History, social, ethical (MRCP) Flashcards

1
Q
Which one of the following was a proponent of humane and moral
treatment of insanity?
A. Anton Mesmer
B. Phillipe Pinel
C. Jacques Lacan
D. Emil Krapelin
E. Melanie Klein
A

B. Phillipe Pinel (1745–1826) was working at Salpetriere in Paris at the time of the French
Revolution. He insisted on releasing patients from chains in asylums, emphasized systematic
clinical observations using case records and championed humane treatment of the mentally ill.
Anton Mesmer was a proponent of mesmerism, a form of clinical suggestion. Jacques Lacan is
known as the ‘French Freud’. Melanie Klein was an object relations theorist.

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2
Q

Morel was a French–Austrian physician associated with the term demence
precoce. He is also associated with which of the following theories?
A. Regeneration theory
B. Devolution theory
C. Degeneration theory
D. Segregation theory
E. Integration theory

A

C. Degeneration theory maintained that most forms of insanity resulted from continuous
deterioration of mental faculties. More alarmingly, it also stated that hereditary transmission of
nervous dysfunction was produced by noxious environmental factors. Morel was the proponent
of degeneration theory

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3
Q
Neurasthenia was originally described by which one of the following?
A. Beard
B. Freud
C. Jung
D. Adler
E. Engel
A

A. American neurologist, Beard, described neurasthenia in 1880. This is retained in the
ICD-10, and is the closest diagnosis to the present day chronic fatigue syndrome. Various terms,
including myalgic encephalomyelitis and viral fatigue syndrome, are in vogue in an attempt to
emphasize infectious/ infl ammatory origin of this illness

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4
Q
Inducing malarial fever was proposed as a treatment for which of the
following diseases?
A. Hysteria
B. Neurasthenia
C. Tourette’s syndrome
D. General paralysis of the insane
E. Multiple sclerosis
A

D. General paresis or paralysis of the insane (GPI, also called as paralytic dementia) is a rare
encephalitic illness. GPI was common in the past due to syphilis. Malaria therapy for GPI was
proposed by Wagner von Jauregg, a Nobel laureate. Manic presentation was common in GPI. GPI
has almost disappeared now, though with the rising HIV pandemic it is speculated to have
resurgence in the future

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5
Q
Which one of the following hormones was used to induce coma in the
treatment of schizophrenia?
A. Thyroxine
B. Cortisone
C. Testosterone
D. Insulin
E. Parathormone
A

D. Insulin coma therapy for severe mental illness was introduced by Sakel in 1933. This was a
potentially fatal treatment complicated by seizures and encephalopathy. Chemically induced
seizures were also employed around the same period (von Meduna) for treating schizophrenia.

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6
Q
Who among the following described hebephrenic schizophrenia?
A. Greisinger
B. Falret and Baillarger
C. Tuke
D. Hecker
E. Clouston
A

D. Hecker described hebephrenia – characterized by adolescent onset with disorganized
behaviour and incongruent affect. Hecker was a pupil of Karl Kahlbaum, and some consider that
he only popularized the notion of hebephrenic schizophrenia, which was originally proposed by
Kahlbaum. Sir Thomas Clouston is associated with ‘developmental insanity’. William Tuke opened
the Retreat in York, promoting moral treatment and unchaining the insane. Falret and Baillarger
are associated with folie circulaire (manic depression) while Greisinger developed views on tha
neuropathological basis for psychiatric disorders.

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7
Q
Which one of the following terms was coined by Esquirol?
A. Nymphomania
B. Monomania
C. Hypomania
D. Pseudomania
E. Pyromania
A

B. Monomania was described by Esquirol and it is similar to the present day concept of
delusional disorder. Nymphomania was coined in 1775, by a French doctor Bienville, from Greek
nymphe meaning ‘bride’. It was used to describe excessive sexual desire seen in some women. The
term hypomania was coined by Mendel (1881).

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8
Q
First-rank symptoms in schizophrenia were proposed by
A. Kurt Schneider
B. Carl Schneider
C. Manfred Bleuler
D. Eugen Bleuler
E. Emil Kraeplin
A

A. Kurt Schneider proposed fi rst-rank symptoms – neither diagnostic nor prognostic but only
indicative of schizophrenia. Eugen Bleuler used the term schizophrenia in 1911. Carl Schneider
classifi ed many forms of formal thought disturbances; later he was closely associated with the Nazi
movement in Germany, promoting ‘euthanasia’ for mentally retarded and epileptic patients.

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9
Q
All of the following are correctly matched EXCEPT
A. Ribot: anhedonia
B. Sifneos: alexithymia
C. Kahlbaum: cyclothymia
D. Moreno: chorea
E. Cameron: overinclusion
A

D. Moreno described psychodrama, not chorea. He also introduced sociometry. Anhedonia
stands for inability to obtain pleasure from activities; alexithymia is a diffi culty in verbalizing
emotional states; Cyclothymia, retained in ICD-10, is a minor subsyndromal form of bipolar illness
described by Kahlbaum; Cameron described overinclusion as a part of formal thought
disturbances.

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10
Q
The fi rst antidepressants to be discovered were
A. SSRIs
B. MAOIs
C. TCAs
D. Amphetamines
E. Benzodiazepines
A

B. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors were the earliest antidepressants. They were
serendipitously discovered when iproniazid, an antitubercular antibiotic, was found to have moodlifting
properties. This was reported by Bloch in 1954

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11
Q

Case studies have been traditionally useful in studying brain–behaviour
relationships. In one of such case study Phineas Gage, a railway worker,
sustained damage to which of the following brain areas?
A. Parietal lobe
B. Hypothalamus
C. Pineal gland
D. Frontal lobe
E. Temporal lobe

A

D. Phineas Gage was a railway workman whose frontal lobe (especially the ventromedial
prefrontal area) was accidentally drilled out by an iron bar. He survived the terrible accident but
had signifi cant personality and behavioural change, stimulating interest in studying functions of the
frontal lobe.

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12
Q
Lithium was used in which of the following medical illnesses before being
rediscovered for mania?
A. Gout
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Epilepsy
D. Stroke
E. Goitre
A

A. Lithium was brought to the attention of psychiatric practice in 1949 by Australian, John
Cade, who highlighted its mood-stabilizing effect. Lithium water was a popular ‘tonic for aches
and pains’ and was used for gout before this discovery

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13
Q
Which one of the following is the oldest treatment method employed to
cure mental illness?
A. Electroconvulsion
B. Coma induction
C. Trephination
D. Lobotomy
E. Rest cure
A

C. Trephination refers to drilling holes in skulls to release evil spirit that were believed to
haunt the insane. This practice is noted even in prehistoric skulls dated 6500 BC. Electroconvulsion
was introduced by Cerletti and Bini in the early part of the twentieth century, while Moniz
proposed neurosurgical methods to treat psychiatric disorders.

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14
Q
Durkheim is a name associated with the study of which of the following
phenomena?
A. Homicide
B. Violence
C. Truancy
D. Arson
E. Suicide
A

E. Durkheim described anomic, altruistic, and egoistic suicide. In anomie, the patient feels let
down by society and fails to follow norms. In altruistic suicide, over involvement with a particular
social group leads to signifi cant alteration in one’s self identity and the suicide is for the group
cause rather than personal cause, for example hara-kiri of a soldier. Egoistic suicide refers to
those suicides in people who are not strongly integrated into any social group, for example lack
of family integration in unmarried persons.

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15
Q
Which of the following is a correct match with respect to diagnostic scales
in psychiatry?
A. Negative symptoms: Jaspers
B. Akathisia: Barnes
C. Frontal battery: Folstein
D. MMSE: Andreasen
E. Formal thought disturbance: Hare
A

B. Barnes’ Akathisia Rating Scale is used to measure akathisia, a side-effect of antipsychotics
characterized by both subjective and, later, objective restlessness. Folstein described MMSE in a
seminal paper; Andreasen devised the Thought Language and Communication scale to measure
formal thought disturbance; Kay’s PANSS (positive and negative symptom scale) can measure
negative symptoms; Hare is a name associated with a psychopathy checklist used by forensic services

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16
Q
Which one of the following is regarded as an illustrative case for classical
conditioning in phobia?
A. Little Hans and horses
B. Little Albert and rabbit
C. Anna O
D. Daniel Schreber
E. Ratman
A

B. Little Albert learnt to avoid rabbits after a loud noise induced fear in him whenever he
played with a white rat. This fear later generalized to white rabbits (Watson and Rayner 1920).
Anna O was a patient with ‘hysteria’ treated by Freud and Breuer. Ratman was also a patient of
Freud who had OCD, while Schreber had delusional disorder.

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17
Q
Who among the following used the term agoraphobia to describe a
category of anxiety disorder?
A. Burton
B. Schneider
C. Westphal
D. Jung
E. Anna Freud
A

C. Robert Burton wrote ‘The Anatomy of Melancholy’ in which some description of
symptoms suggestive of agoraphobia is seen together with the account of depressive illness. In
1871, Carl Otto Westphal coined the term agoraphobia to describe several of his patients who
experienced severe anxiety when walking through streets or open squares. Schneider proposed
fi rst-rank symptoms; Jung belonged to the psychoanalytic school. Anna Freud, Freud’s daughter,
was involved in classifying defence mechanisms and also in child psychoanalysis.

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18
Q

Freud is regarded as the father of psychoanalysis. Which one of the following
techniques was developed by Freud for his own clinical practice?
A. Narcoanalysis
B. Polysomnography
C. Free association
D. Dissociation
E. Mesmerism

A

C. Free association was a popular technique used by Freudian analysts. Having learnt hypnosis
from Charcot, neurologist-turned-psychoanalyst Freud developed the method of free association in
which patients were encouraged to speak about their thoughts without distraction or censure. This
was intended to be a therapeutic method, though later adapted largely as an interview technique.
Narcoanalysis involves using barbiturates as truth serum. Dissociation is a psychological mechanism
and not a clinical technique. Mesmerism or animal magnetism was developed by Anton Mesmer

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19
Q
Phrenology refers to the study of which of the following concepts?
A. Study of free will
B. Study of conscience
C. Study of logic
D. Study of skull contour
E. Study of homunculus
A

D. Phrenology was a popular theory which claimed to determine personality and diagnose/
predict mental symptoms using the shape of the skull. It was developed by the German physician
Gall and was very popular in the mid 1800s. Phrenologists used their bare hands and palms to
feel for fi ssures or dents in their patients’ skulls. With this information, the phrenologist would
report on the character of the patient; its popularity reached extremes when marriages and
recruitment were advised by phrenologists.

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20
Q
Schizophrenia was coined by Bleuler in 1911. The literal meaning of the
term schizophrenia is
A. Split mind
B. Split skull
C. Fused mind
D. Exploded will
E. Split will
A

A. The term ‘schizophrenia’ stands for split personality. Even today this is confused with
more dramatic multiple personality disorder by some of the lay public. The term was coined by
Eugene Bleuler in 1911. It is derived from the Greek words ‘schizo’ (split) and ‘phrene’ (mind).
Bleuler intended to use the name in order to capture the functional dissociation between
personality, thinking, memory, and perception in a patient with schizophrenia.

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21
Q
Which of the following refers to the literal meaning of the term hysteria?
A. Wandering mind
B. Wandering kidney
C. Wandering uterus
D. Wandering brain
E. Wandering heart
A

C. The term hysteria stands for ‘wandering uterus’. It was incorrectly observed that hysteria
affects only women. The uterus is a major morphological difference between a man and a woman;
hence, rather simplistically, it was believed that uterus was the site of problems in hysteria. Also it
was believed that unmarried women often had this wandering uterus that could be tied down by
wedlock, leading to a reduction in hysterical symptoms following marriage. It was even believed in
a Greek myth that this wandering uterus could strangulate a person, leading to hysterical globus
or aphonia! Unusual treatments, including pelvic massage to induce orgasm, were offered to cure
hysteria later in history.

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22
Q
Which of the following diagnostic technique involved injecting air into
subarachnoid space?
A. Myelography
B. Pneumoencephalography
C. Electroencephalography
D. Encephalotomography
E. Encephaloultrasonography
A

B. Dandy, in 1919, used pneumoencephalogram as a diagnostic technique to visualize the
brain. This technique showed enlarged ventricles in patients with schizophrenia, which was later
confi rmed by investigations using various other imaging modalities that developed later. There
was a high fatality rate associated with pneumoencephalogram

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23
Q

In a large, multicentre trial reported in 1988, Kane demonstrated that
clozapine was superior in treatment-resistant schizophrenia patients
compared to which of the following drugs?
A. Haloperidol
B. Chlorpromazine
C. Olanzapine
D. Fluphenazine
E. Thoridazine

A

B. Kane revived the use of clozapine through his milestone study. He compared
chlorpromazine and clozapine in a treatment-resistant sample and demonstrated clozapine’s
superiority in this instance (in 1988) leading to FDA approval (in 1989). The multicentre trial
showed that 30% of clozapine-treated patients will respond in 6 weeks while 60% will respond in
6 months. On the other hand, only 4% improved on chlorpromazine in combination with
benztropine.

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24
Q
Who is the proponent of primal therapy?
A. Arthur Janov
B. Melanie Klein
C. William Tuke
D. Franz Alexander
E. Mary Ainsworth
A

A. Primal therapy refers to a trauma-focused treatment proposed by Arthur Janov. Primal
therapy claims that only through direct experience of pain and emotions, could any psychological
treatment work. Other talking therapies use higher cortical cognitive processes to talk about
emotional experience while primal therapy attempts to engage lower brain centres during
psychotherapy.

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25
Q
Which of the following described delusions as un-understandable?
A. Jean Piaget
B. Erik Erikson
C. Karl Jaspers
D. Eric Fromm
E. Aaron Beck
A

C. Jaspers was both a psychiatrist and a philosopher. He studied psychopathology in depth;
the descriptive psychopathology and psychiatric phenomenology used in current psychiatric
practice are largely Jasper’s contributions. According to him, a specifi c quality of delusions is their
‘un-understandability’. This distinguished primary delusions from delusion-like ideas or secondary
delusions that arose out of a different psychopathology. for example hallucinations.

26
Q

Choose the best explanation for the term spirituality:
A. Affi liation to a religious group
B. Habitual practice of any religious activity
C. Submission to existence of supreme powers, for example God
D. Deeply held beliefs about the meaning of life
E. Religious orientation without discrimination

A

D. Contrary to widely held belief, spirituality is not defi ned as affi liation to religious practice
or accepting God. It rather refers to deeply held beliefs about the meaning of one’s life.

27
Q
The International Pilot Study on Schizophrenia concluded that global,
cultural, and social differences exist in which one of the following characters
of schizophrenia?
A. Core symptoms
B. Severity
C. Outcome
D. Dose of medications
E. Gender distribution
A

C. The IPSS (International Pilot Study on Schizophrenia) was a global, multicentre study
carried out by the WHO. The main fi nding was a strikingly similar core symptom profi le
irrespective of cultural differences and more or less similar life-time morbid risk (though this has
been disputed; See McGrath NAPE lecture 2004). Surprisingly, outcome of schizophrenia was
better in the developing, rather than the developed countries.

28
Q

Which one of the following psychopathologies is infl uenced more
signifi cantly by cultural differences than the others listed?
A. Delusions
B. Somatization
C. Hallucinations
D. Mania
E. Obsessions

A

B. Somatization is consistently found to be higher among South Asian populations, especially
in females. Linguistic differences could explain an apparent inability to verbalize emotions, leading
to requests for medical interventions for physical symptoms. Cultural sensitivity is essential to
detect undiagnosed depression in different ethnic groups.

29
Q

When using interpreters during psychiatric interview it is best NOT to
A. Explain goals of the interview to the interpreter
B. Rotate different interpreters with the same patient
C. Provide debriefi ng to the interpreter after an emotional clinical encounter
D. Enquire about the interpreter’s country of origin or social position
E. Encourage literal translation of the Mental State Examination

A

B. Using different interpreters for different sessions of clinical encounter with the same patient
will lead to confusion and needless anxiety due to the presence of a new person during each doctor–
patient meeting. It is advisable to stick to the same interpreter when dealing with a particular patient.
Knowing the interpreter’s social and ethnic background might help in utilizing the interpretation better.
Also, the Mental State Examination can be misinterpreted by a lay person – it is often necessary to
instruct the interpreter to translate certain parts of the clinical interview verbatim

30
Q

Clinical samples of patients with anorexia nervosa show a trend towards
which of the following social categories?
A. Upper social class
B. Lower social class
C. Immigrant population
D. Poor literacy
E. More elderly parents

A

A. An unequal distribution of social class is noted in anorexia. Higher representation from
upper classes of society, good literacy rates, and higher frequency of non-immigrant populations
is noted among clinical samples of anorexia patients. This strengthens the aspect of culture
specificity of anorexia nervosa

31
Q

Sick role includes all of the following EXCEPT
A. Excuse from social responsibility
B. Expectation to seek help
C. Taking blame and responsibility for the illness
D. Perception of disease as undesirable
E. Attempts to restore previous state of health

A

C. Sick role, as defi ned by Parsons, excludes patient from taking all responsibility for
becoming ill. It is perceived that illness is unavoidable and any ill person must seek help, as illness
is undesirable and an attempt must be made to restore the previous state of health. Untill this
happens the person is relieved of certain social responsibilities. This social perception of illness
drives a person to occupy what is collectively termed as the sick role.

32
Q
Which one of the following is NOT a component of high expressed
emotions?
A. Warmth
B. Over involvement
C. Critical comments
D. Enmeshment
E. Hostility
A

D. Enmeshment has not been discussed as a component of expressed emotions (EE).
Enmeshment stands for deranged family dynamics, characterized by blurring of normal hierarchy
and intergenerational boundaries in a family. Enmeshment is linked to various child psychiatry
problems, including eating disorders. EE is characterized by warmth, hostility, and critical
comments and emotional over-involvement. High EE is implicated in relapse of various psychiatric
illnesses, especially schizophrenia. It is also demonstrated that being on long-term antipsychotics
can alleviate the relapse-provoking effect of a high EE environment to some extent. Vaughn and
Leff studied EE in depth.

33
Q
High expressed emotions could be measured using which of the following
instruments?
A. Camberwell Assessment of Needs
B. Camberwell Family Interview
C. Simpson Angus Scale
D. Quality of Life Scale
E. Caregiver Burden Scale
A

B. The Camberwell Assessment of Needs scale, also called as CAN, was developed by the
Section of Community Psychiatry (PRiSM) at the Institute of Psychiatry. It is a tool for assessing
the needs of people with severe and enduring mental illness, including both health and social
needs. It has clinical and research versions, and also a shorter version for routine use. The
Camberwell Family Interview is a different scale from CAN, and assesses the feelings and
experiences of relatives with regard to a patient’s admission to hospital. In the Camberwell
Family Interview, three measures of EE – criticism, hostility, and emotional over-involvement –
are assessed.

34
Q

Effects of high expressed emotions could be mitigated to some extent in
which one of the following situations?
A. The contact with family is less than 35 hours a week
B. The family members are having mental health diffi culties themselves
C. The patient is married
D. The patient has comorbid depression
E. The patient has chronic rather than acute schizophrenia

A

A. It has been shown that the effect of high expressed emotions on relapse of psychotic
episodes is lesser if contact with family members lasts less than 35 hours a week. This dose–
response relationship adds strength to the role of the family’s emotional expression on the
course of schizophrenia. The degree of EE can be higher if any of the family members has mental
health diffi culties themselves.

35
Q

Association between crime and mental illness is diffi cult to study. This is due
to which of the following reasons?
A. Most criminals are mentally ill
B. Criminals are deceptive about mental illness
C. Crime is over reported
D. Captives are not representative of all criminals
E. Mental illness is rarely independent of the crime committed

A

D. It is widely acknowledged that captives may not be the ideal, representative sample of
everyone who indulges in criminal activity. Captives may be a special population with lower than
normal skills to escape or avoid a sentence or arrest. Often the IQ of captured criminals may be
lower than the IQ of non-captured criminals, on average. So studying captives for the rate of
mental illness or effect on crime secondary to treating mental illness could not be generalized to
wider social criminalities. Most criminals are mentally sound. Crime is under-reported rather over
reported, on the whole.

36
Q

Stigma associated with mental illness could potentially be reduced by all of
the following interventions EXCEPT
A. Destigmatization campaigns
B. Increasing community living of severely mentally ill people
C. Educating the public about mental illness
D. Legislation against social discrimination
E. Improving broadcasting standards

A

B. Various measures to combat stigma has shown only modest benefi ts over the century.
Destigmatization campaigns, public education, and vigilant media policy can be helpful. It is clear
that in the past few decades, the closure of asylums and psychiatric hospitals has increased
community living of patients with mental health problems. But this has not translated into lower
rates of stigma and discrimination – if anything this has got worse, assuming different forms

37
Q

Which of the following is NOT true with respect to stigma against mental
illness?
A. Stigma leads to social exclusion
B. Stigma can prolong the duration of depression in a patient
C. Stigma is seen even against mentally ill professionals
D. Stigma has reduced substantially in the last two decades
E. Stigma perceived by patients varies with their diagnosis

A

D. Stigma has not reduced in anyway over last two decades in spite of improved literacy
rates. The perceived stigma is more generic for mental illness and does vary with the diagnosis to
some extent. Stigma leads to delayed help seeking and social exclusion, making outcome worse

38
Q

The term acculturation refers to which of the following?
A. Adoption of beliefs and values of one cultural group by another
B. Migration of civilizations in need of food and shelter
C. Adoption of civilized social norms by a culturally weaker group
D. Acceptance of rules and regulations of a mental health institute
E. The tendency for a cultural group to enforce their values on another group

A

A. Acculturation is a social–anthropological phenomenon which refers to the adoption of
cultural practices of one group by another due to the effect of living close to each other. It does
not refer to being civilized or non-civilized in cultural practice. The tendency for a cultural group
to enforce their values on another group is called assimilation. Acceptance of rules and
regulations of a mental health institute is related to the process of institutionalization, described
by Goffman

39
Q
Koro is an anxiety state seen most commonly in which of the following
geographical zone?
A. Latin America
B. South-east Asia
C. India
D. Alaskan natives
E. Siberia
A

B. Koro is a culture-bound syndrome that is most often seen as genital retraction anxiety
rather than delusional state. It usually affects young males, and is accompanied by anxiety that
genitals are shrinking. It is an acute condition with favourable prognosis compared to chronic
psychotic illnesses. It is often reported in Malaysia, Taiwan, Philippines, and other parts of south-east
Asia. It is referred to as Shook Yang in Japan. Koro literally means head of a turtle (which retracts

40
Q

Which one of the following is a culture-bound syndrome characterized by
an exaggerated startle reaction in middle-aged women?
A. Piblokto
B. Latah
C. Brain fag
D. Windigo
E. Susto

A

B. Latah is a culture-bound syndrome seen mainly in women in south-east Asia. It is
characterized by severe startle response together with loss of control over behaviour, echolalia,
and echopraxia. Such patients are noted to obey any commands issued to them.

41
Q
In the UK, the annual prevalence of hallucinations is higher in which of the
following racial groups?
A. Asians
B. Caribbeans
C. Americans
D. Whites
E. Australian Jews
A

B. The prevalence of ‘all cause’ hallucinations are higher in the Caribbean population living
in the UK compared to other ethnic groups. It is noted to be 2.5 times more common in this
group. South Asian migrants come next in the list, followed by native White populations. Cultural
differences exist not only in disease prevalence but also in non-clinical but abnormal mental
experiences measured in community samples.

42
Q

Which of the following is true regarding increased incidence of
schizophrenia among migrant population?
A. It depends on the country of origin
B. It could be explained by drug use
C. It is due to genetic factors
D. It is generation limited
E. It is strongly related to lower socioeconomic status

A

E. It is now accepted that immigration is a clear risk factor for developing schizophrenia,
irrespective of the prevalence rates in the country of origin, genetic loading, or cannabis use. This
effect is not limited to the generation that migrates – it extends to the second generation
immigrants as demonstrated in the AESOP Study in the UK. It has also been shown that in
neighbourhoods where minority status is signifi cant due to the high population of majority ethnic
group in the locality and poor socioeconomic status of immigrants, incidence of schizophrenia is
increased. This applies to any minority group irrespective of racial status.

43
Q
Which of the following theories holds that mental illness is a result of
societal influence?
A. Causation theory
B. Drift theory
C. Labelling theory
D. Social disintegration theory
E. Social agent theory
A

C. Labelling theory was applied to explain mental illness in 1966 by Thomas Scheff. He
claimed that mental illness is manifested solely as a result of societal infl uence. The society views
certain actions as deviant. A label of mental illness is placed on those who exhibit deviant
behaviours in order to explain these behaviours. The expectations then placed on these
individuals unconsciously change their behaviour – giving them the role of mentally ill. Social
causation and drift theories attempt to explain the association between lower socioeconomic
status and mental illness. Social causation theory proposes that low socioeconomic status breeds
mental illnesses. Social drift theory takes the view that a decline in social status occurs following
development of mental illnesses.

44
Q

A patient with learning disability cannot understand the implications of
hospitalization. But he does not resist being admitted to a hospital. Which
of the following best describes his mental capacity status?
A. Compliant and capable
B. Compliant but not capable
C. Non-compliant and incapable
D. Non-compliant but capable
E. None of the above

A

B. Often patients who lack capacity to make treatment decisions agree to follow a
treatment plan passively. This special group is termed ‘compliant not capable’. Learning disability
services, dementia care, and geriatric care often face challenge with such patients. The
Bournewood case refers to a patient with autism who was kept in hospital against the wishes of
his carers as he complied with hospital admission. Though he did not have capacity to decide on
his treatment he was not detained under the mental health act as he was compliant to stay at the
hospital. This case revealed a wide gap in English mental health law.

45
Q

A patient decides to be on the waiting list for 12 months untill she could
see a psychotherapist. Choose an ethical principle relevant to this scenario:
A. Confi dentiality
B. Distributive justice
C. Therapeutic privilege
D. Non-malefi cience
E. Autonomy

A

B. Justice is one of four primary ethical principles. Justice is the moral obligation to act on
the basis of fair judgement between competing claims. Justice is classifi ed into: (1) fair distribution
of scarce resources (distributive justice); (2) respect for people’s rights (rights based justice); and
(3) respect for morally acceptable laws (legal justice). In health ethics, distributive justice means
equity for all where ‘equals are equally treated’; it concerns economic distribution and healthcare
resource allocation

46
Q

A test for capacity to make treatment decisions includes all of the following
EXCEPT
A. Ability to understand the choice
B. Belief in the information given
C. Ability to analyse benefi ts and harm
D. Ability to retain information long enough to analyse them
E. Ability to communicate a decision

A

B. Capacity by defi nition is a legal concept; it refers to the ability to enter into valid
contracts. Every adult is presumed to have capacity unless proved otherwise. Capacity is also task
specifi c; one can have capacity to decide on treatment but can lack capacity to dispose of an
estate. A test for capacity includes: (1) able to understand the nature of a decision that needs to
be made; (2) able to weigh risks and benefi ts of any decision; (3) able to retain information long
enough to make a decision; and (4) able to communicate the decision clearly. It is not necessary
for the patient to believe in the information given to him.

47
Q
Which is the most important ethical principle underlying informed consent?
A. Benefi cience
B. Autonomy
C. Non-malefi cience
D. Justice
E. Paternalism
A

B. For an informed consent to be valid, as a general rule, fi ve areas of information must be
provided: (1) description of the medical condition or problem; (2) nature and purpose of the
proposed treatment; (3) risks and benefi ts of the proposed treatment; (4) viable alternatives to
the proposed treatment; and (5) prognosis with and without treatment. The most important
ethical principle preserved by obtaining informed consent is that of patient autonomy

48
Q

Over-riding patient confi dentiality cannot be substantiated reasonably if it is
carried out under which of the following situations?
A. Grave danger to a third party
B. Disclosure of information is required by law
C. Child protection involved
D. Under court order
E. Following the Death of the patient

A

E. Personal information should not be disclosed to a third party without the patient’s
express consent, except when: (1) serious risk to third parties outweighs the interests on
patient’s privacy, for example child abuse; (2) disclosure of information is required by law, for
example a notifi able disease; and (3) patient explicitly agrees to disclosure to a third party. Death
of a patient does not waive one’s responsibility to maintain confi dentiality.

49
Q

Which of the following cannot be considered as an exception to direct
informed consent?
A. Waiver
B. Detention under mental health act
C. Emergencies where full information cannot be given
D. Incompetent patient
E. Passively compliant patient

A

E. When a person is passively compliant it is necessary to consider absence of informed
consent. This is often seen when patients are prescribed ECT – without knowing all required
information, they will agree for a course of treatment passively as the doctor has prescribed it. Legal
privilege is the right to maintain secrecy or confi dentiality when summoned by court. The right of
legal privilege belongs to the patient. Therapeutic privilege is different from this legal privilege.
Therapeutic privilege is used when a psychiatrist withholds information in the belief that giving a
patient all of the information would harm the patient. This is not commonly practised. While detaining
a patient under the mental health act, often there is no consent from the patient for hospitalization.
But this is commonly done against patient’s approval on the grounds of safety of the patient and the
others. An incompetent person is one who is incapable of giving informed consent; in which case,
consent can be granted only by that person’s guardian, or other persons with legal authority to give
consent (e.g. a lasting power of attorney for health-care issues). Consent is presumed when a person
is suffering from an emergent situation that requires treatment but is unable to give consent. Waiver is
a situation where a patient asks the therapist not to give him a particular part of health information as
that would be detrimental for him to know it. Again, this is rarely used

50
Q

In ethology, imprinting refers to which of the following processes?
A. Learning modifi ed by consequences
B. Learning independent of developmental age
C. Slow learning of parental behaviours
D. Learning neonatal refl exes in human beings
E. None of the above

A

E. Ethology refers to the biological study of animal behaviour. Imprinting is a specialized
form of learning which occurs early in life (critical phase). The exposure to the stimulus situation
must occur during the critical period, and the exposure can be of short duration without any
reinforcement. This type of learning is particularly resistant to change. It has not been clearly
demonstrated in human infants so far.

51
Q

If a patient reveals murderous intentions against his wife, a psychiatrist is
duty bound to inform both police and the wife. This principle is derived
from which of the following medicolegal illustrations?
A. Tarasoff ’s case
B. Bournewood case
C. McNaughten’s case
D. Gillick’s case
E. Shipman’s case

A

A. Two months before killing his exgirlfriend Tarasoff, Poddar had declared his intentions to
his psychotherapist. The psychotherapist tried to have Poddar detained but he was soon released.
Police were informed of the risk, but the court ruled that apart from a duty of care to the
patient, and duty to protect by informing the police, there is a duty to warn the third party
directly. This is called the Tarasoff ruling.

52
Q

Which of the following best describes the difference between the terms
handicap and impairment?
A. Handicap refers to loss of social role
B. Impairment refers to loss of social role
C. Handicap refers to a structural defect
D. Impairment refers to inability to perform a complex task
E. Handicap refers to irreversible loss

A

A. Impairment (I) is defi ned as any loss or abnormality of a bodily structure or function.
Disability (D) is the restriction to perform an activity in a normal manner due to the impairment.
The social disadvantage for a given individual in terms of role fulfi lment resulting from the
disability is called handicap (H) (I leads to D; D leads to H). Reversibility of loss is not considered
as a discriminating feature in defi ning handicap.

53
Q

Fathers of schizophrenia patients originate from higher social class than the
patients themselves. This exemplifi es which of the following theories?
A. Social causation
B. Social disintegration
C. Social drift
D. Social labelling
E. Social construction

A

C. Goldberg conducted a survey of a national sample of males aged 25–34 on their fi rst
admission to a mental hospital in England and Wales for schizophrenia. This showed an expected
excess of patients in lower social class v Lower economic class was seen as a cause for
schizophrenia (social causation). But when the social class distribution of the fathers at the time
of the patients’ birth was studied, it transpired to be very similar to that of the general
population. This is explained by the hypothesis that schizophrenia results in a downward drift of
socioeconomic status rather than poverty being a cause for schizophrenia. (This social drift
hypothesis was fi rst suggested by the Chicago study of Faris and Dunham, 1922–1934).

54
Q

The Helsinki declaration is applicable in which of the following scenarios?
A. A 24-year-old man is comatose and needs blood transfusion
B. A 13-year-old girl asks for contraception
C. A Jehovah’s witness refuses blood transfusion for his 5-year-old child
D. A 34-year-old man volunteers for a neuroimaging study
E. A 94-year-old lady refuses to move to a nursing home

A

D. The Helsinki declaration is associated with research ethics. The efforts to streamline
ethical principles of conducting research on human subjects started following the Second World
War. Gillick competence refers to the assessment of ability of a child (16 years or younger) to
consent to his or her own medical treatment, without the need for parental permission

55
Q
Which one of the following occupations carries a high risk of eating
disorders?
A. Modelling
B. Law
C. Nursing
D. Marketing
E. Teaching
A

A. Ballet dancers and models have a high prevalence of anorexia nervosa as a result of
pressures to sustain a slim fi gure consistent with their professional requirements

56
Q

Under the principle of common law which of the following can be done
without a patient’s consent?
A. Blood sample can be drawn after paracetamol overdose in an emergency
B. Liver transplantation can be done on a suicidal patient
C. A psychiatric inpatient can be detained overnight if they attempt to leave
D. Contraceptives can be implanted to a young lady with mania
E. Depot antipsychotics could be given for agitation

A

A. Common law principle of necessity allows medical interventions only if they are life
saving, emergency measures. Irreversible procedures such as transplantation cannot be carried
out. It is not good practice to administer depot under ‘emergency’ situations. Psychiatric
detention must follow Mental Health Act principles whenever required.

57
Q
‘Run amok’ involves sudden dissociative reaction which can lead to multiple
homicide or suicide. It is best classifi ed under which of the following
categories?
A. Dissociation reaction
B. Somatoform disorders
C. Culture-bound syndrome
D. Substance use disorder
E. Delusional disorder
A

C. Running amok (derived from Malay word amuk, meaning ‘mad with anger’) is a Malaysian
culture bound syndrome. It usually affects a young male who will develop a sudden frenzy and
acquire a weapon in an attempt to kill or injure anyone indiscriminately. Amok episodes can lead
to serious violence or suicide

58
Q
Who fi rst used the word ‘psychiatry’ (or ‘psychiatrie’) to describe the
profession?
A. Reil
B. Rush
C. Deniker
D. Kline
E. Charcot
A

A. Johann Christian Reil coined the term psychiatry to describe the practice of psychological
medicine. He was a German doctor and used the word ‘Psychiatrie’ in 1808.

59
Q
One of the following is a major proponent of the antipsychiatry movement?
A. William Osler
B. Thomas Szasz
C. Aubrey Lewis
D. Henry Maudsley
E. Adolf Meyer
A

B. Thomas Szasz has expressed strong views against the current conceptual models of
disease in psychiatry. Antipsychiatry refers to a heterogeneous school that challenges the
fundamental theories and practices of psychiatry. Aubrey Lewis was an English psychiatrist
associated with the Maudsley Hospital. Adolf Meyer proposed psychobiology.

60
Q

Which of the following is NOT routinely considered as boundary violations
in a therapeutic relationship?
A. Touching except handshake
B. Treating friends or relatives
C. Personal disclosure
D. Interpretation of emotionally neutral statements
E. Colluding with a patient against a third party

A

D. Interpretation is an interview technique and not a boundary violation. It is increasingly
realized that subtle violations of doctor–patient boundaries often occur in psychiatric setting.
Boundary crossing is defi ned as intentional or unintentional incursions occurring during a
therapeutic relationship. When such boundary crossings produce harm to the patient, then they
are called boundary violations. This can be both sexual and non-sexual violation.