramine worked fastest and was most
consistently superior to placebo. IPT and imipramine had comparable effects on Ham-D scores
and several other outcome measures, and were superior to placebo for more severely depressed
patients. CBT was not superior to placebo among the more depressed patients.

35
Q

Which of the following is the fi rst step involved in crisis intervention?
A. Patient is encouraged to consider solutions
B. Assess the patient’s problems and assets
C. Test the solutions
D. Reduce arousal
E. Consider future coping mechanisms

A

D. Crisis intervention originated from the work of Lindemann and Caplan. It is based
on Caplan’s description of four stages of coping, including emotional arousal, disorganization
of behaviour, trials of alternative coping and fi nally exhaustion and decompensation. Crisis
intervention aims primarily to deal with the fi rst stage, so that further stages can be prevented.
Hence the fi rst step is to reduce arousal, both physiological and emotional. The approach is
collaborative with family and friends. Very often this stage includes the use of medications that
prevent or help reduce arousal. Along with the reduction in arousal, the patient is encouraged to
focus on the current problems and encourage self-help. The second stage of crisis intervention
resembles problem-solving counselling and includes the assessment of patients’ problems and
assets, their ability to come up with solutions and test them, and fi nally to consider coping
mechanisms for the future if similar problems arise.

36
Q
Dialectical behavioural therapy uses all of the following techniques except
A. Cognitive behavioural techniques
B. Mindfulness techniques
C. Aphorisms
D. Role reversal
E. Dialectical techniques
A

D. Marsha Linehan developed dialectical therapy for patients with borderline personality
disorder who repeatedly harm themselves. The treatment uses both behavioural and cognitive
methods. It is highly structured and is manual based. Therapy is intense with individual sessions,
skills training in a group and access by telephone to the therapist between sessions. It is delivered
by a small team of therapists and lasts for up to a year. Individual sessions have four elements:
cognitive behavioural techniques including self monitoring; dialectical ways of thinking about
problems – seeing causality in terms of both/and rather than either/or and the possibility of
reconciling opposites; mindfulness, that is the practice of detachment from the experience; use of
aphorisms, that is phrases that encapsulate the approach –e.g. people may not have caused the
problems, but have to solve them anyway. Skills training sessions are provided in a group basis
and telephone contacts are designed to help patients get out of crises, by using the skills learnt in
the sessions.

37
Q
Which of the following is considered to be the most important therapeutic
factor in group psychotherapy?
A. Ventilation of affect
B. Pairing
C. Cohesion
D. Dependence
E. Discussion
A

C. Cohesion is the sense that the group is working together towards a common goal.
This is believed to be the most important factor related to positive therapeutic effects. Group
cohesion has been likened to the therapeutic alliance in dyadic treatment. In dynamic therapies,
specifi c and non-specifi c elements contribute to therapeutic change. In groups, the presence of
other people adds to factors present in all dyadic healing relationships. Non-specifi c factors are
embedded in the relationships established through a consistent, accepting, non-judgemental, and
supportive environment. These are all elements of a cohesive group. Groups provide a corrective
emotional experience in which patients experience others (including the therapist) responding
to them differently from those in their past. Members share their stories (catharsis) and feel
less isolated when others have shared similar stories (universalization); they have opportunities
to be helpful to others through both cognitive understanding and emotional linking (imparting
information, providing feedback, and altruism). They also see others improve, which conveys hope.
These elements contribute to the sense of collaboration and a willingness to adopt norms
(i.e. discuss feelings about the interactions in the meeting) that further members’ sense of effi cacy
and belonging. They contribute to an experience of support and acceptance, which may be
suffi cient therapeutic gain for a number of patients. Fight/fl ight, pairing, and dependency are Bion’s
basic group assumptions that lead to a negative therapeutic effect

38
Q

In a therapeutic community, the members tolerate behaviour that may not
be accepted anywhere else. This process is called
A. Permissiveness
B. Cohesion
C. Mutual help
D. Imitation
E. Altruism

A

A. Permissiveness is the principle where members tolerate behaviour that they may not
accept elsewhere. This is also helped by the members having the opportunity to be helpful to
others through both cognitive understanding and emotional linking (imparting information,
providing feedback, and altruism). Mutual help is the process by which members support each
other and help each other to change. Imitation is the conscious emulation of one’s behaviour
following that of another – also called role modelling. Altruism is the process of putting another
person’s need ahead of one’s own and in the process learning there is value in giving to others

39
Q

In a family therapy session, the mother is asked to comment on the
relationship between her husband and their eldest son. After this, the family
members are asked to comment on the mother’s response. This method is
called
A. Paradoxical injunction
B. Circular questioning
C. Socratic questioning
D. Role reversal
E. Sculpting

A

B. Circular questioning is often used in family therapy as part of assessment. The purpose is
to discover and clarify confused or confl icting views among the members of the family. Following
this, a hypothesis is constructed about family functioning, which is then presented to the family,
who should consider it between sessions. The family may be asked to try to behave in new ways.
Paradoxical injunctions are used in couples therapy and family therapy. They are provocative
statements designed to elicit a benefi cial counter-response that the couple have previously
resisted. Very often, this will include a prescription of the ‘unwanted symptom’, which the couple
realize and try to give reasons why this is acceptable to the couple. Socratic questioning is a
technique used in cognitive therapy. Role reversal is a technique in couples therapy which helps
one partner to understand the point of view and experience of the other.

40
Q

Which of the following is not a goal of family therapy?
A. Improving communication
B. Improving agreement on roles of each member
C. Improving cognitive style
D. Decreasing confl ict among members
E. Decreasing distress in the member considered to be the patient

A

C. Family therapy is mostly employed in child psychiatry settings, when problems have
usually been identifi ed in a child’s behaviour, which has led the family to seek help. The aim of
family therapy is to improve family functioning and so help the identifi ed patient. The goals of
family therapy include (1) improved communications; (2) improved autonomy for each member;
(3) improved agreement about roles; (4) reduced confl ict; (5) reduced distress in the member
who is the patient. Family therapy developed from Ackerman’s work on psychodynamics of
family and Bateson’s work on communication. Ackerman’s work led to the development of
psychodynamic methods of treatment, while Bateson’s work led to the system’s approach.
Minuchin developed further the system’s approach in the USA to form the structural family
therapy method.

41
Q
Traps, dilemmas, and snags are techniques typically used in
A. Cognitive analytical therapy
B. Cognitive behavioural therapy
C. Rational emotive therapy
D. Interpersonal therapy
E. Psychodynamic psychotherapy
A

A. Cognitive analytical therapy was fi rst developed by Ryle as a brief form of therapy.
The therapy is based on the principle that purposeful behaviour activity always follows a
sequence. These sequences can be faulty in three ways. Traps are repetitive cycles of behaviour
in which the consequence of the behaviour perpetuates it. For example a depressed student
is hopeless and stops studying for his exam. He fails the exam, and feels more hopeless and
depressed. Dilemmas are false choices or unduly narrowed options. For example, people who
fear angry feelings may think they have to choose between placation and aggression. They choose
to placate others who then take advantage of them, thus making them even angrier. Snags are the
anticipation of highly negative consequences of action such that the action is never carried out
and therefore never subject to a reality check.

42
Q

Which of the following statements accurately describes collaborative
empiricism in CBT?
A. A relationship in which the client is presumed to be right in his or her assumptions and
the therapist collaborates to reduce the impact of the assumptions
B. A relationship in which the therapy is considered empirical with no guaranteed positive
outcome in order to avoid later disappointment
C. A relationship in which the therapist and client share their problems with each other
and collaborate to fi nd mutual solutions
D. A relationship in which the therapist and the client work as partners in identifying and
modifying dysfunctional cognitions and behaviours.
E. A relationship in which the client agrees for the therapist to share information with
multiple other therapists who offer different models of therapy

A

D. Collaborative empiricism is a term used in cognitive therapy to describe the therapeutic
relationship with a high degree of collaboration and an experimental but pragmatic tone to the
therapy. This allows the therapist to formulate hypotheses and helps the client to test the validity
of the hypotheses, thus actively contributing to the client’s therapy. It does not necessarily mean
that the client and the therapist must agree with each other on every aspect of the therapy.
In addition, the therapist need not collude with dysfunctional assumptions the client holds in
order to achieve the collaboration.

43
Q
A method of group psychotherapy where members of the group take on
the roles of ‘the protagonist’ and ‘auxillary ego’ while the therapist takes on
the role of ‘the director’ is
A. Drama therapy
B. Biofeedback therapy
C. Psychodrama
D. Direction group
E. Auxillary ego therapy
A

C. Psychodrama is a method of group psychotherapy originated by Jacob Moreno, a
Viennese-born psychiatrist. In this type of psychotherapy, the personality make-up, interpersonal
relationships, confl icts, and emotional problems are explored by means of special ‘dramatic’
methods. Therapeutic dramatization of emotional problems includes the ‘protagonist’ or patient,
the person who acts out his/her problems. The enactment is carried out with the help of
‘auxiliary egos’, people who enact varying aspects of the patient. The therapist takes up the role
of the ‘director’ and guides those in the drama towards the acquisition of insight. Situations are
chosen by the protagonist – this usually focuses on any special area of functioning or symptoms.
The auxiliary ego takes on the role of other signifi cant people in the protagonist’s life. The
therapist directs the situations, and the group can comment on various ways in which the
protagonist deals with the situation he/she is in. Techniques to advance the therapeutic process
and to increase productivity and creativity include the soliloquy (a recital of overt and hidden
thoughts and feelings), role reversal (the exchange of the patient’s role for the role of a signifi cant
person), the double (an auxiliary ego acting as the patient), the multiple double (several egos
acting as the patient did on varying occasions), and the mirror technique (an ego imitating
the patient and speaking for him or her). Other techniques include the use of hypnosis and
psychoactive drugs to modify the acting behaviour in various ways

44
Q

Justin is a medical student who faints every time he encounters medical
situations involving blood or injury. His therapist trains him to tense the
muscles of the arms, legs, and torso at the earliest signs of faintness.
This type of therapy is called
A. Applied relaxation
B. Applied tension
C. Autogenic training
D. Biofeedback
E. Self-hypnosis

A

B. This is called applied tension. Unlike those with other specifi c phobias who show an
increase in sympathetic output on exposure to phobic stimuli, patients with blood–injury–
injection phobia show a unique, biphasic response. The fi rst phase is associated with increased
heart rate and blood pressure. In the second phase, however, the blood pressure suddenly
falls and the patient faints. To treat the problem, patients are shown a series of slides that are
provocative (e.g. mutilated bodies). They are trained to identify early-warning signs of fainting,
such as queasiness, cold sweats, or dizziness. They also learn how to apply the learned muscle
tension response quickly, contingent on these warning signs. Patients can also perform applied
tension while donating blood or watching a surgical operation. The technique of isometric
tension raises blood pressure, which prevents fainting

45
Q
The acronym ‘FRAMES’ in brief intervention for alcohol dependence stands
for all except
A. Feedback
B. Roll with resistance
C. Advice
D. Empathic interviewing
E. Self-effi cacy
A

B. The acronym FRAMES captures the essence of a number of interventions commonly
used under the terms ‘brief intervention’. These are interventions that cover a range from one
5-minute interaction to several 45-minute sessions. The major positive studies discussed in this
section typically consist of one interaction lasting between 5 and 20 minutes, sometimes with
one brief follow-up contact. The acronym FRAMES stands for: feedback: about personal risk or
impairment; responsibility: emphasis on personal responsibility for change; advice: to cut down
or abstain if indicated because of severe dependence or harm; menu: of alternative options
for changing drinking pattern and, jointly with the patient, setting a target; intermediate goals
of reduction can be a start; empathic interviewing: listening refl ectively without cajoling or
confronting; exploring with patients the reasons for change as they see their situation;
self-effi cacy: an interviewing style that enhances people’s belief in their ability to change.
‘Rolling with resistance’ is a part of Miller and Rollnick’s motivational interviewing.

46
Q

In the treatment of borderline personality disorder, which of the following
does Stage 2 of dialectical behaviour therapy target?
A. Severe behavioural dyscontrol
B. Quiet desperation
C. Problematic patterns in living
D. Incompleteness
E. None of the above

A

B. Treatment of borderline personality disorder is organized around the level of the
disorder, with each level corresponding to one of four stages of treatment with specifi c goals that
are targeted towards core defi cits seen in these patients.
Stage I: In the fi rst stage of treatment, the therapist seeks to increase behavioural control
through helping patients attain basic capacities. This is targeted towards the severe ‘behavioural
dyscontrol’ exhibited by the patient.
Stage II: The second stage targets ‘quiet desperation’. The intent in this stage is to facilitate
emotional experiencing through reducing post-traumatic stress and blocking dissociation.
The principal goal of this stage is to block avoidance of emotions and the environmental cues
associated with them. In this stage, patients are helped to experience their feelings without
avoiding life or experiencing symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder.
Stage III: The third stage is targeted towards ‘problematic patterns in living’. The goal of this stage
is to achieve ‘ordinary happiness and unhappiness’ through increasing self-respect and working on
problems with relationships and career choices.
Stage IV: The fourth and fi nal stage is directed towards ‘incompleteness’. The goal of the last stage
is to develop the patient’s capacity for sustained experience of contentment, connection, and
freedom.

47
Q

Rachel is a 35-year-old woman who was recently involved in a lifethreatening
road traffi c accident. She developed symptoms suggestive of
post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) over a period of a month following
the accident. The symptoms interfered with her daily activities. She refused
to drive to work and started missing her work. She also stopped taking her
children to the nursery. According to NICE guidelines, what treatment is
recommended?
A. Trauma-focused CBT
B. Single-session debriefi ng
C. Wait and watch
D. EMDR
E. Relaxation therapy

A

A. The NICE recommends ‘Watchful waiting’ when symptoms are mild and have been
present for less than 4 weeks after the trauma, with a follow-up contact within 1 month. NICE
specifi cally asks therapists and clinicians not to routinely offer brief, single-session interventions
(debriefi ng) that focus on the traumatic incident to that individual alone. Where symptoms
are present for less than 3 months (as in the case with Rachel), NICE specifi cally recommends
trauma-focused CBT (usually on an individual outpatient basis. Trauma-focused CBT is also
recommended for people with ‘severe’ symptoms or ‘severe’ PTSD within 1 month. NICE
recommends 8–12 weekly sessions of trauma-focused CBT, each session delivered by the same
person and lasting around 90 minutes during which trauma is discussed. NICE advises against
the use of non-directed therapies such as relaxation training. Where symptoms are milder
and have lasted for more than 3 months, NICE recommends either trauma-focused CBT or
EMDR. In addition to psychological treatments, NICE also recommends specifi c pharmacological
interventions.

48
Q

Cognitive therapy aims to modify the schemas that perpetuate depression
or anxiety. Which of the following is least likely with respect to schemas?
A. Schemas contain basic rules for screening, fi ltering, and processing external information
B. Schemas are behaviours representative of the patient’s presenting problem
C. Conditional rules such as ‘if–then’ statements can serve as dysfunctional schemas
D. Schemas include core beliefs about oneself
E. Simple schemas can exist without infl uencing psychopathology

A

B. Schemas determine our perceptions, assimilations, and actions upon the externally
received information. These are developed through early experiences in childhood and formative
infl uences thereafter. According to Beck, these are deeper cognitive structures than the negative
automatic thoughts that are readily observable in clients undergoing cognitive behavioural
therapy. Everyone interacts with the external world by utilizing his/her set of schemas. Most
of these are simple schemas that do not contribute to any psychopathology. So schemas are
conditional rules (‘if–then statements’) while the others are core beliefs about oneself
(‘I am good-looking’, ‘I cannot write a poem’, etc). Clients requiring CBT often have a cluster
of maladaptive schemas that perpetuate depression or anxiety state.

49
Q

On the basis of cognitive theory, certain cognitive distortions are
formulated to explain both behavioural features and bodily symptoms of
various psychiatric disorders. Which of the following themes is correctly
matched with the disorder?
A. Hopelessness: panic disorder
B. Sense of failure: agoraphobia
C. Attentional bias towards threat: generalized anxiety disorder
D. Black and white thinking: schizophrenia
E. Minimization of positive appraisal: specifi c phobias

A

vC. Clients with generalized anxiety often have an attentional bias that sensitizes them to
respond to potentially threatening stimuli in the environment. Such attentional biases towards
threatening information are also noted in individuals with high trait anxiety and may play an
important role in the development of clinical anxiety disorders and maintenance of anxiety.
Experimentally, dot probe tasks have been used to demonstrate such biases. Clients with
depression often underestimate positive aspects of life, e.g. downplaying positive feedback but
continuing with a sense of failure and hopelessness. They might also exhibit absolute thinking
favouring negative themes – this is termed as black and white thinking.

50
Q

During a biofeedback session, which of the following denotes a stage of
relaxation?
A. Increase in beta waves on EEG
B. Decrease in skin conductance
C. Decrease in skin temperature
D. Increase in action potential recordings on the electromyogram (EMG)
E. All of the above

A

B. Biofeedback is the process where certain physiological parameters of an individual
are recorded and displayed. It is usually used in combination with relaxation. This involves the
recording of small changes in the physiological levels (induced by relaxation) of the feedback
parameter. The display can be visual or auditory. Patients are instructed to change the levels of
the physiological parameter, using the feedback from the display. It is based on the idea that the
autonomic nervous system can come under voluntary control through operant conditioning.
The feedback instrument used depends on the patient and the specifi c problem. The most
effective instruments are the electromyogram (EMG), which measures the electrical potentials
of muscle fi bres; the electroencephalogram (EEG), which measures alpha waves that occur in
relaxed states; the galvanic skin response (GSR) gauge, which shows decreased skin conductivity
during a relaxed state; and the thermistor, which measures skin temperature (which drops during
tension because of peripheral vasoconstriction). For example, in the treatment of bruxism,
an EMG electrode is attached to the masseter muscle. The EMG emits a loud tone when the
muscle is contracted and a low tone when at rest. Patients can learn to alter the tone to indicate
relaxation. Patients receive feedback about the masseter muscle, the tone reinforces the learning,
and the condition ameliorates.