Psychology (MRCP) Flashcards
Which of the following theories was NOT proposed by Sigmund Freud? A. The topographical model of mind B. Affect trauma theory C. Individual psychology theory D. The structural model of the mind E. Psychosexual stages of development
C. All of the theories listed in the question except Individual Psychology Theory were
proposed by Sigmund Freud. Individual psychology theory was put forward by Alfred Adler.
According to Freud’s Affect Trauma Theory, feelings that are connected to unacceptable
memories are strangulated by mental mechanisms leading to neurosis. Freud divided neurosis
into ‘actual’ and ‘psychoneurosis’. Actual neurosis manifested itself in anxiety neurosis or
hypochondriasis. Psychoneurosis comprised of hysteria, obsessional neurosis, and phobias. Freud
thought that psychoneurosis was amenable to psychoanalysis. In the Topographical Model, the
mind is divided into the unconscious, preconscious, and conscious. The Structural Model of the
Mind consists of the id, ego, and superego (a useful mnemonic is that S of structural model is
shared with superego). Freud also came up with the stages of psychosexual development. In this,
each stage of development is thought to build on and to subsume the accomplishments of the
preceding stage: the oral stage (12 to 18 months of life), anal stage (18 to 36 months), phallic
stage (3 to 5 years), latency stage (5 to 11 years), and genital stage (11 years to adulthood).
Which of the following is true about primary process thinking?
A. It fulfi ls the reality principle
B. It fulfi ls the pleasure principle
C. It is associated with delay in gratifi cation
D. It is ruled by rational thinking
E. It is ruled by the concept of time
B. Primary process thinking fulfi ls the pleasure principle. According to Freud, in the
Topographical Model of the mind, the unconscious system is characterized by primary process
thinking. Primary process thinking refers to a mode of thinking whose main aim is to facilitate
wish fulfi lment. It is governed by the pleasure principle and does not follow a logical course. The
concept of time is not used to streamline primary process thinking. In addition, primary process
thinking allows contradictions to exist simultaneously. The conscious system receives sense
impressions from the outside world and follows secondary process thinking. This is ruled by time,
rational–logical thinking, and the reality principle.
All of the following are functions of ego EXCEPT
A. Accommodating the ego ideal
B. Control and regulation of instinctual drives
C. Rational judgement
D. Mediation between the internal world and external reality
E. Capacity to form mutually satisfying relationships
A. The important functions of ego include the capacity to control the discharge of
instinctual drives, the capacity to test reality, mediating between the id and the realities of the
outside world (reality principle as against pleasure principle), and thus facilitating the formation of
relationships. Judgement, which involves the ability to anticipate the consequences of actions, is
also a function of the ego. In Freud’s psychoanalytic theory of personality, the ego ideal is the part
of the superego that includes the rules and standards for good behaviours (e.g. parental
discipline)
Carol is undergoing psychotherapy. During her therapy sessions, she begins
to argue with her therapist as she had argued with her deceased father.
Which of the following phenomenon is she demonstrating?
A. Transference
B. Resistance
C. Free association
D. Catharsis
E. Repression
A. This is an example of transference during psychotherapy. Transference is the process by
which the patient displaces wishes and feelings toward persons from the past onto the analyst.
Sometimes this leads to the emergence of resistance as patients experience the psychiatrist as a
parental fi gure from the past (in this case the patient’s dead father), and they seek to rebel against
the perceived parental control. Resistance refers to an unconscious behaviour intended to
frustrate the progress of therapy. Free association is the process where the client spontaneously
expresses their thoughts and feelings as they occur. Repression is a defence mechanism.
Which of the following refers to the mechanism by which several unconscious wishes can be combined into a single image in the manifest dream content? A. Displacement B. Symbolic representation C. Secondary revision D. Condensation E. Dream work
D. The phenomenon described is called condensation. According to Freud, a dream is the
disguised fulfi lment of an unconscious wish. Freud described two layers of dream content – the
manifest and the latent. The manifest content is what the dreamer recalls; the latent content
involves the unconscious thoughts and wishes that threaten to awaken the dreamer. The
unconscious process by which latent dream content is changed into manifest dream is called the
dream work. This dream work involves primary process revision (different from primary process
thinking) and secondary revision/ elaboration. Primary process includes the mechanisms of
condensation, displacement, and symbolic representation. Condensation, as described in this
question, is the mechanism by which several unconscious wishes can be combined into a single
image in the manifest dream content. Displacement refers to the transfer of energy from an
original object to a different one. In symbolic representation of a wish or object, the original but
highly unacceptable theme changes in physical qualities to a more acceptable object. This may be
characterized by seemingly unrelated and absurd images. Secondary revision is the process by
which dreams are made relevant and more rational when narrated to a third person
According to Adler, a sense of inadequacy and weakness that is universal and inborn is called A. Inferiority complex B. Organ inferiority C. Birth order theory D. Masculine protest E. Individual psychology
A. Adler coined the term inferiority complex which is a sense of inadequacy and weakness
that is universal and inborn. Masculine protest is the tendency to move from a passive, feminine
role to a masculine, active role. A child’s self esteem may be compromised by a physical defect;
this phenomenon is called organ inferiority. According to Adler’s birth order theory the fi rstborn
child reacts with anger to the birth of siblings and struggles against giving up the powerful
position of being the only child. The second-born child must always compete with the fi rstborn.
This apparently results in lifelong infl uences on character and lifestyle. All the above terms,
including individual psychology, were proposed by Alfred Adler
Which of the following is NOT a concept proposed by Melanie Klein? A. Paranoid schizoid position B. Reaction formation C. Splitting D. Depressive position E. Projective identifi cation
B. Reaction formation is one of many Freudian defences. Kleinian defences can be
remembered using the mnemonic (SIPDOG – splitting, introjection, projective identifi cation,
denial, omnipotence, and grandiosity). According to Klein, projection and introjection are the
primary defence operations in the fi rst few months of life. Soon after birth and thereafter, the
infant experiences a fear that he is falling apart. This fear of fragmenting or disintegration is
central to further Kleinian processes. To deal with this fear, the infant resorts to splitting,
introjection, and projection. All events and perceptions are schemed into good and bad elements
(splitting); the good part gets introjected, while bad part is projected onto the mother leading to
persecutory anxiety. At this stage, the infant is in a paranoid–schizoid position, where the capacity
to integrate varied experiences into unifi ed concept is lacking. Soon the baby comes to know
that the mother he loved (when feeding) and the mother he hated (when hurt) are one and the
same. Now the infant becomes concerned that he might destroy the mother due to his
aggressive impulses, and the infant is said to be in a grief-like depressive position. Projective
identifi cation is a Kleinian defence mechanism where unwanted feelings are projected to the
other person, and he/she is made to feel and act accordingly.
With which of the following developmental phases is Margaret Mahler associated? A. Anal phase B. Autistic phase C. Conventional morality phase D. Individuality vs inferiority phase E. Operational stage
B. Margaret Mahler described the process by which children develop a separate identity
from their mothers. She called this the theory of separation individuation (SI). Stages of
separation individuation are: normal autism (birth to 2 months) where the infant sleeps most of
the time, this phase is reminiscent of intrauterine life; Stage of symbiosis (2 to 5 months) where
the mother and her child exist more or less as a single entity; differentiation (5 to 10 months),
wherein physical and psychological distinctness from mother is gradually appreciated; practicing
(10 to 18 months), where the child shows an increase in exploration of the outside world;
rapprochement (18 to 24 months) where the child explores further away from the mother but
on realizing the separation, comes back clinging; and object constancy (2 to 5 years) where the
child realizes the permanence of the mother even when the mother is not from the vicinity (this
is different from object permanence).
Avoiding the awareness of some painful aspect of reality by negating sensory data is called A. Reaction formation B. Projection C. Denial D. Suppression E. Repression
C. This is denial. The defence of denial is usually an unconscious process (I love that man
becomes I do not love that man). Projection is where specifi c wishes, impulses, and aspects of self
are imagined to be located in some other object external to oneself (e.g. a miser calling others
‘misers’). Projection is thought to be involved in the formation of persecutory delusions.
Repression is expelling or withholding an idea or feeling from consciousness. Primary repression
is when the idea has never reached consciousness at all. Secondary repression is when it has
reached the conscious level at some time in the past, but is now not available for conscious
processing. Suppression is consciously or semiconsciously postponing attention and response to
an impulse or confl ict. This is a mature defence mechanism. Reaction formation is the
transformation of an unacceptable impulse to the very opposite (I love that man becomes I hate
that man).
Which of the following is NOT a mature defence mechanism? A. Isolation B. Altruism C. Humour D. Anticipation E. Sublimation
A. Isolation is a neurotic defence. It is separating an idea from the emotion that accompanies
it. Defence mechanisms can be psychologically healthy or maladaptive, though their primary aim
is to reduce a psychological confl ict. Psychologically healthy mechanisms can be grouped as
mature defences. Various mature defence mechanisms include sublimation, altruism, humour,
suppression, and anticipation. Altruism is using constructive service to provide for others without
any conscious direct or indirect benefi ts. Humour is the process of using comedy to express
feelings and thoughts without personal discomfort. Anticipation is realistically planning for a
predicted inner discomfort. For example, a man with a terminal illness prepares his advance
directives. Sublimation is achieving gratifi cation by altering a socially objectionable aim or
objective to a socially acceptable one. For example training as a surgeon if you have a desire to
cut and make others bleed!
Which one of the following terms was coined by Mary Ainsworth? A. Goodness of fi t B. Anaclitic depression C. Transitional object D. Separation individuation E. Secure base
E. According to Mary Ainsworth, attachment in infants helps to reduce separation anxiety.
Infants use the attachment fi gure as a ‘secure base’ around which they can explore the
environment. Chess and Thomas proposed the theory of goodness of fi t. They studied the innate
psychological characteristics of every infant known as temperament. According to them,
goodness of fi t results when the expectations and demands from mothers match the
temperamental characters of the infant. Margaret Mahler described the theory of separation
individuation. Anaclitic depression (hospitalism) was fi rst described by Rene Spitz in infants who
had made normal attachments but were then suddenly separated from their mothers and placed
in institutions or hospitals. These infants developed depression that was anaclitic (loss of
dependent object) and recovered when their mothers returned. Sometimes, inanimate objects,
called transitional objects (Winnicott) also serve as a secure base; these transitional objects are
often soft toys or other commonly encountered things that often accompanies children as they
investigate the world. For example, Hobbes in Calvin and Hobbes comic strips.
Which of the following statements about attachment theory is
INCORRECT?
A. Abused children do not develop attachments to their abusive parents.
B. The attachment of the fi rstborn child is decreased by the birth of a second.
C. Stranger anxiety develops by 8 months.
D. Separation anxiety occurs by 10–18 months of age.
E. Children brought up in extended families or with multiple caregivers are able to
establish many attachments.
A. Abused children often maintain their attachments to abusive parents. Attachment
behaviour can increase in the presence of hunger, sickness, or pain. Similarly when children are
rejected by their parents or are afraid of them, their attachment may increase to some extent.
Attachment develops in almost all children, but whether this is of a secure or insecure nature
depends on multiple factors. Separation anxiety is a universal human developmental phenomenon
emerging in infants less than 1 year of age and marking a child’s awareness of a separation from
his or her mother or primary carer. Separation anxiety peaks between 9 and 18 months and
diminishes by about 2.5 years of age, enabling young children to develop a sense of comfort away
from their parents in preschool.
A boy recognizes that the amount of water remains the same when
transferred from a tall narrow glass to a wide-mouthed glass. Which stage
of Piaget’s developmental model is he likely to have attained?
A. Sensorimotor stage
B. Preoperational stage
C. Concrete operational stage
D. Formal operational stage
E. Conventional stage
C. The concept of conservation develops in the stage of concrete operations. The primary
sign that a child is still in the preoperational stage is that he or she has not achieved the concept
of conservation or reversibility. Conservation is the ability to recognize that objects possess
different compatible properties and the alteration of one property (e.g. height) does not
necessarily alter other properties (e.g. volume). Conservation occurs in various dimensions –
conservation of volume, quantity, number, area, and weight. Piaget’s stages of cognitive development
include sensorimotor stage, which begins at birth and lasts up to 2 years. Object permanence and
insight is gained in this stage. During the stage of preoperational thought (2–7 years), the child
develops symbolic play and semiotic function. Children in this stage are egocentric. In addition to
conservation and reversibility, the child also develops syllogistic reasoning in the concrete
operational stage (7–11 years). Formal operational stage (11 to thr end of adolescence), is
characterized by the development of the capability of hypothetico-deductive reasoning.
Which of the following is NOT a projective test? A. Rorschach ink-blot test B. MMPI C. Sentence completion test D. Thematic apperception test E. Draw a person test
B. The projective tests of personality assessment make use of unstructured stimuli, for
example inkblots or pictures from which stories have to be derived. It is thought that when
confronted with a vague stimulus, subjects will introduce (project) some personality
characteristics into the stimulus. This will be revealed not only in the way the ambiguity is
perceived but also in the content of their responses. The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality
Inventory (MMPI) is a self-report inventory with more than 500 true or false statements about
oneself. It is an objective personality assessment instrument. The Rorschach Test is a standard set
of ten inkblots which serves as the ambiguous stimulus for associations. In the Thematic
Apperception Test (TAT) 20 stimulus cards depicting a number of scenes of varying ambiguity are
used. Other projective tests include Draw a person test and sentence completion test.
A 30-year-old man presents to rehabilitation services following a head injury. Which of the following is the LEAST useful test to measure premorbid IQ in this patient? A. Weschler’s Adult Intelligence Scale B. National Adult Reading Test C. Cambridge Contextual Reading Test D. Spot the Word Test E. Wechsler Test of Adult Reading
A. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) has a number of subtests, each tapping different
aspects of intelligence. Verbal IQ is calculated based on the sum of the following subtests: vocabulary,
similarities, arithmetic, digit span, information, and comprehension. Performance IQ is calculated
from the sum of the following subtests: picture completion, digit symbol coding, block design,
matrix reasoning, and picture arrangement. Three further subtests (symbol search, letter–number
sequencing, and object assembly) have been added in later versions. National Adult Reading Test
(NART), Cambridge Contextual Reading Test, Spot the Word Test, and Wechsler Test of Adult
Reading are best used to test premorbid IQ. These measures are based on the observation that
reading ability is relatively preserved in the face of organic cognitive impairment and is highly
correlated with intellectual ability in the general population.
Choose a suitable test to assess frontal lobe functions in a man suffering from head injury: A. Rey Osterreith test B. MMSE C. Wisconsin Card Sorting Test D. Stanford Binet Scale E. WAIS
C. The Wisconsin Card Sorting Test (WCST) is used to test set-shifting ability, which is
thought to be a function of the frontal lobe. In Rey Osterreith Complex Figure Test (ROCFT) a
complicated fi gure is presented and the subject is required to copy it. The original and copy are
then removed and the subject is asked to draw the fi gure again from memory, after varying delay
intervals. This is not specifi c for frontal lobe functions. Stanford Binet Scale measures general
intelligence. Mini Mental State Examination (MMSE) is a test of general cognition. In fact, it does
not include any specifi c tests for frontal lobe function
Among the WAIS subtests, performance on which of the following is
relatively resistant to decline with ageing?
A. Digit symbol
B. Digit span
C. Block design
D. Similarities
E. Picture completion
E. Tests on WAIS are either ‘hold’ or ‘no hold’. The so called ‘hold tests’ in WAIS are thought
to refl ect the use of old knowledge and are relatively resistant to the effects of brain damage and
ageing. These include vocabulary, information, object assembly, and picture completion. ‘No hold’
tests require speed of response, working memory, or the creation of new relations between
unrelated items. These are more likely to show early decline with ageing and cognitive
impairment. These include digit symbol, digit span, similarities, and block design. This is the reason
why WAIS is not the best test to measure premorbid intelligence.
Which of the following is NOT a bedside cognitive test? A. Halstead Reitan Battery B. Frontal Assessment Battery C. Verbal fl uency D. Category test E. Go–no go test
A. The Halstead Reitan Battery is composed of seven to ten tests. The battery can
differentiate those who are brain damaged from neurologically intact persons. It usually needs to
be administered by a trained neuropsychologist and is time consuming. Frontal Assessment
Battery is a battery of six tests used to test frontal lobe function at the bedside. It includes verbal
fl uency, similarities, Luria three-step test, go–no go tests, and a test of environmental autonomy. In
category test the subject must discover the common theme in a set of pictures presented.
Category test measures concept formation and abstract reasoning. It is one of the tests included
in the Halstead Reitan Battery. Verbal fl uency is measured using the FAS test.
Which of the following scales used in antidepressant trials is most sensitive
to detect any change in the severity of depression?
A. HAMD
B. MADRS
C. BPRS
D. BDI
E. PANSS
B. The Hamilton Rating Scale for Depression (HAM-D) and the Montgomery-Åsberg
Depression Rating Scale (MADRS) are two widely used depression scales. HAM-D is relatively
limited in measures of sensitivity and multidimensionality but it is very popular. The MADRS
(10 items), designed to be sensitive to treatment changes, is briefer and more uniform. A limitation
of the MADRS is the lack of a structured interview, which may affect reliability. The HAM-D and
the MADRS are often used conjointly as endpoints in depression trials. There are various versions
of the HAM-D, ranging from 17 to 31 items. The Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale (BPRS) comprises
16 items rated from 0 (not present) to 6 (extremely severe) and includes symptoms such as
somatic concern, anxiety, depressive mood, hostility, and hallucinations. The scale was developed
essentially for psychosis but also includes symptoms of depression. Positive and Negative
Symptoms Scale (PANSS) is not a scale to measure depressive symptoms. It is used to measure
the severity of psychotic symptoms. The Beck Depression Inventory (BDI) is a 21 question,
self-report inventory. It is not a very useful measure of change in severity of depression with
treatment.
While using a diagnostic rating scale, a psychologist tries to fi nd the degree of correlation between one test item and the other items in the scale. What is he trying to measure? A. Internal consistency B. Content validity C. Construct validity D. Split half reliability E. Test–retest reliability
A. Internal consistency is the degree to which one test item correlates with all other test
items. Reliability is the consistency of a measuring instrument or the repeatability of a test.
Inter-rater reliability is the likelihood that two raters will rate the same answer in the same way.
Test–retest reliability is the degree to which a test will give the same result on two different
occasions, separated in time. Parallel-form reliability is the extent to which two comparable
versions of a test give the same result. Split-half reliability is when a test is notionally split in two
and the two halves correlated with each other.
The results of a child’s IQ test relate signifi cantly to the occupational success he achieves when he grows into an adult. The test is said to have a high A. Construct validity B. Predictive validity C. Incremental validity D. Face validity E. Content validity
B. Validity is a property that refers to whether a test measures what it is supposed to
measure. Predictive validity is the degree to which a test predicts some criterion that might be
achieved in the future (e.g. whether a child’s IQ test predicts occupational success when he/she
grows into an adult). A test is said to possess good concurrent validity if scores on the test
correlate with a gold standard or other diagnostic test used for the same purpose (e.g. if scores
on HAMD are higher in those people with a severe rather than mild or moderate depressive
disorder according to ICD 10, then HAMD is said to possess high concurrent validity). The above
two types of validity together constitute criterion validity. Face validity refers to whether a test
seems purposeful and sensible with regard to the tested domain to the person completing it.
Content validity refers to the representativeness and relevance of the assessment instrument to
the construct being measured. Construct validity checks whether a test measures a specifi ed and
well-defi ned construct. For example, if a test is measuring depression, there should not be
clusters of items that seem to measure symptoms of mania; the test should correlate with other
measures of depression (convergent validity); it should not correlate with measures that are
irrelevant to depression (divergent validity).
Which of the following is a structured diagnostic instrument used in
population surveys to measure disease prevalence?
A. Young Mania Rating Scale
B. Positive and Negative Symptoms Scale
C. Hospital Anxiety and Depression Scale
D. Composite International Diagnostic Interview
E. Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale
D. The Young Mania Rating Scale (YMRS) comprises 11 items corresponding to the
published core symptoms of mania. Four items are graded on a scale of 0–8 and have double
weight; the remaining seven items are graded on a scale of 0–4. The Positive and Negative
Symptom Scale (PANSS) is a 30-item rating instrument specifi cally designed to assess the
psychopathology of schizophrenic patients. Subscores of the PANSS are positive, negative, general
psychopathology, and affective symptoms composite scores. The Hospital Anxiety and Depression
Scale (HADS) is a 14-item self-report scale that was developed originally to indicate the possible
presence of anxiety and depressive states in medical outpatients. The Brief Psychiatric Rating
Scale (BPRS) is a 16-item scale with nine general symptom items, fi ve positive-symptom items, and
two negative-symptom items. It is a clinician-completed scale often used in schizophrenia
medication trials.
Chris was confronted by a snake while hiking in a tropical forest. He later
argued that the ‘fear’ he experienced was due to the tremors, muscle
tension and sweating that occurred immediately upon seeing the snake.
Which of the following theories is he using to explain the origin of his
emotions?
A. Cannon–Bard theory
B. James–Lange theory
C. Two-factor theory
D. Opponent-process theory
E. Schachter–Singer theory
B. He is using the James–Lange theory of emotions. According to the James–Lange theory
of emotion, the perception of the stimulus leads to physiological arousal. The interpretation of
the physiological arousal leads to the affective experience of the emotion. For example, ‘I feel
afraid because my heart is pounding’. According to Cannon–Bard theory, perception of an
emotionally relevant stimulus leads to the physiological and emotional arousal at the same time.
Cannon and Bard attributed this to stimulation of the hypothalamus and the autonomic areas at
the same time. In the Schacter–Singer theory (two factor theory), a person labels the pounding
of the heart as fear because he appraises the situation of being in the midst of a snake as
dangerous. So according to Schacter, the same physiological feeling can elicit different emotions
depending upon the appraisal made by the subject from his situation. For example, pounding of
the heart can be due to fear of the snake, anxiety secondary to exams and joy (or fear!) of
meeting one’s spouse. Opponent-process theory is a theory of colour vision.
A psychiatrist wants to use a self-administered scale to assess the presence
of depressive symptoms in a community-resident elderly patient. Which one
of the following will he use?
A. The Centre for Epidemiologic Studies Depression Scale (CES-D)
B. The Carroll Rating Scale for Depression
C. The Geriatric Depression Scale (GDS)
D. Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale
E. Hamilton Depression Rating Scale
A. The CES-D is the most widely used screening instrument for depression in communityresident
elderly because of the availability of normative population data. The GDS (Geriatric
depression scale), developed specifi cally to screen older persons for the presence of depressive
symptoms, has not been standardized for use in community populations. The Carroll Rating Scale
for Depression, based on the Hamilton Depression Scale, has not been used extensively in
elderly people. HAM-D includes many somatic elements of depression, which are often positive
even in the absence of depression among elderly people due to high prevalence of physical
health problems. It is observer rated and not self administered. BPRS does not look for the
presence or absence of depression.
Matthew is a 3-year-old boy referred to the local Child and Adolescent
Mental Health Services (CAMHS) team with a history of poor scholastic
performance. Which of the following scales is considered appropriate to
evaluate his intelligence quotient?
A. Stanford–Binet Scale
B. Denver Developmental Scale
C. Wechsler’s WAIS-R
D. Wechsler’s WISC III
E. Wechsler’s WPPSI
A. The Stanford–Binet scale is suitable for children between 2 and 4 years since it does not
rely exclusively on language. It is also applicable for other age groups. The Denver Developmental
Scale is used to assess the attainment of developmental milestones in children up to age 5. The
WAIS-R (Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale) is used for individuals aged 17 and over. The WISC III
(Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children) is useful for evaluating children aged 6–16. The WPPSI
(Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence) is used for children aged 4–6.
Classical conditioning has occurred when
A. Unconditioned stimulus produces unconditioned response
B. Conditioned stimulus produces the conditioned response
C. Unconditioned stimulus produces the conditioned response
D. Conditioned stimulus produces another conditioned stimulus
E. None of the above
B. The unconditioned stimulus (UCS) is a stimulus that evokes an unconditioned response
(UCR) without previous conditioning, for example in the classic Pavlov’s paradigm, salivation
(UCR) with food (UCS). UCR is not a learned response. Conditioned stimulus (CS) is a
previously neutral stimulus that has acquired the capacity to evoke a conditioned response (CR) ,
for example the bell is the CS that is paired with food (UCS) which later elicits the salivation
(now a CR). A fi rst CS (CS1) that has previously been paired with a UCS can support
conditioning to a second CS (CS2) when the CS2 and CSl are paired together. Thus CS2, never
directly paired with the UCS, still elicits a CR. This is higher-order conditioning.
Repeated presentations of the conditioned stimulus in the absence of the unconditioned stimulus leads to a decrease in the strength of the conditioned response. This is known as A. Extinction B. Generalization C. Higher order conditioning D. Inhibition E. Recovery
A. Extinction is the process by which CR is eliminated. After conditioning a CS to elicit a CR,
repeated, subsequent delivery of the CS without the UCS extinguishes the CR. Three factors
infl uence the extinction of the CR. In general, the stronger the CS–CR bond, the slower the
extinction of the CR. When the CS is only occasionally presented during initial conditioning,
resistance to extinction is increased. As the duration of the CS exposure in extinction increases,
the CR weakens proportionately. Spontaneous recovery is the reappearance of an extinguished
response after a period of non-exposure to the conditioned stimulus.
When Little Albert was conditioned to be afraid of white rats he also came to fear white lab coats and other white objects. This phenomenon is known as A. Extinction B. Satiation C. Generalization D. Discrimination E. Punishment
C. Stimulus generalization occurs when an organism that has learned a response to a
specifi c stimulus responds in the same way to new stimuli that are similar to the original stimulus.
In this case, the colour white serves as the similarity between rats and lab coats. The closer the
new stimuli are to the original conditioning stimulus, the greater the likelihood of generalization.
Stimulus discrimination occurs when an organism that has learned a response to a specifi c
stimulus does not respond in the same way to new stimuli that are similar the original stimulus.
For example, a dog which wags its tails when it hears your car approaching the porch may initially
wag when any car passes by (generalization). But as time goes, your faithful dog learns to
discriminate the distinct sound of your car from your father-in-law’s car, who you may not like
very much! The ‘Little Albert’ experiment mentioned in this question was conducted by Watson
and Rayner in 1920. Albert was 11 months and 3 days old at the time of the fi rst test. Because of
his young age, the experiment today would be considered unethical.
