Anxiety disorders and anxiolytics Flashcards

1
Q

Brain circuits regulating fear

A

Amygdala-centred circuit
Overraction of Amygdala->OFC->ACC

Avoidance: regulated by PAG. Fight, flight, freeze

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Brain circuits regulating worry

A

Cortico-striato-thalamo-cortical circuit

Anxious misery, apprehensive expectation, obsessions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Endocrine output of fear

A

increased cortisol/CAD/T2DM/stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Autonomic output of fear

A

LC

increased atherosclerosis, cardiac ischemia, BP, HRV, MI, sudden death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Met variant of COMT, implications for cognitive function

A

More efficient information processing in DLPFC during cognitive tasks, lower COMT, higher DA in PFC, better information processing during tasks of executive function.

However under stress, ++DA, become “worriers”
Val carriers may handle stress better, lower DA, “warriors”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Neurotransmitters that regulate “worry” in CSTC circuit

A

5HT, GABA, DA, NE, Glutamate, voltage-gated ion channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Neurotransmitters associated with “fear”

A

Amygdala- 5HT, GABA, glutamate, CRF/HPA, NE, voltage gated ion channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

GABA receptors- which are ion, which are protein coupled

A

A and C are ion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which GABA receptor do benzodiazepines bind to

A

GABA-> benzo sensitive. Allosteric modulatory site

Action only mediated with concurrent binding of GABA
Positive allosteric modulator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Binding of gabapentin and pregabalin

A

a2delta voltage sensitive calcium channel- block release of excitatory neurotransmission when neurotransmission is excessive

Bind to open, overly active VSCCs in amygdala to reduce fear, and CSTC circuits to reduce worry.

Can be useful in those that do not respond to SSRI/SNRIs due to difference mechanism, and combination in partial responders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Proposed mechanism of anxiolytic action of buspirone

A

5HT1A partial agonism both at presynaptic and post-cynaptic, increasing serotonergic activity in projections to the amygdala, PFC, striatum, thalamus.

Delayed effect, likely in relation to adaptive neuronal events and receptor events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Mechanism of anxiolytic action for NRI

A

++NE at B1 and a1 can ++anxiety

NET/NRI likely to over time desensitise these receptors, actually reducing symptoms of fear and worry in the long term.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Mechanism of benzodiazepines to alleviate worry

A

GABAergic agent such as benzo’s may alleviate worry by enhancing the actions of inhibitory GABA interneurons within the PFC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Mechanism of agents that bind a2delta of presynaptic N and P/Q voltage sensitive calcium channels

A

Reduce the excessive release of glutamate in CSTC circuits, therefore reducing symptoms of worry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Mechanisms of serotonergic agents to reduce worry

A

PFC, striatum and thalamus receive input from serotonergic neurons, which can have an inhibitory effect on output. Thus serotonergic agents may alleviate worry by enhancing serotonin input within CSTC circuits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Process of fear conditioning

A

Amygdala remembers fearful events
Increasing efficiency at glutamertergic synapses in lateral aygdala as sensory input comes from thalamus or sensory cortex
Input relayed to central amygdala, where fear conditioning also improves efficiency of neurotransmission ar another glutamate synapse.
Both synapses are restructured and permanent learning is embedded into the circuit by NMDA triggering LTP and synaptic plasticity, subsequent input from sensory cortex and thalamus, very efficiently triggers fear from the amygdala.

If VMPFC unable to suppress the fear response at level of amygdala, fear conditioning.
Hippocampus remembers context of fear conditioniing and makes sure fear is triggered when fearful stimulus and all its associated stimuli are encountered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) differs from acute
stress disorder in that
A. acute stress disorder occurs earlier than PTSD
B. PTSD is associated with at least three dissociative
symptoms
C. reexperiencing the trauma is not found in acute stress
disorder
D. avoidance of stimuli associated with the trauma is
only found in PTSD
E. PTSD lasts less than 1 month after a trauma

A

The answer is A
Acute stress disorder is a disorder that is similar to posttraumatic
stress disorder (PTSD), but acute stress disorder occurs earlier
than PTSD (within 4 weeks of the traumatic event) and remits
within 2 days to 1 month after a trauma (not PTSD).
PTSD shows three domains of symptoms: reexperiencing the
trauma; avoiding stimuli associated with the trauma; and experiencing
symptoms of increased autonomic arousal, such as enhanced
startle. Flashbacks, in which the individual may act and
feel as if the trauma is recurring, represent a classic form of reexperiencing.
Other forms of reexperiencing symptoms include
distressing recollections or dreams and either physiological or
psychological stress reactions on exposure to stimuli that are
linked to the trauma. Symptoms of avoidance associated with
PTSD include efforts to avoid thoughts or activities related to
trauma, anhedonia, reduced capacity to remember events related
to trauma, blunted effect, feelings of detachment or derealization,
and a sense of a foreshortened future. Symptoms of increased
arousal include insomnia, irritability, hypervigilance, and exaggerated
startle. The diagnosis of PTSD is only made when
symptoms persist for at least 1 month; the diagnosis of acute
stress disorder is made in the interim.
Acute stress disorder is characterized by reexperiencing,
avoidance, and increased arousal, similar to PTSD. Acute stress
disorder (not PTSD) is also associated with at least three dissociative
symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
The risk of developing anxiety disorders is enhanced by
A. eating disorders
B. depression
C. substance abuse
D. allergies
E. all of the above
A

The answer is E (all)
Disorders that may enhance the risk for the development of anxiety
disorders include eating disorders, depression, and substance
use and abuse. In contrast, anxiety disorders have been shown
to elevate the risk of subsequent substance use disorders and
may comprise a mediator of the link between depression and the
subsequent development of substance use disorders in a clinical
sample.
Several studies have also suggested that there is an association
between anxiety disorders and allergies, high fever, immunological
diseases and infections, epilepsy, and connective
tissue diseases. Likewise, prospective studies have revealed that
the anxiety disorders may comprise risk factors for the development
of some cardiovascular and neurological diseases, such as
ischemic heart disease and migraine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
Which of the following is not a sign of poor prognosis in
obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?
A. Childhood onset
B. Coexisting major depression
C. Good social adjustment
D. Bizarre compulsions
E. Delusional beliefs
A

The answer is C
Agood prognosis for people with obsessive-compulsive disorder
(OCD) is indicated by good social and occupational adjustment,
the presence of a precipitating event, and an episodic nature of
symptoms. About one-third of patients with OCD have major
depressive disorder, and suicide is a risk for all patients with
OCD. A poor prognosis is indicated by yielding to (rather than
resisting) compulsions, childhood onset, bizarre compulsions,
the need for hospitalization, a coexisting major depressive disorder,
delusional beliefs, the presence of overvalued ideas (i.e.,
some acceptance of obsessions and compulsions), and the presence
of a personality disorder (especially schizotypal personality disorder). The obsessional content does not seem to be related
to the prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following statements regarding anxiety and
gender differences is true?
A. Women have greater rates of almost all anxiety disorders.
B. Gender ratios are nearly equal with OCD.
C. No significant difference exists in average age of
anxiety onset.
D. Women have a twofold greater lifetime rate of agoraphobia
than men.
E. All of the above

A

The answer is E (all)
The results of community studies reveal that women have greater
rates of almost all of the anxiety disorders. Despite differences
in the magnitude of the rates of specific anxiety disorders across
studies, the gender ratio is strikingly similar. Women have an
approximately twofold elevation in lifetime rates of panic, generalized
anxiety disorder, agoraphobia, and simple phobia compared
with men in nearly all of the studies. The only exception
is the nearly equal gender ratio in the rates of OCD and social
phobia.
Studies of youth report similar differences in the magnitude
of anxiety disorders among girls and boys. Similar to the gender
ratio for adults, girls tend to have more of all subtypes of anxiety
disorders irrespective of the age composition of the sample.
However, it has also been reported that despite the greater rates of
anxiety in girls across all ages, there is no significant difference
between boys and girls in the average age at onset of anxiety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following epidemiological statements is
true regarding anxiety disorders?
A. Panic disorder has the lowest heritability.
B. The mean age of onset is higher in girls.
C. The age of onset is earlier than that of mood disorders.
D. Rates in males peak in the fourth and fifth decades of
life.
E. All of the above

A

The answer is C
Anxiety disorders have been shown to have the earliest age of
onset of all major classes of mental and behavioral disorders
with a median onset by the age of 12 years. This is far earlier
than the onset of mood disorders or substance use disorders and
comparable to that of impulse control disorders. Women have
greater rates of anxiety disorders than men. This difference in
gender rates can be seen as early as 6 years of age. Despite the
far more rapid increase in anxiety disorders with age in girls than
in boys, there are no gender differences in the mean age at onset
of anxiety disorders (not higher in girls) or in their duration.
Female preponderance of anxiety disorders is present across all
stages of life but is most pronounced throughout early and midadulthood.
The rates of anxiety disorders in men are also rather
constant throughout adult life, but the rates in women peak in
the fourth and fifth decades of life and decrease thereafter.
Studies show a three- to fivefold increased risk of anxiety
disorders among first-degree relatives of persons with anxiety
disorders. Twin studies reveal that panic disorder has the highest
heritability and has been shown to have the strongest degree of
familial aggregation, with an almost sevenfold elevation in risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Sigmund Freud postulated that the defense mechanisms
necessary in phobias are
A. regression, condensation, and dissociation
B. regression, condensation, and projection
C. regression, repression, and isolation
D. repression, displacement, and avoidance
E. repression, projection, and displacement

A

The answer is D
Sigmund Freud viewed phobias as resulting from conflicts centered
on an unresolved childhood oedipal situation. In adults,
because the sexual drive continues to have a strong incestuous
coloring, its arousal tends to create anxiety that is characteristically
a fear of castration. The anxiety then alerts the ego to exert
repression to keep the drive away from conscious representation
and discharge. Because repression is not entirely successful in
its function, the ego must call on auxiliary defenses. In phobic
patients, the defenses, arising genetically from an earlier phobic
response during the initial childhood period of the oedipal
conflict, involves primarily the use of displacement—that is, the
sexual conflict is transposed or displaced from the person who
evoked the conflict to a seemingly unimportant, irrelevant object or situation, which has the power to elicit anxiety. The phobic object
or situation selected has a direct associative connection with
the primary source of the conflict and has thus come naturally
to symbolize it. Furthermore, the situation or object is usually
such that the patient is able to keep out of its way and by the
additional defense mechanism of avoidance to escape suffering
from serious anxiety.
Regression is an unconscious defense mechanism in which
a person undergoes a partial or total return to early patterns of
adaptation. Condensation is a mental process in which one symbol
stands for a number of components. Projection is an unconscious
defense mechanism in which persons attribute to another
person generally unconscious ideas, thoughts, feelings, and impulses
that are undesirable or unacceptable in themselves. In
psychoanalysis, isolation is a defense mechanism involving the
separation of an idea or memory from its attached feeling tone.
Dissociation is an unconscious defense mechanism involving the
segregation of any group of mental or behavioral processes from
the rest of the person’s psychic activity. Table 16.1 describes
a more current view of seven of the psychodynamic themes in
phobias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Anxiety disorders
A. are greater among people at lower socioeconomic
levels
B. are highest among those with higher levels of education
C. are lowest among homemakers
D. have shown different prevalences with regard to social
class but not ethnicity
E. all of the above

A

The answer is A
Community studies have consistently found that rates of anxiety
disorders in general are greater among those at lower levels
of socioeconomic status and education level. Anxiety disorders
are negatively associated with income and education levels. For
example, there is almost a twofold difference between rates of
anxiety disorders in individuals in the highest income bracket and
those in the lowest and between those who completed more than
16 years of school and those who completed less than 11 years of
school. In addition, certain anxiety disorders seem to be elevated
in specific occupations. Anxiety disorders are higher in homemakers
and those who are unemployed or have a disability. Several
community studies have also yielded greater rates of anxiety
disorders, particularly phobic disorders, among African Americans.
The reasons for ethnic and social class differences have not
yet been evaluated systematically; however, both methodological
factors and differences in exposure to stressors have been
advanced as possible explanations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Generalized anxiety disorder
A. is least likely to coexist with another mental disorder
B. has a female-to-male ratio of 1:2
C. is a mild condition
D. has about a 50 percent chance of a recurrence after
recovery
E. has a low prevalence in primary care settings

A

The answer is D
Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is a chronic (not mild) condition,
and nearly half of patients who eventually recover experience
a later recurrence. GAD is characterized by frequent, persistentworry
and anxiety that is disproportionate to the impact of
the events or circumstances on which theworry focuses. The distinction
between GAD and normal anxiety is emphasized by the
use of the words “excessive” and “difficult to control” in the criteria
and by the specification that the symptoms cause significant
impairment or distress. The anxiety and worry are accompanied
by a number of physiological symptoms, including motor tension
(i.e., shakiness, restlessness, headache), autonomic hyperactivity
(i.e., shortness of breath, excessive sweating, palpitations),
and cognitive vigilance (i.e., irritability). The ratio of women to
men with the disorder is about 2:1 (not 1:2). The disorder usually
has its onset in late adolescence or early adulthood, although
cases are commonly seen in older adults. Also, some evidence
suggests that the prevalence is particularly high (not low) in primary
care settings. This is because patients with GAD usually
seek out a general practitioner or internist for help with a somatic
symptom. GAD is probably the disorder that most (not least) often
coexist with another mental disorder, usually social phobia,
specific phobia, panic disorder, or a depressive disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
Physiological activity associated with PTSD include all
except
A. decreased parasympathetic tone
B. elevated baseline heart rate
C. excessive sweating
D. increased circulating thyroxine
E. increased blood pressure
A

The answer is D
According to current conceptualizations, PTSD is associated
with objective measures of physiological arousal. This includes
elevated baselines heart rate, increased blood pressure, and excessive
sweating. Furthermore, evidence from studies of baseline
cardiovascular activity revealed a positive association between
heart rate and PTSD.
The finding of elevated baseline heart rate activity is consistent
with the hypothesis of tonic sympathetic nervous system
arousal in PTSD. Disturbance in autonomic nervous system activity
in individuals with PTSD is characterized by increased
sympathetic and decreased parasympathetic tone. Preliminary
evidence suggests that this autonomic imbalance can be normalized
with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor treatment. There
is no change in blood level of thyroxine in those with PTSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
Unexpected panic attacks are required for the diagnosis
of
A. generalized anxiety disorder
B. panic disorder
C. social phobia
D. specific phobia
E. all of the above
A

The answer is B
Unexpected panic attacks are required for the diagnosis of panic
disorder, but panic attacks can occur in several anxiety disorders.
The clinician must consider the context of the panic attack
when making a diagnosis. Panic attacks can be divided into two
types: (1) unexpected panic attacks, which are not associated
with a situational trigger, and (2) situationally bound panic attacks,
which occur immediately after exposure in a situational
trigger or in anticipation of the situational trigger. Situationally
bound panic attacks are most characteristic of social phobia and
specific phobia. In generalized anxiety disorder, the anxiety cannot
be about having a panic attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Isolated panic attacks without functional disturbances
A. usually involves anticipatory anxiety or are phobic
B. are part of the criteria for diagnostic panic disorder
C. occur in less than 2 percent of the population
D. rarely involve avoidance
E. none of the above

A

Some differences between the DSM-IV-TR and earlier versions
in the diagnostic criteria of panic disorder are interesting. For example,
no longer is a specific number of panic attacks necessary in a specific period of time to meet criteria for panic disorder.
Rather, the attacks must be recurrent, and at least one attack
must be followed by at least 1 month of anticipatory anxiety or
phobic avoidance. This recognizes for the first time that although
the panic attack is obviously the seminal event for diagnosing
panic disorder, the syndrome involves a number of disturbances
that go beyond the attack itself. Isolated panic attacks without
functional disturbances are not diagnosed as panic disorder.
Furthermore, isolated panic attacks without functional disturbance
are common, occurring in approximately 15 percent of
the population.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which of the following is not a component of the DSMIV-
TR diagnostic criteria for OCD?
A. Children need not recognize that their obsessions are
unreasonable.
B. Obsessions are acknowledged as excessive or unreasonable.
C. Obsessions or compulsions are time consuming and
take more than 1 hour a day.
D. The person recognized the obsessional thoughts as a
product of outside him- or herself.
E. The person attempts to ignore or suppress compulsive
thoughts or impulses.

A

d
the obsessions must be acknowledged as excessive or unreasonable
(with the exception that children need not acknowledge this fact),
there must be attempts to suppress these intrusive thoughts, and
the obsessions or compulsions are time consuming to the point of
requiring at least 1 hour a day, among other diagnostic criteria.
As part of the criteria, however, is not that the thoughts are a
product of outside the person, as in thought insertion, but that
the person recognizes that the thoughts are a product of his or
her own mind.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

All of the following are true for the course of panic disorder
except
A. patients become concerned after the first one or two
panic attacks
B. excessive caffeine intake can exacerbate symptoms
C. comorbid depression increases risk for committing
suicide
D. the overall course is variable
E. patients without comorbid agoraphobia have a higher
recovery rate

A

The answer is A
After the first one or two panic attacks, patients may be relatively
unconcerned about their condition.With repeated attacks, however,
the symptoms may become a major concern. Patients may
attempt to keep the panic attacks secret and thereby cause their
families and friends concern about unexplained changes in behavior.
Panic disorder, in general, is a chronic disorder, although
its course is variable, both among patients and within a single
patient. The frequency and severity of the attacks can fluctuate.
Panic attacks can occur several times a day or less than once a
month. Excessive intake of caffeine or nicotine can exacerbate
the symptoms. Depression can complicate the symptom picture
in anywhere from 40 to 80 percent of all patients. Although the
patients do not tend to talk about suicidal ideation, they are at
increased risk for committing suicide. Recovery rates appear
to be higher in patients without comorbid agoraphobia than in
those who meet criteria for both conditions. Family interactions
and performance in school and at work commonly suffer. Patients
with good premorbid functioning and symptoms of brief
duration tend to have a good prognosis

30
Q
Tourette’s disorder has been shown to possibly have a
familial and genetic relationship with
A. generalized anxiety disorder
B. obsessive-compulsive disorder
C. panic disorder
D. social phobia
E. none of the above
A

The answer is B
An interesting set of findings concerns the possible relationship
between a subset of cases of OCD and certain types of motor tic syndromes (i.e., Tourette’s disorder and chronic motor tics). Increased
rates of OCD, Tourette’s disorder, and chronic motor tics
were found in the relatives of Tourette’s disorder patients compared
with relatives of control subjects whether or not the patient
had OCD. However, most family studies of probands with OCD
have found elevated rates of Tourette’s disorder and chronic motor
tics only among the relatives of probands with OCD who also
have some form of tic disorder.Taken together, these data suggest
that there is a familial and perhaps genetic relationship between
Tourette’s disorder and chronic motor tics and some cases of
OCD. Cases of the latter in which the individual also manifests
tics are the most likely to be related to Tourette’s disorder and
chronic motor tics. Because there is considerable evidence of
a genetic contribution to Tourette’s disorder, this finding also
supports a genetic role in a subset of cases of OCDs

31
Q

All of the following have been noted through brain imaging
in patients with panic disorder except
A. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) studies have
shown pathological involvement of both temporal
lobes
B. generalized cerebral vasoconstriction
C. right temporal cortical atrophy
D. increased blood flow to the basal ganglia
E. positron emission tomography scans have implicated
dysregulation of blood flow in panic disorder

A

The answer is D
Structural brain imaging studies, such as magnetic resonance
imaging (MRI), in patients with panic disorder have implicated
pathological involvement in the temporal lobes, particularly the
hippocampus. One MRI study reported abnormalities, especially
cortical atrophy, in the right temporal lobes of these patients.
Functional brain imaging studies, such as positron emission
tomography (PET), have implicated dysregulation of cerebral
blood flow. Specifically, anxiety disorders and panic attacks are
associated with cerebral vasoconstriction, which may result in
central nervous system symptoms such as dizziness and in peripheral
nervous system symptoms that may be induced by hyperventilation
and hypocapnia. Increased blood flow to the basal
ganglia has not been noted in patients with panic disorder

32
Q

A patient with OCD might exhibit all of the following
brain imaging findings except
A. longer mean T1 relaxation times in the frontal cortex
than normal control subjects
B. significantly more gray matter and less white matter
than normal control subjects
C. abnormalities in the frontal lobes, cingulum, and
basal ganglia
D. decreased caudate volumes bilaterally compared with
normal control subjects
E. lower metabolic rates in basal ganglia and white
matter than in normal control subjects

A

The answer is E
Brain imaging studies of patients with OCD using PET scans
have found abnormalities in frontal lobes, cingulum, and basal
ganglia. PET scans have shown higher (not lower) levels of
metabolism and blood flows to those areas in OCD patients than
in control subjects.Volumetric computed tomography scans have
shown decreased caudate volumes bilaterally in OCD patients
compared with normal control subjects. Morphometric MRI has
revealed that OCD patients have significantly more gray matter
and less white matter than normal control subjects. MRI has also
shown longer mean T1 relaxation times in the frontal cortex in
OCD patients than is seen in normal control subjects

33
Q

Buspirone (Buspar) acts as a
A. dopamine partial agonist useful in the treatment of
OCD
B. serotonin partial agonist useful in the treatment of
OCD
C. dopamine partial agonist useful in the treatment of
generalized anxiety disorder
D. serotonin partial agonist useful in treatment of generalized
anxiety disorder
E. none of the above

A

The answer is D
Buspirone (Buspar) is a serotonin receptor partial agonist and
is most likely effective in 60 to 80 percent of patients with generalized
anxiety disorder (GAD). Data indicate that buspirone
is more effective in reducing the cognitive symptoms of GAD
than in reducing the somatic symptoms. The major disadvantage
of buspirone is that its effects take 2 to 3 weeks to become evident
in contrast to the almost immediate anxiolytic effects of the
benzodiazepines.

34
Q

Which of the following choices most accurately describes
the role of serotonin in OCD?
A. Serotonergic drugs are an ineffective treatment.
B. Dysregulation of serotonin is involved in the symptom
formation.
C. Measures of platelet binding sites of titrated
imipramine are abnormally low.
D. Measures of serotonin metabolites in cerebrospinal
fluid are abnormally high.
E. None of the above

A

The answer is B
Clinical trials of drugs have supported the hypothesis that dysregulation
of serotonin is involved in the symptom formation of obsessions and compulsions. Data show that serotonergic drugs
are an effective treatment, but it is unclear whether serotonin is
involved in the cause of OCD.
Clinical studies have shown that measures of platelet binding
sites of imipramine and of serotonin metabolites in cerebrospinal
fluid are variable, neither consistently abnormally low nor abnormally
high.

35
Q

Which of the following medical disorders are not associated
with panic disorder due to a general medical
condition?
A. Cardiomyopathy
B. Parkinson’s disease
C. Epilepsy
D. Sj¨ogren’s syndrome
E. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

A

The answer is D
A high prevalence of generalized anxiety disorder (not panic
disorder) symptoms has been reported in patients with Sj¨ogren’s
syndrome. Sj¨ogren’s syndrome is a chronic autoimmune disease
in which a person’s white blood cells attack their moistureproducing
glands. The hallmark symptoms are dry eyes and
dry mouth; however, it may also cause dysfunction of other
organs.
The symptoms of anxiety disorder caused by a general medical
condition can be identical to those of the primary anxiety
disorders. A syndrome similar to panic disorder is the most common
clinical picture. Patients who have cardiomyopathy may
have the highest incidence of panic disorder secondary to a general
medical condition. Cardiomyopathy is a disease of the heart
muscle (myocardium). One study reported that 83 percent of patients
with cardiomyopathy awaiting cardiac transplantation had
panic disorder symptoms. Increased noradrenergic tone in these
patients may be the provoking stimulus for the panic attacks.
In some studies, about 25 percent of patients with Parkinson’s
disease and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease have symptoms
of panic disorder. Other medical disorders associated with
panic disorder include chronic pain; primary biliary cirrhosis (an
autoimmune disease of the liver); and epilepsy (a chronic disorder
characterized by paroxysmal brain dysfunction caused by
excessive neuronal discharge), particularly when focus is in the
right parahippocampal gyrus.

36
Q

Which of the following disorders is rarely confused
with anxiety that stems primarily from medical disorders?
A. Panic disorder
B. Specific phobia
C. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
D. Posttraumatic stress disorder
E. Generalized anxiety disorder

A

The answer is B
Specific phobia is usually easily distinguished from anxiety stemming
from primary medical problems by the focused nature of
the anxiety. Such specificity is not typical of anxiety disorders
related to medical problems.
Panic disorder with or without agoraphobia must be differentiated
from a number of medical conditions that produce
similar symptomatology. Panic attacks are associated with a variety
of endocrinologic disorders, including hypo- and hyperthyroid
states, hyperparathyroidism, and pheochromocytomas.
Episodic hypoglycemia associated with insulinomas can also
produce panic-like states, as can primary neuropathologic processes.
These include seizure disorders, vestibular dysfunction,
neoplasms, and the effects of both prescribed and illicit substances
on the central nervous system. Finally, disorders of the
cardiac and pulmonary systems, including arrhythmias, chronic
obstructive disease, and asthma, can produce autonomic symptoms
and accompanying crescendo anxiety that can be difficult
to distinguish from panic disorder.
A number of primary medical disorders can produce syndromes
that bear a striking resemblance to obsessive-compulsive
disorder (OCD). In fact, the current conceptualization of OCD as a disorder of the basal ganglia derives from the phenomenological
similarity between idiopathic OCD and OCD-like disorders
that are associated with basal ganglia diseases, such as
Sydenham’s chorea and Huntington’s disease. It should be noted
thatOCDfrequently develops before age 30 years, and new-onset
OCDin an older individual should raise questions about potential
neurological contributions to the disorder. Also, among children
with pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorder associated
with streptococcus (PANDAS), the syndrome appears to emerge
relatively acutely, in contrast to the more insidious onset of childhoodOCDin
the absence of infection. Hence, children with acute
presentations, the role of such an infectious process should be
considered.
It is particularly important to recognize potentially treatable
contributors to posttraumatic symptomatology in the differential
for posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). For example, neurological
injury after head trauma can contribute to the clinical
picture, as can psychoactive substance use disorders or withdrawal
syndromes, either in the period immediately surrounding
the trauma or many weeks after the trauma. Medical contributors
can usually be detected through careful history and physical
examination.
Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) must be differentiated
from both medical and other psychiatric disorders. Similar
neurological, endocrinologic, metabolic, and medication-related
disorders to those considered in the differential diagnosis of panic
disorder are relevant to the differential diagnosis of GAD.

37
Q
Induction of panic attacks in patients with panic disorder
can occur with
A. carbon dioxide
B. cholecystokinin
C. doxapram
D. yohimbine
E. all of the above
A

The answer is E (all)
Since the original finding that sodium lactate infusion can induce
panic attacks in patients with panic disorder, many substances
have shown similar panicogenic properties, including the noradrenergic
stimulant yohimbine (Yocon), carbon dioxide, the
respiratory stimulant doxapram (Dopram), and cholecystokinin.
Disordered serotonergic, noradrenergic, and respiratory systems
are doubtless implicated in panic disorder, and the condition appears
to be caused both by a genetic predisposition and some
type of traumatic distress. More recently, neuroimaging studies
revealed that patients with panic disorder have abnormally
brisk cerebrovascular responses to stress, showing greater vasoconstriction
during hypocapnic respiration than normal control
subjects.

38
Q

First-line medication treatments of anxiety disorders may
generally include all of the following except
A. diazepam (Valium)
B. fluoxetine (Prozac)
C. fluvoxamine (Luvox)
D. nefazodone (Serzone)
E. venlafaxine (Effexor)

A

The answer is A
Antidepressant medication is increasingly seen as the medication
treatment of choice for the anxiety disorders. More specifically,
drugs with primary effects on the serotonin neurotransmission
system have become first-line recommendations for
panic disorder, social phobia, OCD, and PTSD. Evidence now
exists that such medications are also effective for generalized
anxiety disorder. Although they typically take longer to work
than benzodiazepines, the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
(SSRIs) such as fluoxetine (Prozac), sertraline (Zoloft), paroxetine
(Paxil), fluvoxamine (Luvox), and citalopram (Celexa), as
well as venlafaxine (Effexor) and nefazodone (Serzone), are
probably more effective than benzodiazepines and easier to discontinue.
Increasingly, benzodiazepines such as diazepam (Valium)
are used only for the temporary relief of extreme anxiety as clinician and patient wait for the effects of antidepressants
to take hold. Longer-term administration of benzodiazepines is
reserved for patients who do not respond to or cannot tolerate
antidepressants

39
Q
Therapy for phobias may include all of the following
except
A. counterphobic attitudes
B. flooding
C. phenelzine (Nardil)
D. propranolol (Inderal)
E. systematic desensitization
A

The answer is A
A counterphobic attitude is not a therapy for phobias, although it
may lead to counterphobic behavior. Many activities may mask
phobic anxiety, which can be hidden behind attitudes and behavior
patterns that represent a denial, either that the dreaded
object or situation is dangerous or that one is afraid of it. Basic
to this phenomenon is a reversal of the situation in which one
is the passive victim of external circumstances to a position of
attempting actively to confront and master what one fears. The
counterphobic person seeks out situations of danger and rushes
enthusiastically toward them. The devotee of dangerous sports,
such as parachute jumping, rock climbing, bungee jumping, and
parasailing, may be exhibiting counterphobic behavior.
Both behavioral and pharmacological techniques have been
used in treating phobias. The most common behavioral technique
is systematic desensitization, in which the patient is exposed serially
to a predetermined list of anxiety-provoking stimuli graded
in a hierarchy from least to most frightening. Patients are taught
to self-induce a state of relaxation in the face of each anxietyprovoking
stimulus. In flooding, patients are exposed to the phobic
stimulus (actually [in vivo] or through imagery) for as long
as they can tolerate the fear until they reach a point at which
they can no longer feel it. The social phobia of stage fright in
performers has been effectively treated with such β-adrenergic
antagonists as propranolol (Inderal), which blocks the physiological
signs of anxiety (e.g., tachycardia). Phenelzine (Nardil),
a monoamine oxidase inhibitor, is also useful in treating social
phobia.

40
Q

Mr. A was a successful businessman who presented for
treatment after a change in his business schedule. Although
he had formerly worked largely from an office
near his home, a promotion led to a schedule of frequent
out-of-town meetings requiring weekly flights. Mr. A reported
being “deathly afraid” of flying. Even the thought
of getting on an airplane led to thoughts of impending
doom in which he envisioned his airplane crashing to the
ground. These thoughts were associated with intense fear,
palpitations, sweating, clamminess, and stomach upset.
Although the thought of flying was terrifying enough,
Mr. A became nearly incapacitated when he went to the
airport. Immediately before boarding, Mr. A would often have to turn back from the plane, running to the bathroom
to vomit. Which of the following is the most appropriate
treatment for this patient who has another flight scheduled
tomorrow?
A. β-agonists
B. Exposure therapy
C. Lorazepam
D. Paroxetine
E. None of the above

A

The answer is C
Patients with specific phobias are often treated with as-needed
benzodiazepines, such as lorazepam (Ativan). In the clinical case
described, this is the most appropriate choice of treatment given
their high safety margin (e.g., in overdose) and their overall excellent
efficacy and rapid onset of action. β-adrenergic receptor
antagonists (not agonists) may be useful in the treatment of specific
phobia, especially when the phobia is associated with panic
attacks. The most commonly used treatment for specific phobia
is exposure therapy. In this method, therapists desensitize
patients by using a series of gradual, self-paced exposures to
the phobic stimulus; thus, this method would not be appropriate
when immediate relief is required. Paroxetine, an SSRI, is not
indicated for the immediate treatment of phobias

41
Q

Ms. K was referred for psychiatric evaluation by her general
practitioner. On interview, Ms. K described a long
history of checking rituals that had caused her to lose
several jobs and had damaged numerous relationships.
She reported, for example, that because she often had the
thought that she had not locked the door to her car, it was
difficult for her to leave the car until she had checked
repeatedly that it was secure. She had broken several car
door handles with the vigor of her checking and had been
up to an hour late to work because she spent so much
time checking her car door. Similarly, she had recurrent
thoughts that she had left the door to her apartment unlocked,
and she returned several times daily to check the
door before she left for work. She reported that checking
doors decreased her anxiety about security. Although
Ms.Kreported that she had occasionally tried to leave her
car or apartment without checking the door (e.g., when
shewas already late forwork), she found that she became
so worried about her car being stolen or her apartment
being broken into that she had difficulty going anywhere.
Ms. K reported that her obsessions about security had become
so extreme over the past 3 months that she had lost
her job because of recurrent tardiness. She recognized
the irrational nature of her obsessive concerns but could
not bring herself to ignore them.
Which of the following symptom patterns of OCD
does Mrs. K present?
A. Intrusive thoughts
B. Symmetry
C. Pathological doubt
D. Contamination
E. None of the above

A

The answer is C
The symptoms of an individual patient withOCDcan overlap and
change with time, butOCDhas four major symptoms patterns. In
this case, Mrs. K presents the symptom pattern of pathological
doubt followed by a compulsion of checking. It is the second
most common symptom pattern. The obsession often implies
some danger of violence, in this case forgetting to lock the car
door or the door to the apartment. The checking may involve
multiple trips back into the house to check the stove, for example For Mrs. K, checking involves trips back to her car and her
apartment to make sure both are secure, thereby making her
constantly late for work. The patients have an obsessional selfdoubt
and always feel guilty about having forgotten or committed
something.
The most common symptom pattern in OCD is an obsession
of contamination followed by washing or accompanied by compulsive
avoidance of the presumably contaminated object. The
feared object is often hard to avoid (e.g., feces, urine, dust, or
germs). Patients with contamination obsessions usually believe
that the contamination is spread from object to object or person
to person by the slightest contact.
In the third most common pattern, there are intrusive obsessional
thoughts without a compulsion. Such obsessions are
usually repetitious thoughts without a compulsion. Such obsessions
are usually repetitious thoughts of a sexual or aggressive
act that are reprehensible to the patient. Patients obsessed with
thoughts or aggressive or sexual acts may report themselves to
the police or confess to a priest.
The fourth most common pattern is the need for symmetry or
precision, which can lead to a compulsion of slowness. Patients
can literally take hours to eat a meal or shave their faces

42
Q

A23-year-oldwoman presents to clinic with a chief complaint
of “difficulty concentrating because I worry about
my child.” She had recently gone back to teaching after
having her third child. The patient states she is constantly
wondering about other things as well. For example, she
is going to help her sister-in-law throw a goodbye party
and finds herself constantly going over what she needs
to do to prepare for the party. At the end of the day, her
husband claims she is irritable and tired. At night, she is
unable to sleep and keeps thinking about her tasks for the
next day. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Avoidant personality disorder
B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder C. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
D. Generalized anxiety disorder
E. None of the above

A

The answer is D
Excessive and uncontrollable worry characterized by irritability,
insomnia, and fatigue is the most likely attributable to generalized
anxiety disorder. The patient’s worries typically include
various aspects of the patient’s life and cause functional impairment.
These symptoms must persist for at least 6 months. Patients
with avoidant personality disorder have a long-standing pattern
of avoiding activities because they fear judgment and feel inadequate.
These symptoms are part of a lifelong pattern rather
than new onset. Obsessive-compulsive disorder involves intrusive
thoughts that result in compulsive activity to relieve anxiety.
These patients’ symptoms are ego dystonic in that they are able
to recognize their problematic compulsions and obsessions. Patients
with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder often seek
perfection and organization to a degree that it causes functional
impairment. Their symptoms are ego syntonic in that they do not
recognize the unreasonable nature of their behaviors.

43
Q

A. Social phobia
B. Agoraphobia

Symptoms include blushing and muscle twitching

A

a

44
Q

A. Social phobia
B. Agoraphobia

Is associated with a sense of suffocation

A

b
Whereas patients with agoraphobia are often comforted by the
presence of another person in an anxiety-provoking situation, patients
with social phobia are made more anxious than before by
the presence of other persons. Breathlessness, dizziness, a sense
of suffocation, and fear of dying are common with panic disorder
and agoraphobia; however, the symptoms associated with social
phobia usually involve blushing, muscle twitching, and anxiety
about scrutiny. Most cases of agoraphobia are thought to be
caused by panic disorder. When the panic disorder is treated, the
agoraphobia often improves with time. Agoraphobia without a
history of panic disorder is often incapacitating and chronic, and
depressive disorders and alcohol dependence often complicate
its course

45
Q

A. Social phobia
B. Agoraphobia

Is chronic without a history of panic disorder

A

a
Social phobia is the excessive fear of humiliation or embarrassment
in various social setting, such as speaking in public, urinating
in a public rest room (also called shy bladder), or speaking
to a date. It can sometimes be difficult to differentiate from agoraphobia,
which is the fear of or anxiety regarding places from
which escape may be difficult. Both disorders can be associated with panic attacks, agoraphobia more so than social phobia.

46
Q

A. Social phobia
B. Agoraphobia

May be associated with panic attacks

A

both

47
Q

A. Social phobia
B. Agoraphobia

Patients are comforted by the presence of another
person

A

b

48
Q

A. Generalized anxiety disorder
B. Panic disorder

Response rates between 60 and 80 percent have been
reported to buspirone

A

a

49
Q

A. Generalized anxiety disorder
B. Panic disorder

Patients with the disorder may still be responsive to buspirone
after being exposed to benzodiazepine

A

a

50
Q

A. Generalized anxiety disorder
B. Panic disorder

Buspirone’s use is limited to potentiating the effects of
other antidepressants and counteracting the adverse sexual
effects of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

A

neither
Buspirone was promoted as a less sedating alternative to benzodiazepines
in the treatment of panic disorder. Buspirone has
lower potential for abuse and dependence than benzodiazepines
and produces relatively few adverse effects and no withdrawal
syndrome. Buspirone does not alter cognitive or psychomotor
function, does not interact with alcohol, and is not a muscle relaxant
or an anticonvulsant. However, the efficacy of buspirone in
patients with panic disorder is disappointing, and with its further
drawback of delayed onset of action and the need for multiple
dosings, its use is limited to potentiating the efficacy of other
antidepressants and counteracting the adverse sexual effects of
SSRIs.

51
Q

A. Generalized anxiety disorder
B. Panic disorder

Relapse rates are generally high after discontinuation of
medication

A

both
Although the short-term efficacy of antipanic medications has
been established, the question of howlong to treat a panic patient
who responds to treatment remains open. The results of followup
studies are mixed. Several reports indicate that most panic
patients relapse within 2 months to 2 years after the medication is
discontinued. Following medication discontinuation, only about
30 to 45 percent of the patients remain well, and even remitted
patients rarely revert back to significant phobic avoidance or serious
vocational or social disability. Improvement may continue
for years after a single course of medication treatment. Given
the uncertainty about the optimal duration of treatment, the current
recommendation is to continue full-dosage medication for
panic-free patients for at least 1 year. Medication taper should be
slow, with careful monitoring of symptoms. Distinction should
be made among return symptoms, withdrawal, and rebound
anxiety.

52
Q

A. Generalized anxiety disorder
B. Panic disorder

Tricyclic drugs have been reported to worsen anxiety
symptoms in patients in whom the first symptoms were
precipitated by cocaine

A

b

53
Q

A. Cognitive behavioral therapy
B. Psychodynamic therapy

Produces 80 to 90 percent panic-free status in panic disorder
within at least 6 months of treatment

A

a
Some studies have shown that cognitive-behavioral treatment
of panic disorder, or panic control therapy, produces 80 to
90 percent panic-free status within at least 6 months of treatment.
Two-year follow-up indicates that more than 50 percent of
patients who originally responded to panic control therapy have
occasional panic attacks, and more 25 percent seek additional
treatment. Nonetheless, these treatment responders do tend to
have a significant decline in panic-related symptoms and most
maintain many of their treatment gains

54
Q

A. Cognitive behavioral therapy
B. Psychodynamic therapy

May be nearly twice as effective in the treatment of social
phobia as a more educational-supportive approach

A

a

55
Q

A. Cognitive behavioral therapy
B. Psychodynamic therapy

Goals are more ambitious and require more time to
achieve

A

b

56
Q

A. Cognitive behavioral therapy
B. Psychodynamic therapy

Combining treatment with medication may be superior
to either treatment alone

A

both

57
Q
A. Panic disorder
B. Generalized social phobia
C. Posttraumatic stress disorder
D. Generalized anxiety disorder
E. Acute stress disorder

Is associated with depersonalization

A

e

58
Q
A. Panic disorder
B. Generalized social phobia
C. Posttraumatic stress disorder
D. Generalized anxiety disorder
E. Acute stress disorder

Must include at least two spontaneous panic attacks

A

a

59
Q
A. Panic disorder
B. Generalized social phobia
C. Posttraumatic stress disorder
D. Generalized anxiety disorder
E. Acute stress disorder

Symptoms must persist at least 1 month after the trauma

A

c

60
Q
A. Panic disorder
B. Generalized social phobia
C. Posttraumatic stress disorder
D. Generalized anxiety disorder
E. Acute stress disorder

Must include three somatic or cognitive symptoms associated
with worry

A

d

61
Q
A. Panic disorder
B. Generalized social phobia
C. Posttraumatic stress disorder
D. Generalized anxiety disorder
E. Acute stress disorder

Difficult to distinguish from avoidant personality disorder

A

b

62
Q

A. Imaginal exposure
B. Interoceptive exposure
C. In vivo exposure
D. Systematic desensitization

A patient is presented with photographs of snakes while
practicing various relaxation techniques to overcome
fear; gradually, he practices relaxation while in the presence
of live snakes.

A

d

63
Q

A. Imaginal exposure
B. Interoceptive exposure
C. In vivo exposure
D. Systematic desensitization

Apatient withOCDattempts to use public telephones and
doorknobs while intentionally refraining from washing
her hands afterward.

A

c

64
Q

A. Imaginal exposure
B. Interoceptive exposure
C. In vivo exposure
D. Systematic desensitization

A patient is asked to imagine his wartime experiences as
vividly as possible to confront his memory of the traumatic
events.

A

a
Imaginal exposure typically involves having the patient close
his or her eyes and imagine feared stimuli as vividly as possible.
The primary use of this type of exposure is to help patients
confront feared thoughts, images, and memories. For example,
individuals with OCD may experience obsessional thoughts and
images about causing harm to people they love.

65
Q

A. Imaginal exposure
B. Interoceptive exposure
C. In vivo exposure
D. Systematic desensitization

A patient breathes through a thin straw to produce the
sensation of not getting enough air; this activity produces
a similar sensation to the distressing feeling of getting on
an airplane.

A

b
Interoceptive exposure is the most recent form of exposure
therapy to be introduced. This procedure is designed to induce
feared physiological sensations under controlled circumstances.
A number of specific exercises have been developed to induce
specific panic-like sensations. For example, the step-up exercise,
in which the patient repeatedly steps up and down on a single step
as rapidly as possible, produces rapid heart rate and shortness of
breath.

66
Q
A. Acrophobia
B. Ailurophobia
C. Cynophobia
D. Mysophobia
E. Xenophobia

Fear of dirt and germs

A

d

67
Q
A. Acrophobia
B. Ailurophobia
C. Cynophobia
D. Mysophobia
E. Xenophobia

Fear of heights

A

a

68
Q
A. Acrophobia
B. Ailurophobia
C. Cynophobia
D. Mysophobia
E. Xenophobia

Fear of strangers

A

e

69
Q
A. Acrophobia
B. Ailurophobia
C. Cynophobia
D. Mysophobia
E. Xenophobia

Fear of dogs

A

c

70
Q
A. Acrophobia
B. Ailurophobia
C. Cynophobia
D. Mysophobia
E. Xenophobia

Fear of cats

A

b