Forensic Issues in Child and Adolescent Psychiatry Flashcards

1
Q

Psychosocial risk factors for criminality

A
Individual and family factors
Prenatal and perinatal influences—birth complications, maternal rejection, fetal neurological maldevelopment, maternal nicotine and alcohol consumption
Hyperactivity and impulsivity
Low intelligence
Punitive parenting style—poor supervision, harsh discipline, rejection
Teenage mothers
Parental conflict—separations
Criminal parents
Large family size
Social factors
Socioeconomic deprivation
Peer influences
School influences
Community influences
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2
Q

Relationship between schizohrenia and offending (particularly homicide)

A

The association between mental disorder and violence
has been repeatedly demonstrated. Fazel et al. (2009a)
conducted a systematic review of violence and schizophrenia and other psychoses. This meta-analysis of
20 studies, including 18,423 individuals, found that
schizophrenia and other psychoses were associated
with violence (especially homicide). However, this risk
was mediated by comorbid substance abuse, and was
the same for individuals with substance abuse without psychosis. The increased risk of violent offending
in both men and women with a diagnosis of affective
psychosis could be accounted for by alcohol and substance misuse. Alcohol and substance misuse by themselves are associated with a substantially increased risk
of violent offending, as is personality

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3
Q

Association of mental illness and crime

A

Only a small minority of all people who commit violent acts have serious mental illness such as psychosis.
Swedish national registers linking hospital admissions
and criminal convictions over 13 years demonstrated a
population-attributable risk fraction of 5.2% (i.e. only
5% of convictions were accounted for by individuals with severe mental illness)
Attributable risk fraction was higher in women across all age bands. In
women aged 25–39 years, it was 14.0%, and in those
aged 40 years or over, it was 19.0% (Fazel and Grann,
2006). In a more recent Swedish register study, Fazel
et al. (2014a) showed that, within 5 years of their first
diagnosis of schizophrenia, 10.7% of men and 2.7% of
women were convicted of a violent offence. The vast
majority of patients with psychotic illnesses are no
more dangerous than members of the general population. There is no evidence that homicidal behaviour
is becoming more common in people with mental illness—indeed, it appears to have been declining since
the early 1970s (Large et al., 2008).

ASPD and substance use have greater association with offending than does any MMI

Where serious violence occurs, it is likely to be directed at a family member or carer

Most offending in minor in nature

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4
Q

Link between alcohol and crime

A

Alcohol and crime are related in three important ways:
1. Alcohol intoxication may lead to charges related to
public drunkenness or to driving offences.
2. Intoxication reduces inhibitions and is strongly associated with crimes of violence, including murder.
3. The neuropsychiatric complications of alcoholism
may also be linked with crime.

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5
Q

Delusions associated with increased risk of violence

A

Persecution
Being spied on
Conspiracy

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6
Q

PTSD association with violence

A

Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) may be related to
offending in three ways:
● PTSD patients may abuse drugs and alcohol.
● PTSD is associated with increased irritability and
decreased affect regulation.
● PTSD patients may rarely experience dissociative episodes involving violence, especially in circumstances
resembling their original trauma. This is often hard to
determine retrospectively

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7
Q

Cognitive distortions associated with pathalogical gambling

A

magnification of gambling skill, superstitions, temporal telescoping, predictive skill, and obviously
selective memory

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8
Q

Factors associated with reoffending in individuals sexual offending

A

● Previous criminal history
● Higher number of sexual offences and more than
one type of sexual offence
● Being a childhood victim of sexual abuse
● Violent sexual fantasies
● Negative attitudes to women
● Belief that victims consent to or enjoy the act
● Choice of location and occupation to facilitate
access to victims
● Use of sadomasochistic or paedophilic pornography
● Substance misuse
● Treatment non-compliance

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9
Q

Paedophilie definition

A

Paedophiles
are defined as having a primary sexual interest in prepubertal children. They are almost always male, either
homosexual or heterosexual, and usually abuse children
not previously well known to them. Paedophiles are
rarely mentally ill. Victims are often prepared (‘groomed’)
over a long period of time, increasingly via the internet.
Some paedophiles may seek work in occupations where
they will have access to children who will be left in their
care

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10
Q

Recidivism rate in child sexual offenders

A

The prognosis is difficult to determine. Among those
who receive a prison sentence, the recidivism rate is
about one in three. An important minority progress to
violent sexual offences, so psychiatrists may be asked to
give an opinion on their dangerousness

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11
Q

Sexual assault stats

A

● About 1% of women said that they had been subject to some form of sexual victimization in the
past year.
● In total, 0.4% of women (leading to an estimate of
61,000 victims in the UK) said that they had been
raped in the previous year.
● Current partners (at the time of the attack) were
responsible for 45% of rapes. Strangers were
responsible for a minority (8%) of attacks.
● Around 18% of sexual assaults were reported to the
police.
1/3 sexual assaults go to police, 1/3 of those to court, 1/3 of those rapists convicted. Most serve half time.

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12
Q

Reconviction rates of rapists

A

30%

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13
Q

Mental illness most commonly associated with sho lifting

A

depression

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14
Q

Groups that set fires

A

Certain groups can be recognized:
● Fire-setters who are free from psychiatric disorder and who
start fires for financial or political reasons, or for revenge;
they are sometimes referred to as motivated arsonists.
● So-called pathological fire-setters, who suffer from
learning difficulties, mental illness, or alcoholism;
this group accounts for about 10–15% of arsons.
● A group that meet the DSM-5 criteria for pyromania
(see page 520). These individuals (who sometimes join
conspicuously in firefighting) obtain intense satisfaction and relief of tension from fire-setting.
● Those with psychotic illness

The factors associated with an increased risk of repetition include:
● antisocial personality disorder
● learning difficulties
● persistent social isolation
● fire-setting for sexual gratification or relief of tension(Anwar et al., 2009)

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15
Q

Is critical incident debriefing helpful for victims of crime

A

No
Critical incident debriefing as a routine treatment is not
helpful (Raphael and Wilson, 2000). Clinical judgement
is needed in assessing the severity and persistence of
psychological problems to determine whether victims
require specific psychological help.

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16
Q

Intention to commit crime- essential principles

A

The underlying principle is that no one
should be regarded as culpable unless they were able to
control their own behaviour and to choose whether to
commit an unlawful act or not. In determining guilt, it
is necessary to consider the mental state at the time of
the act, and especially intention (mens rea). This means
the person perceives and intends that their act will produce unlawful consequences. Three other forms of intent
need consideration.
1. Recklessness. The deliberate taking of an unjustifiable
risk when the consequences can be foreseen but are
not avoided.
2. Negligence. Bringing about a consequence which a
‘reasonable and prudent’ person would have foreseen
and avoided.
3. Accident (or ‘blameless inadvertence’).
The key issue is whether the accused had the mental
capacity to form the intention, or whether mental disorder might have affected that capacity. Sometimes
it will be beyond psychiatric expertise or evidence to
answer this question. Asked to give an opinion on these
matters, the psychiatrist should liaise closely with the
lawyer

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17
Q

Inability of children under 10 to form intent- Latin term

A

children under 10 years of age are excluded

because they are deemed incapable of forming criminal intent. The Latin term for this is doli incapax.

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18
Q

Competence to stand trial

A

It is necessary to determine how far the defendant can:
● understand the nature of the charge
● understand the difference between pleading guilty
and not guilty
● instruct counsel
● challenge jurors
● follow the evidence presented in court

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19
Q

McNaughton rules, including case precedent

A

In English law, insanity is defined in law by the
McNaughton Rules, after the famous case of Daniel
McNaughton, who in 1843 shot and killed Edward
Drummond, the Private Secretary to the then Prime
Minister, Sir Robert Peel. In the trial at the Old Bailey, a
defence of insanity was presented on the grounds that
McNaughton had suffered from delusions that he was
being persecuted by spies. His delusional system gradually
focused on the Tory Party, and he decided to kill their
leader, Sir Robert Peel. McNaughton was found not guilty
on the grounds of insanity, and was admitted to Bethlem
Hospital. Because this was such a contentious decision,
rules were provided for guidance. It must be clearly proved
that, at the time of committing the act, the accused was:
labouring under such a defect of reason, from disease of the
mind, as not to know the nature and quality of the act he was
doing, or, if he did know it, that he did not know what he was
doing was wrong.

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20
Q

Diminished responsibility

A

In English law, it is only available in relation
to the charge of murder, and is defined as follows:
where a person kills or is party to a killing of another, he shall
not be convicted of murder if he was suffering from such abnormality of mind (whether arising from a condition of arrested
or retarded development of mind or any inherent causes or induced by disease or injury) as substantially impaired his
mental responsibility for his acts and omissions in doing or
being party to the killing

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21
Q

Types of false confessions

A

Gudjonsson (1992) suggested that there are three main types of false confession:

  1. Voluntary.
  2. Coerced–compliant.
  3. Coerced–internalized.
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22
Q

Reason to transfer psychiatrically unwell prisoners

A

● Psychosis
● Failure to improve with medical treatment in prison
● Refusal to have treatment for serious psychiatric
illness
● Life-threatening self-harm
● Risk of abuse

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23
Q

Following a violent incident in hospital, considerations

A

After an incident has occurred, the clinical team
should meet to consider the following issues.
● The future care of the patient. For mentally disordered
patients, there should be a review of the drugs prescribed and their dosage. When violence occurs in a
person with a personality disorder, medication may
be required in an emergency, but it is usually best
to avoid maintenance medication. Other measures
include trying to reduce factors that provoke violence,
or providing the patient with more constructive ways
of managing tension, such as taking physical exercise
or asking a member of staff for help.
● Supportive psychological interventions. These may be
required for patients or staff who have been the victims of a violent assault (see the earlier section on victims of crime).
● Whether the police should be informed. It should not be
forgotten that such assaults may be criminal. Opinion
has moved to a preference for involving the police more
often, although they are often reluctant to press charges.
● The possible effect on the whole patient group. Other
patients may need support whether or not they were
present at the incident.
● The need for changes in the general policy of the ward.
A violent incident may enable lessons to be learned
that are applicable in a general way to ward policies
and procedures.

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24
Q

2 approaches to risk assessment

A

There have been two broad approaches to risk
assessment.
1. Clinical psychiatrists have tried to identify factors associated with dangerousness in an individual patient (see
Box 18.9). While general predictors of violence (e.g.
past violence, antisocial personality disorder, substance
misuse) are helpful, they lack specificity in identifying
particular individuals at risk (Fazel et al., 2012).
2. Actuarial methods have been used to predict future
criminal behaviour among offenders and psychiatric
patients. In general, the low correlations between predicted and observed behaviour have meant that
they have been unhelpful for making individual
predictions. Recent instruments have an improved
predictive accuracy, but may be more useful in predicting those not likely to be violent than those who
are (Fazel et al., 2012

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25
Q

Factors associated with dangerousness

A

Male gender

History
One or more previous episodes of violence
Repeated impulsive behaviour
Evidence of difficulty in coping with stress
Previous unwillingness to delay gratification
Antisocial traits and lack of social support
History of conduct disorder

The offence
Bizarre violence
Lack of provocation
Lack of regret
Continuing major denial
Mental state
Morbid jealousy
Paranoid beliefs plus a wish to harm others
Deceptiveness
Lack of self-control
Threats to repeat violence
Attitude to treatment, poor compliance

Circumstances
Provocation or precipitant likely to recur
Alcohol or drug misuse
Social difficulties and lack of support

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26
Q

Which of the following is true with regard to the association between
schizophrenia and recorded crime rates?
A. The risk is increased for non-violent crimes only
B. The risk is increased for violent but not non-violent crimes
C. The risk of crime is increased for narrow diagnosis of schizophrenia rather than broad
diagnosis of psychosis
D. The association is seen only for less serious violent acts
E. The risk is highest for violent crimes for both narrowly defi ned schizophrenia and
broadly defi ned psychosis

A

E. Various types of studies have been hitherto employed to study the association between
recorded crime and psychosis. One must remember that offi cially recorded crime may only
be the tip of the proverbial iceberg in such studies. Various regional policies, jurisdictions, and
practices affect the rate of recorded crime; in any case, these rates are not a true refl ection of
violence in the society. Many such studies have consistently found that a narrow diagnosis of
schizophrenia or much broader psychosis have an increased risk of both non-violent and violent
offending; this risk is greatest and most consistent for violent offences

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27
Q

All of the following factors are signifi cantly associated with increased risk of
violence among those with schizophrenia except
A. Comorbid substance use
B. Comorbid personality disorder
C. Acute psychotic symptoms
D. Non-compliance with treatment
E. Comorbid depression

A

E. The risk factors associated with violence in mental illness is a favourite topic in MRCPsych
exams. It has been cogently shown that the magnitude of risk associated with a combination of
factors such as male sex, young age, and lower socioeconomic status in a mentally ‘well’ person
with no psychiatric history is higher than the risk of violence presented by mental disorders
per se. Despite varied research, the causal pathway from mental illness to violence is still poorly
sketched. The most consistently established risk factors that further increase the risk of violence
among schizophrenia patients are (a) comorbid substance abuse, (b) comorbid personality
disorder, (c) non-compliance with medication, and (d) active psychotic symptoms. Depression
does not seem to be a major mediator of violence in schizophrenia patients

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28
Q

Which of the following is true about the epidemiology of violence in
schizophrenia?
A. Most offenders with schizophrenia offend for the fi rst time after the onset of illness
B. Most offenders with schizophrenia have delusions directly relevant to violence
C. Most offenders with schizophrenia do not have substance use problems
D. Most offenders with schizophrenia do not reoffend if the illness is diagnosed
E. The risk factors increasing violence is similar in both schizophrenia and
non-schizophrenia populations

A

E. Most schizophrenia patients do not offend in direct response to delusions or
hallucinations, although homicide offenders may be over-represented in those who are actively
psychotic at the time of the offence. In general, schizophrenia patients who offend tend to have
long histories of substance misuse, conduct problems, and delinquency, with extensive nonviolent
and violent offending prior to the onset of illness. Thus, the tendency to reoffend does
not fall after a diagnosis of schizophrenia. The basic tenet one needs to remember regarding the
epidemiology of violence in schizophrenia is that those risk factors for violence which operate in
subjects without mental illness also operate in patients with schizophrenia.

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29
Q
The amount of societal violence rate that can be ascribed to psychiatric
illness is
A. 1 in 10
B. 1 in 20
C. 1 in 5
D. 1 in 2
E. 1 in 100
A

B. Most research in forensic psychiatry has examined the relative risk of violence among
the mentally ill compared with the general population. The population-attributable risk
fraction (PAR%) refers to the percentage of violence in the population that can be ascribed to
schizophrenia and thus could be eliminated if schizophrenia were eliminated from the population.
Fazel and Grann (2006) reported that the population-attributable risk varied by gender and age
in a given population. Overall, the PAR% of violence for psychiatric patients was 5.2%, suggesting
that patients with severe mental illness commit 1 in 20 violent crimes. These data were obtained
from analysing Swedish health registers between 1988 and 2000. This value may vary between
countries and across various generations of birth cohorts.

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30
Q

With respect to population-attributable risk of violence in those with
schizophrenia, which of the following is true?
A. It is a more important public health measure than relative risk
B. It increases with increasing overall crime rates
C. Most crimes in Europe are committed by those with schizophrenia
D. It decreases with increasing overall crime rates
E. It represents the amount of crime that would remain if schizophrenia is completely
eliminated from a population

A

D. The population-attributable risk of violence in those with schizophrenia is a more
important public health measure than relative risk as it indicates how much violence/crime
could be eliminated if mental illness is ‘eliminated’. It provides an easier and more accurate
refl ection than relative risk for the general public. When the crime rates in a society increase,
the population-attributable risk due to any mental illness reduces. The population-attributable
risk fraction of violence for mental illness rate is estimated as 5% using Swedish registers; this
suggests that most crimes in Europe are not related to mental illness.

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31
Q
The term filicide refers to
A. Killing of father by son
B. Killing of a sister by another
C. Killing of husband by wife
D. Killing of a child by mother
E. Killing of a parent by child
A

D. The killing of a child by its mother is very rare and is called fi licide. It is linked to
depressive disorders more than any other mental illness. Patricide refers to the act of killing
one’s father. Sororicide is the act of killing one’s sister. Matricide is the killing of one’s mother and
mariticide is killing of one’s spouse. Fraternicide refers to killing one’s brother

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32
Q
To be applied successfully the fi tness to plead criteria must be found
relevant to a defendant at the time of
A. The criminal offence
B. The trial proceedings
C. Being interviewed in custody
D. Sentenced imprisonment
E. The arrest
A

B. The fi ve criteria currently used in court in England and Wales to determine fi tness to
plead have remained unchanged for over 150 years. These are collectively termed Pritchard’s
criteria: (1) ability to plead; (2) ability to understand evidence; (3) ability to understand the court
proceedings; (4) ability to instruct a lawyer; (5) knowing that a juror can be challenged.
As the degree of mental illness can vary with time, its effect on fi tness to stand trial can differ.
Hence it is important to establish fi tness/unfi tness in the defendant as applicable at the time of
the trial proceedings

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33
Q

Which of the following refers to assessment of medical negligence?
A. McNaughton’s criteria
B. MacArthur’s competency assessment tool
C. Pritchard’s criteria
D. Hare’s checklist
E. Bolam criteria

A

E. In the UK, the Bolam test has been the benchmark for assessing professional negligence
since1957. According to the Bolam test, ‘A doctor is not guilty of negligence if he has acted in
accordance with a practice accepted as proper by a responsible body of medical men skilled
in that particular art’. In other words, a doctor is not negligent if he is acting in accordance
with such a practice, merely because there is a body of opinion that takes a contrary view.
McNaughton’s test refers to the assessment of diminished responsibility in the wake of mental
illness in court. The MacArthur competency assessment tool and Pritchard’s criteria are used for
assessing fi tness to plead. Hare’s checklist is used for the assessment of psychopathy.

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34
Q

A ‘trial of facts’ takes place in which of the following conditions?
A. Defendant is highly suggestible
B. Defendant is unfi t to plead
C. Defendant has learning disability
D. Defendant has amnesia for the event of crime
E. Defendant is found not guilty by reason of insanity

A

B. If a defendant is found unfit to plead the likelihood of becoming fi t is initially considered.
If this is likely, e.g. following treatment, then the trial can be adjourned until such improvement
occurs. If such improvement is unlikely, a jury trial of the facts takes place in the defendant’s
absence to determine whether the individual committed the alleged crime. If the individual is
unfit to plead but at the end of the trial of facts it is established that he/she has committed the
act, then one or other form of court disposal (e.g. a hospital order, supervision order or absolute
discharge) is given.

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35
Q

Which of the following is a structured clinical risk assessment tool used in a
forensic setting?
A. Psychopathy Check List – Revised
B. Violence Risk Appraisal Guide (VRAG)
C. Iterative classifi cation tree
D. HCR-20
E. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)

A

D. HCR-20 (historical, clinical, risk management – 20) incorporates static historical risk
factors, such as previous violence and early maladjustment, together with dynamic factors that
may be particularly important in individual cases, such as level of insight and lack of personal
support. It is a commonly used structured clinical risk assessment scale. VRAG is an actuarial tool
that incorporates important predictors of reconviction studied in a sample of Canadian male
offenders with mental disorder followed up for 7 years. PCL-R stands for the revised version of
psychopathy checklist. It is used with HCR-20; it is not a stand-alone risk assessment instrument.
MMPI is used as a psychometric tool for personality variables. The Iterative Classifi cation Tree
is an actuarial decision-making tool produced by Monahan et al. (2001) using data from the
MacArthur risk assessment study. This tool uses many different combinations of bivariate risk
factors to classify a person as high or low risk.

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36
Q

Which of the following is true with regard to VRAG?
A. It incorporates HCR-20 as a subscale
B. It contains 24 items
C. Presence of schizophrenia is a predictor of lower risk
D. Psychopathy is not included as a predictor
E. It is a structured clinical risk assessment tool

A

C. VRAG is an actuarial risk tool that incorporates 12 items which are scored on the
basis of a weighting procedure developed from the original study of Canadian prisoners. The
variable with the heaviest weighting is the PCL-R psychopathy score, which is incorporated as a
subscale. It does not use HCR-20 as a subscale. The factors positively associated with increased
risk of recidivism are psychopathy score, history of elementary school diffi culties, diagnosis
of a personality disorder, young age, separation from parents prior to age 16, failure on prior
conditional release, history of non-violent offences, never been married, and history of alcohol
abuse. A diagnosis of schizophrenia is considered to reduce the overall risk of recidivism

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37
Q

Which of the following is true with regard to the association between
learning disability and offending?
A. Above average IQ is an independent risk factor for offending
B. Severity of learning disability correlates with severity of the offence
C. Degree of learning disability correlates with rate of offending
D. Homicide is the most common offence committed by those with a learning disability
E. Substance abuse is associated with a risk of offending among the learning disabled

A

E. Signifi cantly below average intellectual ability is an independent predictor of future
offending, irrespective of a diagnosis of learning disability (LD). Individuals with mild LD show a
higher rate of offending than age- and sex-matched individuals without LD. No correlation has
been found between the severity of intellectual disadvantage and the seriousness of the offence
committed. In fact, individuals with more severe or profound learning disability rarely commit
serious offences. Studies in the UK have shown a rate of 2–5% for recorded offences among the
learning-disabled population. The degree of disability does not correlate with rate of offending.
The most common offences by the learning-disabled group are property offences. Many risk
factors that operate in the general population for risk of violence operate in the learningdisabled
population, e.g. being young and male, a history of family offending, being unemployed,
drug use, psychosocial disadvantage, etc

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38
Q
The proportion of male remand prisoners in England and Wales with at
least one personality disorder is
A. 20%
B. 10%
C. 50%
D. 33%
E. 80%
A

E. Almost 80% of male remand prisoners in England and Wales were found to have at least
one personality disorder, with antisocial personality disorder being most prevalent. From the
Offi ce of National Statistics data (1997) the prevalence of any personality disorder was 78% for
male remand prisoners, 64% for male sentenced prisoners and 50% for female prisoners (both
sentenced and remand).
Antisocial personality disorder had the highest prevalence of any category of personality disorder
(63% of male remand prisoners, 49% of male sentenced prisoners, and 31% of female prisoners)
followed by paranoid personality disorder in men (29% of male remand prisoners, 20% of male
sentenced, and 16% of female prisoners) and borderline personality disorder in women (20% of
female prisoners). Compare these rates with a weighted prevalence for any personality disorder
of 4.4% among people aged 16–74 years in households in England, Scotland and Wales

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39
Q

The McNaughton rules are often discussed when a defence of insanity
is used. Which of the following is NOT a factor that can be used for the
insanity defence under the McNaughton rules?
A. Disease of the mind
B. Defect of reason
C. Not knowing the nature and quality of the act
D. Defect of moral judgement
E. Absence of knowledge that the act is wrong

A

D. The McNaughton rules refer to a set of guidelines for the insanity defence that was used
in England until the 1960s. According to these rules one can plead the defence of insanity only
if ‘at the time of committing the act, the accused was labouring under such a defect of reason
from disease of the mind, as not to know the nature and quality of the act he was doing, or if he
did know it then he did not know he was doing what was wrong’. Those who merely lack the
capacity to control a criminal action could still be deemed punishable. Hence, a defect of moral
judgement or failure to exercise existing capability to make the right decision cannot be brought
up as an insanity defence under the McNaughton rules.

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40
Q

Which of the following statements is true with regard to the relationship
between antisocial personality disorder and psychopathy?
A. A minor subgroup of those with psychopathy have anti-social personality disorder
B. All those with antisocial personality are psychopathic
C. Only multiple homicide offenders can be classifi ed as psychopathic
D. Antisocial personality is a better predictor of violence risk than psychopathy
E. Impulsive aggression is more common in those with antisocial personality without
psychopathy

A

E. The constructs of psychopathy and antisocial or dissocial personality are often referred
to interchangeably, but in reality these are quite different concepts. Approximately 3–5% of
people in the general population would meet the criteria for antisocial personality. But less than
1% will meet the criteria for psychopathy (i.e. a high score (30/40) on the PCL-R). Similarly,
although only 15% of male prisoners have scores that fall in the psychopathy range on the
PCL-R, nearly 80% of them will satisfy the criteria for antisocial personality disorder. In other
words, although most patients (81%) diagnosed as psychopaths by the PCL-R criteria met the
criteria for a diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder, only a minority (nearly 35–40%) of
those with antisocial personality receive a diagnosis of PCL-R psychopathy. The correlation
between antisocial personality disorder and PCL-R scores was much higher for behavioural
(social deviance: r = 0.65) factor of psychopathy than affective (interpersonal: r = 0.39) factor.
Psychopaths are less impulsively aggressive than those with antisocial personality disorder, but are
more likely to engage in antisocial behaviour of an instrumental nature. Those with psychopathy
commit higher rates of serious violence and have strikingly high rates of recidivism than those
with antisocial personality disorder but who are not psychopathic.

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41
Q

Various neurobiological abnormalities have been documented in those with
psychopathy. Which of the following is one such feature?
A. Reduced fear-based learning
B. Increased baseline autonomic arousal
C. Reduced verbal IQ
D. Increased reactive autonomic arousal on stimulation
E. Increased P300 differentiation between target and non-target stimuli

A

A. Various neurobiological fi ndings have been demonstrated in those with psychopathy.
These include impairments in appreciation of the emotional signifi cance of external experience,
strikingly low levels of baseline and reactive autonomic arousal and reduced fear-based learning.
Although impaired verbal abilities have been demonstrated as a consistent risk factor for serious
antisocial and delinquent behaviour, those with psychopathic traits often show serious antisocial
behaviour, despite showing no impairment in their verbal abilities. In fact, Individuals who
were high on callous–unemotional traits (a feature of psychopathy) with higher scores on the
measure of verbal abilities reported the greatest violent delinquency in a sample of adolescent
delinquents. For non-psychopathic individuals, a signifi cant difference in P300 amplitude was
noted between target and non-target stimuli. But in psychopathic individuals reliable P300
amplitude differences between the target and non-target visual conditions were not seen.

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42
Q

Which of the following is associated with a risk of aggression or violent
behaviour in those without serious mental illness?
A. Neurological soft signs
B. Executive function defi cits
C. Minor physical anomalies
D. Obstetric complications in pregnancy
E. All of the above

A

E. Even in those who are violent but do not have a demonstrable mental illness, the
likelihood of having had a neurodevelopmental insult is high. This is shown by the presence of
higher rates of minor physical anomalies in violently delinquent adolescents. Similarly, higher rates
of neurological soft signs, maternal smoking during pregnancy, and obstetric complications have
also been demonstrated. Defects in executive functioning and impulse control have also been
shown to correlate with violence in the non-mentally ill samples.

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43
Q

In those who experience childhood maltreatment which of the following has
been associated with a later risk of antisocial behaviour?
A. Serotonin transporter polymorphism
B. MAO enzyme polymorphism
C. Dopamine receptor polymorphism
D. COMT polymorphism
E. Trinucleotide repeats in chromosome X

A

B. Children differ in their response to maltreatment in terms of future risk of criminal
behaviour. Although maltreatment increases the risk of later criminality by about 50%, most
maltreated children do not become delinquents or adult criminals. It is possible that certain
genetic susceptibility factors could infl uence the causal pathway. Caspi et al. demonstrated that
the effect of childhood maltreatment on antisocial behaviour was signifi cantly weaker among
males with high MAO-A activity than among males with low MAO-A activity. It was also shown that
girls with a low MAO-A activity genotype but not those with high MAO-A activity were more likely
to develop conduct disorder if they were maltreated. Hence, high MAO-A activity has a protective
infl uence against maltreatment for both sexes.

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44
Q
The most common group of mental disorders diagnosed among homicide
offenders is
A. Personality disorders
B. Substance use disorders
C. Schizophreniform disorders
D. Affective disorders
E. Learning disabilities
A

A. Depending on the defi nitions used, the rates of ‘mental disorder’ vary greatly among
homicide offenders. The national confi dential inquiry into suicide and homicide by people with
mental illness in the UK established the frequency of mental illness in a complete national sample
of homicides as 44% (lifetime history of mental disorder). At the time of the homicide, 14% had
symptoms of mental illness. The most frequent diagnosis was personality disorder (11%), closely
followed by alcohol dependence (10%) and drug dependence. Among major mental illnesses,
affective disorders (10%) were more common than schizophrenia (7%).

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45
Q

The proportion of those who commit homicide who are in contact with
mental health services within the previous year is
A. 1–4%
B. 8–11%
C. 40–43%
D. 60–63%
E. 80–86%

A

B. From the national confi dential inquiry on homicide (1996–9) data, only 8–11% of the
total sample of all homicide offenders (n=1594) were in contact with mental health services at
some time in the preceding year. The main diagnoses in those with any previous contact with
mental health services were schizophrenia (24%), personality disorder (18%), and depressive
disorder (16%). Psychiatric reports were not available for nearly one-quarter of all homicide
cases.

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46
Q

Compared with homicide perpetrators who kill those who are known to
them, perpetrators who kill strangers are more likely to
A. Have a history of mental disorder
B. Have a history of contact with mental health services
C. Be a young female
D. Have psychiatric symptoms at the time of offence
E. Have a history of drug misuse

A

E. The national confi dential inquiry on homicide (1996–9) data found that 22% of all
reported homicides were stranger homicides. In stranger homicides the perpetrator was more
likely to be a young male and less likely to have a history of mental disorder or a history of
contact with mental health services. They were also less likely to have psychiatric symptoms at
the time of the offence than perpetrators of non-stranger homicides. They were more likely to
have a history of drug or alcohol misuse

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47
Q

Which of the following is true with regard to men convicted of a sexual
offence compared with men with no history of sexual offences in the
general population?
A. Sexual offenders have a similar risk for psychiatric hospitalization
B. Sexual offenders have lower rates of schizophrenia
C. Sexual offenders have higher rates of psychotic disorders
D. Only organic psychiatric conditions are more prevalent among sexual offenders
E. Sexual offenders have a reduced risk of bipolar disorder

A

C. Traditional expert views on the association between sexual offending and psychiatric
disorders were challenged by a case–control study using 13 years’ data from Swedish crime
registers conducted by Fazel et al (2007). The authors compared sexual offenders with a random
sample of men from the general population and reported that sexual offenders were more likely
to have been hospitalized for a psychiatric condition than men in the general population (odds
ratio (OR) 6.3). They also showed that sexual offenders were more likely to have a severe mental
illness, including schizophrenia (OR 4.8), bipolar disorder (OR 3.4), other psychoses (OR 5.2), or
an organic psychiatric condition (OR 2.4).

48
Q

Elderly offenders are often an under-researched population compared with
working age offenders. Which of the following is true regarding elderly sex
offenders?
A. Elderly sex offenders have higher rates of mental illness than non-sex offenders
B. Elderly sex offenders have increased schizoid traits compared with non-sex offenders
C. Sex offending in elderly people is associated more with organic brain disease
D. Elderly sex offenders have increased antisocial traits compared with non-sex offenders
E. There is an equal gender distribution among elderly sex offenders

A

B. As stated in the question, research is scarce in the area of criminality in elderly people.
A case–control study comparing elderly sex offenders with elderly non-sex offenders showed
that the rates of psychotic illness, depressive disorders, personality disorders, and dementia did
not differ signifi cantly between the two groups. Signifi cant differences were observed at the level
of personality traits wherein sex offenders were observed to have more schizoid, obsessive–
compulsive, and avoidant traits but fewer antisocial traits than non-sex offenders. Similar to any
other age group of sex offenders, the elderly group consisted exclusively of males. The authors
concluded that sex offending in elderly people is associated more with personality factors than
with mental illness or organic brain disease.

49
Q

Which of the following statements is true with respect to reduction in the
risk of violence associated with schizophrenia?
A. Newer antipsychotics reduce violence more than typical antipsychotics
B. Violence risk is not modifi ed by antipsychotic medications
C. Medication adherence reduces risk of violence
D. Olanzapine has the best evidence for reducing violence risk among atypical
antipsychotics other than clozapine
E. Typical antipsychotics increase the overall risk of violence

A

C. The data from Clinical Antipsychotic Trials of Intervention Effectiveness (CATIE) project
were analysed for the effect of antipsychotics on violent behaviour in those with schizophrenia.
Violence declined from 16% to 9% in those who completed the antipsychotic treatment
throughout the trial period of 6 months. But no demonstrable difference was found among
the different medication groups; medication adherence was associated with a reduced risk of
violence only in patients with no history of childhood antisocial conduct. Hence the effect of
antipsychotics on violence in schizophrenia seems to depend on the effect of the drugs on acute
psychopathology. This study did not show an advantage for second-generation antipsychotics in
violence risk reduction when compared with fi rst-generation antipsychotic perphenazine.

50
Q
The most important difference between legally determined non-insane
automatisms and insane automatisms is
A. Treatability
B. Recurrence risk
C. Presence of intent
D. Degree of crime
E. Impulsivity
A

B. Automatism is a psychiatric defence used in cases of homicide. Under automatism, the
defence counsel argues that the accused person’s behaviour at the time of the offence was
‘automatic’. In other words, mens rea was absent and the act was merely done without the
conscious force of the mind – no intention was present. Some causes of automatism include
hypoglycaemia, sleep walking, epilepsy, etc. In general, the defendant is acquitted if he/she is
found to have a case of sane automatism, i.e. automatisms that occur due to external causes;
these are unlikely to recur, hence the acquittal. Insane automatisms are due to ‘internal diseases’
or disorders of the mind, which have a propensity to recur. This classifi cation is purely legal and
not based on the impulsive nature of the crime or treatability of the condition. Note that both
types of automatisms, by defi nition, mean that there is a lack of intent (mens rea). Often discrete
medical disorders can be classifi ed in either type of automatism.

51
Q
With respect to morbid jealousy, the correct statement among the
following is
A. It is always a delusional disorder
B. It is coded separately in ICD-10
C. It is coded separately in DSM-IV
D. It is classifi ed as a paraphilia
E. It is associated with amphetamine use
A

E. Morbid jealousy (also known as Othello syndrome) may be a presenting feature of
schizophrenia, delusional disorder, organic brain syndromes, or affective psychosis. It is not coded
separately in ICD-10 or DSM-IV but as a subtype of delusional disorder; the delusion of infi delity
is described by both systems of classifi cation. Alcohol, amphetamine, or cocaine use can give
rise to delusions of jealousy that may develop into full-blown delusional disorder in vulnerable
individuals

52
Q
The most common relationship a victim may have with his/her stalker is
A. Ex-partner
B. Employer
C. Medical practitioner
D. Unrelated stranger
E. Casual acquaintance
A

A. Using a broad defi nition of stalking the British Crime Survey (2000) estimated that 2.9%
of adults aged 16–59 had been stalked in the preceding year. Women (4.0%) were more likely to
be victims of stalking/harassment than men (1.7%). Risks were particularly high for young women
aged between 16 and 19 (16.8%). About a third of incidents were perpetrated by someone
who was in an intimate relationship with the victim at the start of the episode or in the past.
A community-based epidemiological study on stalking from a medium-sized German city
reported that most of the stalking victims (32%) were pursued by former intimate partners.

53
Q

Which of the following ICD-10 diagnoses has a well-demonstrated causal
association leading to stalking behaviour?
A. Obsessive–compulsive disorder
B. Delusional disorder
C. Depressive disorder
D. Organic brain disorders
E. Pervasive developmental disorder

A

B. Delusional disorder or erotomanic type has a well-known link with stalking behaviour.
An often-cited descriptive study of stalking was carried out by Mullen et al. (1999) in a group
of 145 stalkers referred to a psychiatric centre. Mullen grouped stalkers into rejected, intimacyseeking,
incompetent, resentful, and predatory types. These are arbitrary and not entirely
exclusive groupings, although such typology helps in predicting the likely nature and duration
of stalking and the risk of assault to a certain extent. Among these, the rejected stalkers make
up the largest group, formed predominantly of ex-partners. The predatory stalkers form a
small group with a high potential for sexual violence. Mullen described incompetent stalkers
as ‘intellectually limited and socially incompetent individuals with rudimentary courting rituals’
whose victims do not reciprocate their affection. Resentful stalkers tend to frighten and distress
the victim because of a sense of grievance. The intimacy-seeking stalkers form a spectrum, from
those with erotomania to those with rigid infatuations. The erotomanic delusions could be both
secondary to pre-existing psychotic disorders such as schizophrenia and as part of a delusional
disorder.

54
Q

It is found that criminal parents are at higher risk of having delinquent
children. Which of the following is a correct statement in this regard?
A. Most criminal parents directly encourage crime in their children
B. Most criminal parents do not mind if their children commit a criminal offence
C. Findings of genetic transmission in delinquency have been shown to be robust
D. Poor parental supervision from criminal parents increases delinquency rates
E. Parents and children get convicted for the same crime more often than not

A

D. It is well established that having a convicted mother, father, brother, or sister signifi cantly
predicts juvenile delinquency in boys. Thus intergenerational continuity in offending has been
noted. There is no evidence that criminal parents directly encourage their children to commit
crime; in fact, most convicted men disagreed with the statement that ‘I would not mind if my
son/daughter committed a criminal offence’. Epidemiological studies have shown that it was
extremely rare for a parent and a child to be convicted for an offence committed together.
Thus, the major mediator between parental criminality and juvenile delinquency seems to be
poor parental supervision, with some role for genetic transmission of antisocial behaviour.

55
Q

All of the following features are supportive of violence occurring during
epileptic automatism except
A. Violent behaviour provoked by the victim
B. Presence of impaired consciousness
C. Poorly directed behaviour
D. Stereotyped motor acts preceding violent behaviour
E. Evidence of amnesia for the behaviour

A

A. Violent acts during epilepsy are extremely uncommon. But epileptic automatisms have
been invoked as a defence in courts time and again. Most cases involved spontaneous, nondirected,
stereotyped aggressive movements, with violence against property being more common
than infl icting serious bodily injuries. Severe violence, if seen at all, is largely restricted to postictal
states. When aggression presents as a feature of an epileptic seizure, it usually begins suddenly
without provocation, lasts only for brief periods, and ends abruptly with evidence of impaired
consciousness during the act. The act usually does not involve detailed or interactive behaviour
but appears stereotyped. Episodes of postictal or ictal violence are usually associated with
amnesia for the event

56
Q

An offender with a history of repeated arson admits to deliberate
fi re-setting, which is preceded by a certain degree of arousal. He has had
a fascination with fi re since childhood and achieves a sense of gratifi cation
when setting fi res. He does not have antisocial personality disorder or
substance use. The most appropriate diagnosis is
A. Obsessive compulsive disorder
B. Pyromania
C. Intellectual disability
D. Intermittent explosive disorder
E. Sadistic personality disorder

A

B. Pyromania is an extremely rare disorder that presents with repeated fi re-setting. It is
recognized as a category in both ICD-10 and DSM-IV, under impulse control disorders. The
diagnostic criteria include tension or affective arousal before the act of setting the fi re, fascination
with, interest in, curiosity about, or attraction to fi re and its situational contexts, as well as
pleasure, gratifi cation, or relief when setting fi res or when witnessing or participating in the
aftermath of a fi re.

57
Q

During the proceedings of a court trial it becomes evident that a murder
victim had the habit of achieving sexual excitement from being humiliated
and beaten after being bound and verbally abused. This is consistent with
A. Voyeurism
B. Sadism
C. Masochism
D. Fetishism
E. Hypoxyphilia

A

C. Masochism refers to a paraphilia characterized by persistent interest in sexual activities
that demean, humiliate, or cause suffering to self. Masochism requires a partner who complies by
dominating and infl icting suffering. In contrast, sadism refers to a paraphilia wherein sexual arousal
and gratifi cation are obtained by infl icting pain and suffering upon the partner. Hence a sadist
and a masochist can be mutual partners. Voyeurism is characterized by achieving gratifi cation
by watching people undressing or having sexual intercourse. It is the most common paraphilia
reported. Fetishism refers to compulsive sexual interest in inanimate objects that are often worn
by or associated with sexual partners. Hypoxyphilia (autoerotic asphyxiation) is not separately
coded as a paraphilia in ICD/DSM; it refers to a specifi c form of masochism in which sexual
arousal is attained by self-suffocation, e.g. via hanging while masturbating.

58
Q
In people with kleptomania which of the following medications has been
demonstrated to be the most useful in double-blinded randomized
controlled trials?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Olanzapine
C. Lithium
D. Naloxone
E. None of the above
A

E. Kleptomania is considered by some as part of the obsessive–compulsive spectrum.
Extending the effectiveness of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) in obsessive
compulsive spectrum disorders, several case series of successful SSRI use in kleptomania
have appeared. A response rate of nearly 80% at week 7 was reported for kleptomania in an
open-label trial of escitalopram; this was not maintained to the same degree in a subsequent
double-blind placebo-controlled discontinuation trial. Naltrexone and mood stabilizers have
also been studied in open-label trials for kleptomania, with variable benefi ts. To date, no strong
evidence from randomized controlled trials exists to support pharmacological interventions in
kleptomania.

59
Q
The proportion of adults with a history of childhood conduct disorder who
satisfy the criteria for antisocial personality disorder in cross-sectional
interviews is
A. 75%
B. 10%
C. 20%
D. 3%
E. 95%
A

A. Traditionally it was thought that 40% of those with conduct disorder experience lifetime
persistence of traits that are termed as antisocial personality disorder. But this has been now
challenged to be an underestimate; data from the National Epidemiologic Survey on Alcohol
and Related Conditions (NESARC) in the USA suggests that nearly 75% of adults who were
retrospectively identifi ed to have had conduct disorder as children satisfi ed current criteria for
antisocial personality disorder. Although this is a retrospective design, the estimates are from a
more representative sample than older retrospective studies

60
Q
Among all homicides committed by those with psychotic illnesses, the
proportion committed by those with a fi rst episode psychosis and receiving
no treatment is
A. 1 in 10
B. 2 in 10
C. 4 in 10
D. 7 in 10
E. 9 in 10
A

C. The prevalence of schizophrenic disorders in the general population is below 1%, but
patients with schizophrenia constitute between 5% and 20% of all homicide offenders.
An increased risk of homicide has been associated with the fi rst episode of psychosis. A metaanalysis
of studies reporting homicide offences in psychotic patients showed that 38.5% of
homicides occurred during the first episode of psychosis, prior to initial treatment. The rate ratio
of homicide in the first episode of psychosis was 15.5 times the annual rate of homicide after
treatment for psychosis. Nearly 40% of patients with schizophrenia who commit homicides do
not have any history of psychiatric care

61
Q
Among various mental disorders seen in shoplifters, the strongest
association is seen for
A. Borderline personality disorder
B. Antisocial personality disorder
C. Schizophrenia
D. Depression
E. Kleptomania
A

B. Shoplifting is different from kleptomania: the former is a broadly defi ned behaviour
whereas the latter is a specifi c psychiatric diagnostic category. Data from a national study
carried out in the USA (National Epidemiologic Survey on Alcohol and Related Conditions)
have demonstrated that most individuals (nearly 90%) who admitted to at least one episode
of lifetime shoplifting had a lifetime history of at least one psychiatric diagnosis, compared
with nearly 50% in non-shoplifters. In both groups, the most prevalent disorders were nicotine
dependence and alcohol use disorders, with nearly three or four times increased risk respectively;
among shoplifters, the strongest associations were found for antisocial personality disorder and
substance use disorders. Kleptomania is a rare condition and occurs in less than 5% of identifi ed
shoplifters and less than 0.6% of the general population

62
Q

A 43-year-old patient with a diagnosis of delusional disorder reveals
that he intends to ‘rip off’ his neighbour, with whom he believes that his
wife is having an affair. Which of the following is correct with regard to
management of this patient?
A. Police must not be informed to preserve confi dentiality; wife can be informed
B. Wife must not be informed to preserve confi dentiality; police must be informed
C. Police, wife, and, if needed, the neighbour must be informed
D. Only the neighbour must be informed as there are no thoughts to harm the wife
E. No one needs to be informed if the patient is legally detained in a hospital

A

C. In Tarasoff v The Regents of the University of California et al., a case was brought by the
parents of Tatiana Tarasoff, who had been murdered by Prosenjit Poddar. Poddar had previously
disclosed his violent feelings against Tarasoff to Dr Moore, the campus psychologist. Although
Dr Moore notifi ed the police of his concerns about Poddar, the police released him after
questioning. Ms Tarasoff and her family were not warned of the danger she faced. The court ruled
that the clinician had a duty to protect and warn a third party from risk of harm from his/her
patient, even though that third party was not under the clinician’s clinical care. In the UK, a Tarasoff
ruling does not apply directly; breach of confi dentiality for the sake of public interest has been
recognized. According to Tarasoff principles, the police and third parties must be warned of the
risk as well as the wife.

63
Q
The proportion of prisoners in English prisons with one or other
diagnosable mental disorder is
A. 30%
B. 15%
C. 45%
D. 90%
E. 5%
A

D. Data from Psychiatric Morbidity among Prisoners in England and Wales 1998 showed that a
large proportion of all prisoners had several mental disorders. Only 1 in 10 or fewer showed no
evidence of any of the fi ve disorders considered in the survey (personality disorder, psychosis,
neurosis, alcohol misuse, and drug dependence). Thus the rate of psychiatric diagnosis was nearly
90% in prisons. Most prisoners who had a psychiatric diagnosis had more than one diagnosable
condition; this was especially true if the primary diagnosis was psychotic illness. Rates for multiple
disorders were higher among remand than sentenced prisoners. Despite this, most prisoners
receive poor, if any, psychiatric services in prison.

64
Q

All of the following are true with regard to suicide of a homicide
perpetrator except
A. The suicide usually occurs within a week of murder
B. It most commonly follows domestic homicides
C. It follows child homicides more often than adult homicides
D. It is most commonly associated with bipolar disorder
E. An altruistic motive may be seen in elderly people

A

D. Homicide–suicides are mostly family affairs, especially when the perpetrator is female.
Barraclough and Harris (2002) studied all murder–suicides over a 4-year period in the UK and
found that 3% of male, 11% of female, and 19% of child homicides were of this type. Similarly,
of all suicides, 0.8% male and 0.4% female deaths occurred as homicide–suicides. The typical
cases involved families of low socioeconomic status. Death or fatal injury occurred on the same
day in nearly 90% of incidents; in atypical cases the maximum interval between suicide and
homicide was 10 months. In elderly people such homicide–suicide combinations are often suicide
pacts complicated by depression or dementia in a couple or one of the partners. They can be
considered altruistic, as often elderly people believe that the world will be better off without
them.

65
Q
In UK prisons, the most common method of committing suicide is
A. Hanging
B. Poisoning
C. Jumping from a height
D. Gunshot injuries
E. Self-immolation
A

A. A 2-year national survey of prison suicides described the clinical and social circumstances
of self-infl icted deaths among prisoners in England and Wales. Nearly one-third occurred within
7 days of arrival in prison. The commonest method (nearly 92%) was hanging or selfstrangulation;
nearly three-quarters had a history of mental disorder. The commonest primary
diagnosis was drug dependence

66
Q

In which of the following settings are anatomical dolls used to aid interview?
A. Interviewing a learning-disabled adult for criminal offence
B. Interviewing a child for diagnosing conduct disorder
C. Interviewing an adult perpetrator of child abuse
D. Interviewing a child for the possibility of sexual abuse
E. Interviewing a child with suspected gender identity disorder

A

D. Anatomical dolls are used in forensic investigation of children who are alleged victims of
sexual abuse. Various procedures such as drawings, puppets, observation for sexualized behaviour,
etc., have been used to obtain a child’s report of sexual abuse. But research has not confi rmed
that responses supposedly indicative of abuse (e.g. drawing genitalia in human fi gure drawings,
demonstrating intercourse, or oral sex between anatomical dolls, etc.) consistently occur with
high frequency among abused children. Hence the use of such methods is controversial.

67
Q

A patient with chronic schizophrenia has improved core signs and
symptoms. His remaining symptoms are of such low intensity that they
no longer interfere signifi cantly with his behaviour. The burden of current
symptoms is such that if assessed now using standard criteria, he would not
be diagnosed as having schizophrenia, although his social and vocational
functioning has not altered much over the course of treatment. Which of
the following correctly describes this state?
A. Recovery
B. Remission
C. Defi cit state
D. Lucid interval
E. Recrudescence

A

B. The Remission in Schizophrenia Working Group defi ned remission ‘as a state in which
patients have experienced improvements in core signs and symptoms to the extent that any
remaining symptoms are of such low intensity that they no longer interfere signifi cantly with
behaviour and are below the threshold typically utilized in justifying an initial diagnosis of
schizophrenia’. Thus ‘remission’ is not the same as ‘recovery’, which is the ability to function
in the community, socially and vocationally, as well as being relatively free of psychopathology.
Accordingly, remission is a necessary but not suffi cient step towards recovery. Note that such a
scientifi c defi nition of recovery views recovery as a state of outcome; this is very different from
the concept of recovery promulgated by consumer groups

68
Q
While measuring non-adherence to psychotropic medications, which of the
following groups provides a subjective overestimate of the true adherence
rates?
A. Patient group
B. Doctors treating the patients
C. Pharmacist
D. Both A and B
E. None of the above
A

D. In clinical practice, medication adherence is either assumed de facto or assessed from
patients’ self-reports. Both these measures of adherence have limited validity. Medication levels
in body fl uids are susceptible to manipulation. The use of electronic monitoring and a third
party such as a pharmacist/clinical assistant to assess adherence may be more useful. Using the
measurement of adherence as a dichotomous variable, a study comparing adherence estimates by
patients, clinicians, and research assistants using electronic monitors was carried out. Compared
with electronic monitoring, prescribers dramatically overestimated adherence levels. Electronic
monitoring detected greater non-adherence rates (57%) than either prescribers (7%) or patients
(5%), although independent third-party ratings were closer to electronic ratings (54%).

69
Q

According to the European schizophrenia cohort study, homelessness
experienced by patients with schizophrenia is highest in
A. Germany
B. France
C. Great Britain
D. Belgium
E. Turkey

A

C. Homelessness has a recognized association with severe mental illness. ‘Roofl essness’
refers to those living on the streets; it is diffi cult to include them in research surveys. Hence most
researchers use a looser defi nition of having no fi xed address and include people living in hostels
and emergency accommodation. A broader term of ‘housing instability’ refers to the tenuousness
of housing tenure. In the USA, community studies show that about a fi fth of those with
schizophrenia had no fi xed address – a rate that was 2.4 times higher than for major depression.
The European Schizophrenia Cohort (Bebbington et al., 2005) found that 32.8% of the British
sample had experienced homelessness in their lifetime compared with 8.4% in Germany and
12.9% in France. The rate in London was even higher (43%).

70
Q

Which of the following is the major principle behind the original
development of assertive community treatment?
A. Transfer of learnt social skills from the hospital to community setting is diffi cult
B. Social skills training in the hospital setting is costly
C. Training in community living is not a necessary component of rehabilitation
D. Vocational rehabilitation can only take place in the community
E. Cost of inpatient management is higher than the cost of community management

A

A. Assertive community treatment (ACT) was initially developed from the ‘training in
community living’ programme at the Mendota Mental Health Institute in Madison, Wisconsin, by
Marx, Stein, and Test. According to them community rehabilitation existent in the 1970s served
only to maintain patients in ‘a tenuous community adjustment on the brink of rehospitalization’,
instead of helping patients to meet all their needs. The key principle was to provide treatment in
community settings, because skills learnt in the community can be better applied in the community.
In the UK it has been shown that community mental health teams are able to support people with
serious mental illnesses as effectively as ACT teams, but ACT may be better at engaging clients
and may lead to greater satisfaction with services (UK-700 and REACT studies; see Burns et al.
for more information). A systematic review of the evidence on the ACT model has suggested that
the degree of reliance on hospitalization may be the key factor in heterogeneity of outcomes
seen in ACT services: the higher the reliance on hospitalization in a community, the more
effective the ACT-based services are for that community. Other options in the question are false.
The cost of skills training is not a major factor behind the advocacy of the ACT model.

71
Q

Subjective measures of quality of life (QOL) in patients with mental illness
may be inaccurate because of
A. QOL scales always include depression and anxiety items
B. Reduced expectations may lead to claims of good QOL
C. QOL is not measurable using questionnaires
D. Subjective measures of QOL are not standardized
E. Response rate for subjective QOL measures is very low

A

B. QOL is measurable using questionnaires; these measures can be subjective or objective
and many standardized instruments for both are available. Most but not all QOL instruments
contain ‘emotional’ items, mostly relating to depression and anxiety. Such scales when applied to
psychiatric conditions become tautological as the content of both measures largely overlap, e.g.
the Quality of Life in Depression Scale (QLDS), which is made up mainly of depressive symptoms.
Subjective measures of QOL in psychiatry are particularly problematic because of ‘affective,
cognitive or reality distortion fallacies’. A depressed patient may underestimate his true QOL;
similarly, psychopathological states may lead to distorted appraisal of one’s QOL. Hence external
(e.g. relatives/carers) appraisal may be necessary to complement subjective QOLs in psychiatry.
Another specifi c type of bias noted in QOL studies in psychiatry is what is termed as ‘standard
drift fallacy’. Quality of life can be thought of as the gap between a person’s expectations
and achievements. This gap can be kept minimal (i.e. good QOL) either by living up to one’s
expectations or lowering these expectations. Many patients with long-term mental disorders
report being ‘satisfi ed with life’ in conditions that would be regarded as inadequate or unbearable
by other factions of the society. This is due to the tendency of chronic mentally ill people to
lower their standards over time and thus keep the gap between expectations and achievements
narrow (falsely infl ated subjective QOL)

72
Q

Which of the following projects refers to promoting spontaneous recovery
in schizophrenia without compulsory use of psychotropics?
A. Henderson hospital project
B. Soteria project
C. Partial hospitalization project
D. Utopia project
E. Melbourne PACE project

A

B. Different models of therapeutic communities have been tried as alternatives to
hospitalization for people diagnosed with schizophrenia. Some of these models emphasized
the need for individuals to experience psychosis with minimal interference and high levels of
support instead of early intervention with antipsychotic medication. In the UK, initiatives such as
Kingsley Hall, associated with Laing, and Villa 21, associated with David Cooper, are examples. In
the USA, the ‘Soteria paradigm,’ was developed by Mosher and colleagues; the critical elements
of Soteria are provision of a small, community-based therapeutic milieu; signifi cant lay person
staffi ng; preservation of personal power and social networks; sustained communal responsibilities;
a ‘phenomenological’ relational style (giving meaning to the subjective experience of psychosis
by ‘being with’ and ‘doing with’ the client); and no or low-dose antipsychotic medication
administered from a position of choice and without coercion. Henderson hospital is a therapeutic
community for personality disorders, not schizophrenia. The PACE (Personal Assessment and
Crisis Evaluation) Clinic is a centre for people with suspected incipient psychosis in Australia
where trialled interventions aimed at preventing or delaying the onset of psychotic disorders
are used; these interventions include psychological and social interventions, either alone or in
combination with pharmacotherapy. Partial hospitalisation refers to mentalization-based therapy
for borderline personality disorder

73
Q
According to the health belief model of treatment compliance, patients
consider all of the following factors when deciding upon treatment
adherence except
A. Susceptibility to illness
B. Severity of illness
C. Perceived benefi ts
D. Probability of side-effects
E. Social criticism
A

E. According to the health belief model four main belief categories have an impact on
patients’ compliance with prescribed treatment. These are (1) perceived benefi ts, (2) perceived
costs, (3) perceived susceptibility to illness and cure, (4) secondary benefi ts of medication and
adherence. This model emphasizes the patient’s decision-making process, which is composed of a
subjective cost–benefi t analysis in the context of the patient’s personal goals and priorities. Thus
any changes in levels of adherence are possible only via alteration of the patient’s perceptions.
The more severe the illness, the higher the likelihood of perceived benefi ts. Social criticism
does not constitute a major factor in adherence according to the health benefi ts model, unless
avoiding it is perceived directly as a benefi t by the patient.

74
Q
The vocational rehabilitation programme with best evidence in
schizophrenia is
A. Sheltered employment model
B. Supported employment model
C. Clubhouse model
D. Skills training model
E. Token economy model
A

B. Competitive employment rates are low in schizophrenia. People with mental health
disorders represent the largest group (40%) who claim incapacity benefi t. Various vocational
programmes have been tried and tested in schizophrenia rehabilitation. Work acts as both a
process and the outcome for rehabilitation in chronic schizophrenia. Sheltered employment
refers to the traditional ‘train and place model’ where gradual stepwise skills training is initially
carried out; when an individual makes suffi cient progress, later placement is offered, often in
sheltered workshops but not in competitive job markets. This approach remains the most
widespread in Europe. Models that emphasize relatively quick placement in competitive jobs
with continued support from employment specialists (supported employment models) are
shown to have considerable impact compared with schemes that concentrate on social skills
training or voluntary non-competitive work. This is the individual placement and support model
in contrast to traditional stepwise support-till-placement (train and place approach) models.
A multicentred RCT of Individual placement and training model (IPS) was carried out across
six centres in Europe, including London. The results indicated that IPS was more effective
than usual rehabilitation and vocational services for every work-related outcome, with 55%
of patients assigned to IPS working for at least 1 day compared with 28% patients assigned to
vocational services; the drop-out and readmission rates were comparatively lower in the IPS
group. Local unemployment rates across the six centres accounted for a substantial amount
of the heterogeneity in IPS effectiveness. Clubhouses offer an opportunity for a person with
schizophrenia to resume an independent lifestyle with decent housing, facilities for education,
job training, and placement via membership at a common daycentre. Token economy cannot
be considered as a vocational model; it is a behavioural technique using secondary reinforcers
(tokens) in rehabilitation units to enable desirable behaviour.

75
Q

The proportion of patients of working age with serious mental health
problems who are employed actively in the UK is
A. 10%
B. 50%
C. 40%
D. 75%
E. 1%

A

A. Annual (now quarterly) labour force surveys in the UK yield the rates of employment for
the mentally ill population. Patients with a signifi cant mental illness are among the most excluded
in society. It is estimated that, at best, 15% of working age people with long-term mental health
problems are working, far lower than any other group of disabled people. Even when working
they work fewer hours and earn only two-thirds of the national average hourly rate. The
employment rates for those with less serious mental health problems are relatively better at
20–25% but still people with mental disorders constitute 39% of all claimants of Disability
Allowance and 34% of Incapacity Benefi t, according to Department of Works and Pensions, UK.
Joblessness and lack of social networks are often exacerbated by discrimination and profound
loss of social status suffered by the mentally ill. Recovery from mental illness is signifi cantly
impeded by the above.

76
Q

Of the following, which is the least common cause of
malpractice claims against psychiatrists by patients?
A. Suicide attempts
B. Improper use of restraints
C. Failure to treat psychosis
D. Sexual involvement
E. Substance dependence

A

The answer is D
Sexual involvement with patients accounts for 6 percent of malpractice
claims against psychiatrists and is the least common
cause of malpractice litigation. This fact does not, however, minimize
its importance as a problem. (It should be noted that the
short statute of limitations for this particular offense may well
discourage patients from pursuing litigation because they have
not had sufficient time to reach a point of emotional readiness.)
Sexual intimacy with a patient is both illegal and unethical. There
are also serious legal and ethical questions about a psychotherapist’s
dating or marrying a patient even after discharging the
patient from therapy. Most psychiatrists believe in the adage
“Once a patient, always a patient.”
For other malpractice claims, the following figures are given:
failure to manage suicide attempts, 21 percent; failure to treat
psychosis, 14 percent; and improper use of restraints, 7 percent.
Substance dependence accounts for about 10 percent of claims
and refers to the patient’s having developed a substance-related
disorder as a result of a psychiatrist’s not carefully monitoring
the prescribing of potentially addicting drugs.

77
Q

Which of the following is not one of the basic elements
of the insanity defense?
A. Presence of a mental disorder
B. Presence of a defect of reason
C. Finding of incompetence to stand trial
D. Lack of knowledge of the nature of the act
E. Incapacity to refrain from the act

A

The answer is C
No precise, generally accepted definition of legal insanity exists.
Tests of insanity have always been controversial and have undergone
much modification and refinement over the years. The
insanity defense standard has four basic elements:
1. Presence of a mental disorder
2. Presence of a defect of reason
3. A lack of knowledge of the nature or wrongfulness of the act
4. An incapacity to refrain from the act
The insanity defense is one of the most controversial issues in
American jurisprudence. The presence of a mental disorder has
remained the consistent core of the insanity defense; the other
elements have varied in importance over time. The finding of incompetence
to stand trial is unrelated to this defense. Defendants
with mental impairments who are found competent to stand trial
may still seek acquittal on the claim of insanity, alleging that they
were not criminally responsible for their actions at the time the
offense was committed. The term insanity is a legal construct,
not a psychiatric diagnosis.

78
Q

A 43-year-old prisoner is found to have major depressive
disorder. The correctional psychiatrist wants to start him
on antidepressant therapy because of the severity of his
disease. He was very often in solitary confinement for
violent behavior with correctional staff. The prisoner refuses
to take any medications, stating he does not want
to complicate his life any more by having to take drugs
every day. Correctional officers tell you it would be a security
risk to have this prisoner out of his cell every day
for treatment anyway.
What is the most appropriate next step in his management?
A. Do not give the prisoner antidepressants because he
has the right to refuse.
B. Do not give the prisoner antidepressants because it is
a security risk.
C. Do not give the prisoner antidepressants because it is
not a medical emergency.
D. Give the prisoner antidepressants because he does not
have the right to refuse.
E. Do nothing and observe the prisoner for worsening
symptoms.

A

The answer is D
The law and ethical analysis of informed consent and refusal
inside corrections are complicated. The legal rule is that inmates
have the right to consent to care but do not necessarily have
equally extensive rights to refuse care. Complicating this issue
is the reality that distinguishing between a refusal of care and a
possible denial of care is often difficult. An additional complication
is the fact that other correctional staff may not want to offer
appropriate psychiatric treatment for a variety of reasons (e.g.,
security risks, cost, deservedness). Simultaneously, inmates can
be insistent and manipulative and sometimes seek care for inappropriate
reasons. Despite these pressures from opposite poles,
correctional psychiatric personnel must ensure that patients get
appropriate care. Medical autonomy means that nonmedical personnel
cannot overrule the professional judgment of correctional
psychiatrists regarding their patients’ needs. Medical autonomy
means that only legitimate clinical decisions direct patient care,
not patient wishes. Correctional psychiatrists should be neutral in
nonmedical matters. Aligning with security staff costs them their
rapport with their patients. Alternatively, being inmate advocates
for non–health-related issues would cost them their rapport with
their correctional coworkers.

79
Q

Which of the following statements regarding juvenile detention
centers is true?
A. Youth suicide in juvenile detention centers occur four
times as often as youth suicide in the general population.
B. Suicide prevention guidelines are strictly enforced in
juvenile detention centers.
C. Prevalence of mental illness in detention centers is
extensively researched.
D. Juvenile detention centers are long-term facilities for
juveniles convicted of crimes.
E. More than 80 percent of incarcerated boys meet the
criteria for posttraumatic stress disorder.

A

The answer is A
Youth suicide in juvenile detention and correctional facilities
have been shown to occur four times more often than youth suicide
in the general population. Yet 75 percent of the nation’s
confined juveniles are in facilities that fail to conform to even
the most basic suicide prevention guidelines. Several studies note
that 25 percent (not 80 percent) of incarcerated boys and 50 percent
of incarcerated girls meet criteria for posttraumatic stress
disorder (PTSD). Juvenile detention centers are short-term facilities
that confine juveniles who are awaiting trial; juvenile
confinement facilities are long-term facilities (e.g., residential
treatment centers and training schools) for the confinement of
juveniles convicted of crimes. Mental illness in detention centers
has not been extensively researched.

80
Q

A 30-year-old white woman was admitted to a local hospital
because of cocaine abuse and major depression with
suicidal ideation. She had been referred to the hospital
after being arrested for cocaine use.
Which of the following is the most appropriate discharge
plan for this patient?
A. Discharge to the local jail
B. Discharge to home
C. Discharge to care of her family
D. Discharge to a psychiatric ward within a correctional
facility
E. Discharge to a substance abuse detoxification center

A

The answer is D
The most appropriate placement for this patient is in a psychiatric
facility within a correctional facility. Because she was
arrested for cocaine use before her hospital referral, she still
has charges pending against her and cannot be released to her
home or the care of her family. Although a substance abuse
detoxification center may be helpful in the future, she first must
have her legal situation dealt with. Discharge to a local jail is
inappropriate in this case as well because the local jail will
not be able to adequately address her mental illness (major
depression).

81
Q

In the case above, the patient cut her wrists 4 days later.
The most appropriate next step is
A. dismiss this act as it is manipulative
B. treat her as she has documented mental illness
C. continue to withhold psychiatric medications
D. continue one-on-one suicidal watch
E. complete examination by a mental health professional

A

The answer is E
Because self-mutilation is hard to control, it is a serious challenge
for correctional officials and psychiatric staff. When selfmutilation
is not the product of a mental disorder, mental health
professionals often deny admission to the mental health unit.
This confuses correctional authorities who view such behavior
as a sign of mental instability. It is essential to have clear protocols
for self-mutilation when it is (1) a psychiatric symptom, (2)
a manipulative gesture to escape a dangerous situation, and (3) an
effort to manipulate the system for personal gain. This woman’s
documented history of major depressive disorder should alert
correctional staff to the likelihood that cutting her wrists is a
true suicide attempt. She should have a complete evaluation by
a psychiatrist to determine the extent of her current symptoms.
If this woman is indeed having an exacerbation of her symptoms
of major depression, continuing to withhold medications and
simply putting her on a one-on-one suicidal watch may not be
enough and is neglectful. However, a thorough evaluation should
precede any treatment.

82
Q

A 42-year-old single male patient committed suicide
while on a 4-hour therapeutic pass from the hospital before
anticipated discharge. The patient was hospitalized
with a diagnosis of major depression, single episode, and
suicidal ideation. The patient steadfastly denied suicidal
thoughts or impulses after admission. He experienced
moderate to severe depression, anhedonia, global insomnia,
hopelessness, agitation, and loss of appetite. The
patient signed a suicide prevention contract, promising
to inform the psychiatrist immediately of any suicidal
ideation or impulses. After antidepressant treatment was
started, the patient’s energy level improved. The man’s
family sued the psychiatrist for wrongful death. The expert
found no evidence in the psychiatric record that a
formal suicide risk assessment was conducted before the
passwas issued. During the trial, the psychiatrist testified
that he did a formal suicide risk assessment but that itwas
an oversight that he did not record it.
Which of the following is the most likely outcome of
a trial under these circumstances?
A. The psychiatrist is not liable because a formal assessment
of suicide risk was done.
B. The psychiatrist is not liable because adequate medical
treatment was started.
C. The psychiatrist is not liable because the patient contracted
for safety.
D. The psychiatrist is liable because a formal assessment
of suicide risk was not documented.
E. The psychiatrist is liable because antidepressant therapy
is known to increase the risk for suicide.

A

The answer is D
The failure to adequately document events in the written clinical
record is a major reason for lack of credibility to legal testimony.
The psychiatrist in this case testified that he completed a
formal assessment of suicide risk, but there is no way to prove
this is true with no documentation. Although the patient was at a
greater risk of suicide after administration of an antidepressant
drug, the psychiatrist cannot be held liable for starting treatment
with an antidepressant, which is the standard of care. It is
also arguable that the psychiatrist had not placed total reliance
on the suicide prevention contract but had used it appropriately
to assess the working alliance with the patient, that is, the patient’s
willingness to work toward getting better. There is an adage in legal circles that if it is not documented, it was not
done.

83
Q

A 45-year-old man has a documented history of paranoid
schizophrenia. Upon returning home from work one day,
he finds his wife in bed with another man.Heimmediately
grabs a butcher knife and kills both his wife and her lover.
He then systematically attempts to dispose of the bodies
but is caught in the act.
What is the most likely outcome of a trial using the
M’Naghten rules under these circumstances?
A. Guilty charge
B. Not guilty by reason of insanity
C. Guilty by mens rea
D. Guilty by actus reus
E. Not guilty by reason of diminished capacity

A

The answer is A
To be found not guilty by reason of insanity, the defendant, as
a result of a severe mental disease or defect, must be unable to
appreciate the nature and quality or the wrongfulness of his acts.
In making an insanity determination, the threshold issue is not
the existence of a mental disease or defect per se but the lack of
substantial capacity caused by it. In this case, the fact that the
man tried to dispose of the bodies shows he was aware of the
criminal act, negating any insanity plea. For conviction of any
crime, a criminal state of mind (mens rea) must be accompanied
by the commission of a prohibited act (actus reus). Both must
be present for a guilty verdict, and neither has to do with mental
illness. The physical act must be conscious and volitional for
a person to be found guilty. The law also recognizes shades of
mental impairment that can affect mens rea, but not necessarily
to the extent of completely nullifying it. The concept of diminished
capacity allows the defendant to introduce medical and
psychological evidence that relates directly to the mens rea for
the crime charged without having to assert a defense of insanity.
For example, in the crime of assault with the intent to kill,
psychiatric testimony may be permitted to address whether the
offender acted with the purpose of committing homicide at the
time of the assault. Mental illness per se is not a defense, and
nothing in the case indicates this man did not intend to kill his
wife and her lover.

84
Q
In the case above, which of the following is the most
appropriate placement for this man?
A. Prison
B. Mental hospital
C. Home confinement
D. Jail facility
E. Local lockup
A

The answer is D
What happens to a defendant after a judge or jury returns a finding
of insanity depends on the crime committed and on the state
in which the trial takes place. Usually, those found “not guilty
by reason of insanity” are confined for treatment in a special
hospital for severely mentally ill persons who have committed
crimes. After a period of time, the person may request a hearing
to determine if he or she is no longer a danger to him- or herself
or others or is no longer mentally ill and is therefore eligible to
be released. Studies showthat persons found not guilty by reason
of insanity, on average, are held at least as long as—and often
longer than—persons found guilty and sent to prison for similar
crimes.
In this case, the person was sent to jail because his insanity
defense did not prevail. Jails are correctional facilities that confine
individuals involved in the criminal justice system who are
awaiting trial or serving short sentences for misdemeanors.
Alocal lockup may be a police precinct cell, a sheriff’s office,
or any other place, including a correctional facility used to detain
an arrested individual pending arraignment

85
Q

A 34-year-old mentally retarded woman is arrested for
killing her mother. At her trial, neither the defense nor
the prosecution puts the woman on the stand because
her communication skills are poor, and she is never fully
evaluated by a psychiatrist before or during the trial. She
is found guilty of murdering her mother and is sent to
prison. Her father, although devastated, tells a lawyer
his daughter is severely mentally retarded and cannot
possibly be held responsible for the murder.
Which of the following is the lawyer most likely to
claim to appeal the decision?
A. Automatism defense
B. Testimonial privilege
C. Habeas corpus
D. Parens patriae
E. Respondeat superior

A

The answer is C
A writ of habeas corpus (literally, “you must have the body”) is
a legal procedure that asks a court to decide whether a patient
has been hospitalized or imprisoned without due process of law.
The writ tests only whether a prisoner has been accorded due
process, not whether he or she is guilty. The automatism (or
unconscious) defense recognizes that some criminal acts may
be committed involuntarily. Testimonial privilege is the right of the patient to maintain secrecy or confidentiality in the face of a
subpoena. Parens patriae is the doctrine that allows the state to
intervene and act as a surrogate for those who are unable to care
for themselves or may harm themselves. Respondeat superior is
Latin for “let the master answer for the deed of the servant.” This
states a person high in the chain of command is responsible for
the actions of those under his or her supervision.

86
Q

If a patient threatens to harm another person,
A. psychiatrists in all states are required by law to perform
some intervention to prevent the harm from
occurring
B. psychiatrists in all states are permitted by law to perform
some intervention to prevent the harm from
occurring
C. the duty to protect patients and endangered third parties
should be considered a professional obligation
and only secondarily a legal issue
D. the Tarasoff duty applies only in state in which there
is a duty to warn and to protect
E. psychiatrists cannot intervene as they must protect
the confidentiality privilege

A

The answer is C
The duty to protect patients and endangered third parties should
be considered primarily a professional and moral obligation and
only secondarily a legal duty. Most psychiatrists acted to protect
their patients and threatened others from violence long before
Tarasoff. Psychiatrists should consider the Tarasoff duty to be a
national standard of care even if they practice in states that do
not have a duty to warn and protect. Indeed, not all states have
duty to warn statutes, so there is no legal obligation necessarily
in all states that permits or requires psychiatrists to prevent the
harm from occurring. If a patient gives the psychiatrist sufficient
reason to believe that a warning should be issued to an endangered
third party, the confidentiality of the communication that
gave rise to the warning may be lost.

87
Q

Incompetence
A. is determined by a clinician
B. is a global assessment of mental function
C. can be presumed if a patient is psychiatrically institutionalized
D. is rendered by virtue of a patient having a mental
disability
E. refers to a court adjudication

A

The answer is E
Incompetence is a broad concept that encompasses many different
legal issues and contexts. It refers to a court adjudication
Incapacity indicates a functional inability determined by a clinician.
It is a legal term that is applied to people who are considered
by law not to be mentally capable of performing a particular act
or assuming a particular role. Its adjudication is issue specific;
someone judged to be incompetent to do one thing is not automatically
incompetent to do other things. A lack of competency
cannot be presumed from a person’s treatment for mental illness
or from institutionalization. Mental disability does not necessarily
render a person incompetent or incompetent in all areas of
functioning.

88
Q
tort is a
A. wrongdoing
B. writ
C. subpoena
D. judgment
E. good deed
A

The answer is A
A tort is any wrongdoing for which an action for damages may
be brought. A writ is a written court order directing a person to
perform or refrain from performing a specific act. A subpoena
is a writ commanding a designated person upon whom it has
been served to appear (as in court or before a congressional
committee) under a penalty (as a charge of contempt) for failure
to comply. A judgment is a formal decision or determination on
a matter or case by a court. A good deed is obviously not a tort

89
Q

An example of a tort is when a doctor
A. hugs a patient
B. dates a family member of a former patient
C. tells a patient that sex with him or her is therapeutic
D. maintains confidentiality in the face of a subpoena
E. lists the adverse effects of drugs when prescribing

A

The answer is C
In a tort, wrongdoers are motivated by the intent to harm another
person or should have realized that such harm is likely to result
from their actions. For example, telling a patient that sex with
the therapist is therapeutic perpetrates a fraud.
Although hugging a patient and dating a patient’s family
member are both unethical, they are examples of boundary violations,
not a tort. Various criminal law statutes have been used
against psychiatrists who violate this ethical principle.
Privilege is the right to maintain confidentiality in the face of
a subpoena. Privileged communications are statements made by certain persons within a relationship—such as husband–wife,
priest–penitent, or doctor–patient—that the law protects from
forced disclosure on the witness stand. Listing the adverse effects
of drugs when prescribing drugs is an example of good medical
practice and is not a tort.

90
Q
Psychiatrists can be sued for
A. battery
B. invasion of privacy
C. misrepresentation
D. false imprisonment
E. all of the above
A

The answer is E (all)
Psychiatrists, similar to other people, can be sued for anything.
This includes battery, defined as the unlawful and unwanted
touching or striking of one person by another with the intention
of bringing about a harmful or offensive contact. Invasion of privacy,
defined as the intrusion into the personal life of another
without just cause, can give the person whose privacy has been
invaded a right to bring a lawsuit for damages against the person
or entity that intruded. Misrepresentation, defined as a statement
made by a party to a contract, that a thing relating to it is in fact in
a particular way when he or she knows it is not so. False imprisonment,
defined as restraining another person without having the
legal right to do so, is a misdemeanor and a tort

91
Q
The most frequent issue involving lawsuits against psychiatrists
is
A. suicide
B. improper use of restraints
C. sexual involvement
D. drug reactions
E. violence
A

The answer is A
Suicide and suicide attempts are the most frequent causes for
lawsuits against psychiatrists; 50 percent of suicides lead to malpractice
actions by relatives. The greatest degree of supervision
(inpatient setting) is associated with the most culpability. The use
of restraints, drug reactions, and patients committing violence
are all potential causes of malpractice that can be forestalled with
proper documentation of clinical decision making and informed
consent. Sexual involvement with a patient is both illegal and
unethical.

92
Q

Involuntary termination of treatment of a patient by a
therapist
A. may result in a malpractice claim of abandonment
B. cannot be done during a patient emergency
C. requires careful documentation
D. should include transfer of services to others
E. all of the above

A

The answer is E (all)
A potential pitfall of involuntary discharge or termination is the
charge of abandonment. Malpractice litigation is often associated
with situations in which there are bad feelings and a bad
outcome. Consultation and careful documentation are important
safeguards. Charges of abandonment can be avoided by referring
the patient to another hospital or therapist. Some authorities recommend
giving a patient three names of therapists, clinics, or
hospitals. A patient’s treatment cannot be terminated while in a
state of emergency. The emergency must be resolved (e.g., by
hospitalization in cases of dangerousness) before treatment can
be terminated and the patient transferred.

93
Q

A person considered competent to be executed
A. must be aware of the punishment
B. must know its purpose
C. may come to whatever peace is appropriate with religious
beliefs
D. might recall forgotten details of the events
E. all of the above

A

The answer is E (all)
The requirement for competence to be executed rests on a few
general principles. A person’s awareness of what is happening is supposed to heighten the retributive element of the punishment.
Punishment is meaningless unless the person is aware of it and
knows the punishment’s purpose. A competent person who is
about to be executed is believed to be in the best position to make
whatever peace is appropriate with religious beliefs, including
confession and absolution. A competent person who is about to
be executed preserves, until the end, the possibility (admittedly
slight) of recalling a forgotten detail of the events or the crime
that may prove exonerating

94
Q

Pick the best answer regarding Dusky v United States.
A. Harmless mental patients cannot be confined against
their wills without treatment if they can survive outside.
B. An involuntary patient who is not receiving treatment
has a constitutional right to be discharged.
C. A test of competence was approved to see if a criminal
defendant can rationally consult with a lawyer
and has a factual (and rational) understanding of the
proceedings against him or her.
D. Civilly committed persons have a constitutional right
to adequate treatment.
E. A clinician must notify the intended victim(s) when
there is an imminent threat posed by his or her patient

A

The answer is C
The Supreme Court, in Dusky v United States (1960), approved
a test of competence that seeks to ascertain whether a criminal
defendant “has sufficient present ability to consult with his
lawyer with a reasonable degree of rational understanding and
whether he has a rational as well as factual understanding of the
proceedings against him.” In the 1976 case of O’Connor v Donaldson,
the Supreme Court ruled that harmless mental patients
cannot be confined against their wills without treatment if they
can survive outside. In 1966, the District of Columbia Court of
Appeals ruled in Rouse v Cameron that an involuntary inpatient
who is not receiving treatment has a constitutional right to be discharged.
According to this decision, the purpose of involuntary
hospitalization is treatment.
In Wyatt v Stickney (1971), it was decided that civilly committed
patients have a constitutional right to receive adequate
treatment. In Tarasoff I (the case of Tarasoff v Regents of the
University of California in 1974), it was ruled that a psychotherapist
or physician who has reason to believe that a patient may
injure or kill someone must notify the potential victim, the patient’s
relatives or friends, or the authorities.

95
Q

In a child custody dispute, which of the following is not
true?
A. A natural parent has the inherent right to be named
custodial parent.
B. The best interest of the mother may be served by
naming her as the custodial parent.
C. More fathers are asserting custodial claims.
D. Courts presume that a child is best served by maternal
custody when the mother is a good and fit parent.
E. In 5 percent of all cases, fathers are named the custodians.

A

The answer is A
The action of a court in a child custody dispute is now predicated
on the child’s best interests. The maxim reflects the idea that a
natural parent does not have an inherent right to be named a
custodial parent, but the presumption, although a bit eroded,
remains in favor of the mother in the case of young children. As
a rule, courts presume that the welfare of a child of tender years
generally is best served by maternal custody when the mother
is a good and fit parent. The best interest of the mother may be
served by naming her as the custodial parent because a mother
may never resolve the effects of the loss of a child, but her best
interest is not to be equated ipso facto with the best interest of
the child.
More fathers are asserting custodial claims. In about 5 percent
of all cases, fathers are named custodians. The movement
supportingwomen’s rights is also enhancing the chances of paternal
custody.With more women going to work outside the home,
the traditional rationale for maternal custody has less force today
than it did in the past.

96
Q

Confidential communications can be shared with which
of the following without the patient’s consent?
A. A medical or psychiatric consultant
B. The patient’s family
C. The patient’s attorney
D. The patient’s previous therapist
E. An insurer of the patient

A

The answer is A
Confidentiality pertains to the premise that all information imparted
to a physician by a patient should be held secret. However,
sharing information with other staff members treating the
patient, clinical supervisors, and a medical or psychiatric consultant
does not require the patient’s permission. Sharing patient information with the patient’s family, the patient’s attorney, the
patient’s previous therapist, or an insurer of the patient does require
the patient’s permission. Courts may compel disclosure of
confidential material (subpoena duces tecum). In emergencies,
limited information may be released, but after the emergency,
the clinician should inform the patient.

97
Q
Negligent prescription practices may include
A. prescribing the wrong dosages
B. unreasonable mixing of drugs
C. failure to disclose side effects
D. poor hand writing
E. all of the above
A

The answer is E (all)
Negligent prescription practices usually include exceeding recommended
dosages and then failing to adjust the medication
level to therapeutic levels, unreasonable mixing of drugs, prescribing
medication that is not indicated, prescribing too many
drugs at one time, and then failing to disclose medication effects.
Although exceeding the recommended dosage may be
considered negligent, if it must be done, it should be documented
in the patient’s chart. Multiple psychotropic medications
must be prescribed with special care because of their possible
harmful interactions and adverse effects. Psychiatrists must explain
the diagnosis, risks, and benefits of the drug. Informed
consent should be obtained each time a medication is changed
and a new drug is introduced. If patients are injured because
they were not properly informed of the risks and consequences
of taking a medication, sufficient grounds may exist for a malpractice
action. Finally, poor handwriting and the misreading of
the prescription by nurses or pharmacists is a major source of
error.

98
Q
The Gault decision applies to
A. minors
B. habeas corpus
C. informed consent
D. battery
E. none of the above
A

The answer is A
The Gault decision applies to minors, those under the care of a
parent or guardian and usually younger than 18 years of age. In
the case of minors, the parent or guardian is the person legally
empowered to give consent to medical treatment. However, most
states by statute list specific diseases or conditions that a minor
may consent to have treated, such as sexually transmitted infections,
pregnancy, substance-related disorders, and contagious diseases. In an emergency, a physician may treat a minor
without parental consent. The trend is to adopt the mature minor
rule, allowing minors to consent to treatment under ordinary
circumstances. As a result of the Gault decision, the juvenile
must now be represented by counsel, be able to confront
witnesses, and be given proper notice of any charges. Emancipated
minors have the rights of adults when it can be demonstrated
that they are living as adults with control over their own
lives.

99
Q

Situations in which there is an obligation on the part of
the physician to report to authorities information that may
be confidential include
A. suspected child abuse
B. the case of a patient who will probably commit murder
and can only be stopped by notification of police
C. the case of a patient who will probably commit suicide
and can only be stopped by notification of police
D. the case of a patient who has potentially lifethreatening
responsibilities (e.g., airline pilot) and
who shows marked impairment of judgment
E. all of the above

A

The answer is E (all)
In some situations—such as suspected child abuse—the physician
must report to the authorities, as specifically required by
law. According to the American Psychiatric Association, confidentiality
may be broken when the patient will probably commit
murder and the act can only be stopped by notification of police,
when the patient will probably commit suicide and the act can
only be stopped by notification of police, or when a patient who
has potentially life-threatening responsibilities (e.g., an airline
pilot) shows marked impairment of judgment.

100
Q
A. Irresistible impulse
B. M’Naghten rule
C. Model penal code
D. Durham rule
E. Diminished capacity

Known commonly as the right–wrong test

A

B

101
Q
A. Irresistible impulse
B. M’Naghten rule
C. Model penal code
D. Durham rule
E. Diminished capacity

A person charged with a criminal offense is not responsible
for an act if the act was committed under circumstances
that the person was unable to resist because of
mental disease

A

A

102
Q
A. Irresistible impulse
B. M’Naghten rule
C. Model penal code
D. Durham rule
E. Diminished capacity

An accused person is not criminally responsible if his
or her unlawful act was the product of mental disease or
mental defect

A

D
In 1954 in the case of Durham v United States, a decision
resulted in the product rule of criminal responsibility, or the
Durham rule, which states that an accused is not criminally
responsible if his or her unlawful act was the product of mental
disease or mental defect. Judge Bazelon stated that the purpose
of the rulewas to get good and complete psychiatric testimony

103
Q
A. Irresistible impulse
B. M’Naghten rule
C. Model penal code
D. Durham rule
E. Diminished capacity

As a result of mental disease or defect, the defendant
lacked substantial capacity either to appreciate the criminality
of his or her conduct or to conform the conduct to
the requirement of the law.

A

C

104
Q
A. Irresistible impulse
B. M’Naghten rule
C. Model penal code
D. Durham rule
E. Diminished capacity

The defendant experienced some impairment (usually but
not always because of mental illness) sufficient to interfere
with the ability to formulate a specific element of the
particular crime charged.

A

e

105
Q
A. Rouse v Cameron
B. Wyatt v Stickney
C. O’Connor v Donaldson
D. The Myth of Mental Illness
E. None of the above

Harmless mental patients cannot be confined against their
will.

A

C
In the 1976 case of O’Connor v Donaldson,
the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that harmless mental patients cannot
be confined against their will without treatment if they can
survive outside. According to the Court, a finding of mental illness
alone cannot justify a state’s confining persons in a hospital
against their will; such patients must be considered dangerous
to themselves or others before they are confined.

106
Q
A. Rouse v Cameron
B. Wyatt v Stickney
C. O’Connor v Donaldson
D. The Myth of Mental Illness
E. None of the above

Standards were established for staffing, nutrition, physical
facilities, and treatment.

A

B
In 1971, in Wyatt v Stickney in Alabama Federal District
Court, it was decided that persons civilly committed to a mental
institution have a constitutional right to receive adequate care,
and standards were established for staffing, nutrition, physical
facilities, and treatment.

107
Q
A. Rouse v Cameron
B. Wyatt v Stickney
C. O’Connor v Donaldson
D. The Myth of Mental Illness
E. None of the above
The purpose of involuntary hospitalization is treatment.
A

A
In 1966, the District of Columbia Court
of Appeals in Rouse v Cameron ruled that the purpose of involuntary
hospitalization is treatment and that a patient who is not
receiving treatment has a constitutional right to be discharged
from the hospital.

108
Q
A. Rouse v Cameron
B. Wyatt v Stickney
C. O’Connor v Donaldson
D. The Myth of Mental Illness
E. None of the above

A patient who is not receiving treatment has a constitutional
right to be discharged.

A

A

109
Q
A. Rouse v Cameron
B. Wyatt v Stickney
C. O’Connor v Donaldson
D. The Myth of Mental Illness
E. None of the above

All forced confinements because of mental illness are
unjust.

A

D
In The Myth of Mental Illness, Thomas Szasz argued that the
various psychiatric diagnoses are totally devoid of significance
and that therefore all forced confinements because of mental
illness are unjust. Szasz contended that psychiatrists have no
place in the courts of law.

110
Q

Results of the MacArthur Violence Risk Assessment study by Steadman

A

1136 d/c from AAMHIU in 3 NA cities
Interviewed every 10 weeks for 1 year
Those who did not use alcohol or drugs, were no more violent than controls
Subjects were more likely to use alcohol or drugs

111
Q

What factors increase the risk of violence in mental illness

A

Forensic hx:
Hx of previous violence

Dev hx:
adverse childhood experiences
behavioural problems

Social hx:
social instability, poor employment, disturbed relationships
substance use

personal hx:
self harm, impulsive behaiour
poor compliance/engagement with treatment

psych sx:
persecutory
command hallucinations
passivity
irritability
anger
hostility
suspiciousness
lack of insight
specific threats
identified precipitants/stressors
112
Q

Risk assessment instruments

A
VRAG
VRAM
HCR-20
Static 99- sexual recividism
Sexual offender risk apraisal guide
113
Q

Components of HCR 20

A
1. Historical 
previous violence
young age at first offence
relationship instability
employment problems
substance abuse
major mental illness
psychopathy
early maladjustment
personality disorder
prior supervision failure
2. Clinical
lack of insight
negative attitudes
active symptoms of mental illness
impulsivity
unresponsive to treatment
3. Risk management
Plans lack feasability
Exposure to de-stabilisers
Lack of personal support
Non-compliant with remediation attempts
Stress
114
Q

Ethical issues in report writing

A
  1. dual agency dilemma
  2. obtain informed consent
  3. confidentiality
  4. Duty to warn
  5. Respect autonomy
  6. Fitness to plead
115
Q

For fitness to plead

A

A defendant must understand:

  1. the charges
  2. distinguish between a plea of guilty and not guilty
  3. instruct counsel
  4. follow proceedings in court
  5. challenge a juror
116
Q

Components of program to address sexual reoffending

A
  1. Cognitive distortion
  2. Self esteem and assertiveness
  3. Sexuality/social skills training
  4. Role of fantasy
  5. Victim empathy
  6. Relapse prevention strategies