Principles 1-1 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

what are parasitic organisms

A

symbionts that harm or live at the expense of their host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are commensal organisms

A

normal microbiota- microbes frequently found on or within the bodies of healthy persons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is infection

A

growth and multiplication of parasite on or within host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is infectious disease

A

disease resulting from infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is a pathogen

A
  • any parasitic organism that causes infectious disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is a primary pathogen and what is another name for it

A

causes disease by direct interaction with host
- frank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is an opportunistic pathogen

A

causes disease only under certain circumstances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is pathogenicity

A

ability of parasite to cause disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is virulence factor

A

any component of a pathogenic microbe that is required for or that potentiates its ability to cause disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the steps in an infectious disease

A

-encounter
- entry
- spread
- multiplication
- damage
- outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the types of encounters in infectious disease

A

exogenous, endogenous, congenital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are examples of endogenous sources of micro organisms

A
  • impaired natural protection/clearance system allows increased colonization of nasopharynx
  • colonized oropharynx and gastric fluid pool along tube in neonates
  • colonized tracheal secretions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the mechanism for pneumonia

A

-aspiration of colonized fluids from any of the above sources into the lungs can result in pneumonia
- a hematogenous source seeding the lungs may rarely cause pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the manifestations of a congenital infection

A

-growth retardation
- congenital malformation
- fetal loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are the types of entry and define both

A
  • ingress: inhalation, ingestion
  • penetration: microbes pass through epithelia directly, insect bites, cuts and wounds, organ transplants, and blood transfusions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the types of ways an infectious disease can spread

A

lateral propogation vs dissemination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is spread determined by

A

anatomical factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is multiplication determined by

A

environmental factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the results of damage

A

-direct damage
- immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are the different possible outcomes

A

microbe wins, host wins or they learn to coexist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

where is normal microbiota found

A

microbes frequently found on or within the bodies of healthy persons- commensal organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

when does colonization of normal microbiota begin

A

rapidly after birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what organisms make up the human microbiome

A

eukaryotes, archaea, bacteria and viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

bacteria in an average human body number _____ times more than human cells

A

ten

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

bacteria contain about ____ more genes than are present in the human genome

A

1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

how much do bacteria make up the human body

A

1-3% of our body mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are the functions of good bacteria in the human microbiome

A
  • produce vitamins we cant make ourselves
  • break down our food to extract nutrients
  • teach our immune system how to recognize invaders
  • produce helpful anti inflammatory compounds that fight off other disease causing microbes
  • occupy space to crowd out disease causing microbes
  • detoxification of carcinogens but sometimes are the source of carcinogen production
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what are the locations in the body with the largest amount of bacteria

A
  • skin
  • respiratory tract: nose and oropharynx
  • digestive tract: mouth and large intestine
  • urinary tract: anterior parts of urethra
  • genital system : vagina
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what are the locations in the body with the smallest amount of bacteria

A

remainder of respiratory and digestive tracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what body locations are sterile

A
  • blood
    -CSF
  • synovial fluid
  • deep tissues
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what do pathogenicity/virulence depend on

A

the host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is periodontitis

A

overgrowth of particular bacteria in gingival crevices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are examples where normal flora are source of infection

A

-periodontitis
- pneumonia
- catheter- associated infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what happens in a pneumonia infection

A

defenses lowered and microaspirations of pneumococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what organism causes catheter associated infections

A

staphylococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what does oral flora include

A
  • bacteria and archeae
  • fungia
  • protozoa - eukaryotes
  • viruses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

how many different species of bacteria are in the oral cavity

A

about 700

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what are parts of the oral ecosystem

A
  • buccal mucosa
  • dorsum of tongue
  • tooth surfaces
  • crevicular epithelium
  • dental appliances
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what are issues for microbial cells

A
  • nutritional fluxes
  • maintaining occupancy
  • resistance to damage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what are factors that modulate oral microbial growth

A
  • anatomical features that create areas that are difficult to clean
  • saliva
  • GCF
  • microbial factors
  • local pH
  • redox potential
  • antimicrobial therapy
  • diet
  • iatrogenic factors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what are the anatomical features in teeth that modulate microbial growth

A
  • shape and topography of teeth
  • malalignment of teeth
  • poor quality of restorations
  • non keratinized sulcular epithelium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what makes up saliva that controls microbial growth

A

-inorganic ions
- organic constituents
- proteins
- glycoproteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what does saliva do

A
  • promotes adhesion of bacteria on tooth surfaces through organic components that form a coating on tooth surfaces called a salivary pellicle
  • source of food
  • promotes aggregation of bacteria, facilitating their clearance from mouth
  • inhibits growth of micorbes by non specific defense factors
  • maintains pH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what does GCF do

A
  • flushing microbes out of crevice
  • source of nutrients for microbes
  • maintains pH
  • specific and non specific defense facotrs
  • phagocytosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is the main phagocyte in GCF

A

neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what do microbial factors do

A
  • competition for adhesion receptors
  • toxin production
  • metabolic end products
  • coaggregation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what does local pH vary based on

A

diet as a result of bacterial metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is redox potention

A

a measure of oxygen levels in locality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is an example of an iatrogenic factor

A

dental scaling

50
Q

what are the 3 domains of life

A
  • bacteria
  • archaea
  • eucarya
51
Q

what do prokaryotic cells contain

A
  • flagella
  • nucleoid
    -ribosome
  • inclusion bodies
  • plasma membrane
  • cell wall
  • capsule
52
Q

describe the importance of cell membranes to prokaryotes

A
  • required for all living organisms
  • encompasses the cytoplasm
53
Q

what does the plasma membrane contain

A

lipids form a bilayer and proteins are embedded in them

54
Q

how would you describe the plasma membraen

A
  • highly organized, asymmetric, flexible and dynamic
55
Q

what is the function of the plasma membrane

A
  • separation of cell from its environment
  • selectively permeable barrier
  • transport systems aid in movement of molecules
  • location of crucial metabolic processes
  • detection of and response to chemicals in surroundings with the aid of special receptor molecules in the membrane
56
Q

what are inclusion bodies

A

granules of organic or inorganic material that are stockpiled by the cell for future use

57
Q

what are inclusion bodies enclosed by

A

a single layered membrane that may be made of proteins or lipids

58
Q

what makes up a ribosome

A

protein and RNA

59
Q

what are the types of ribosomes

A
  • prokaryotic ribosomes: 70S
  • eukaryotic ribosomes: 80S
60
Q

which type of ribosome is smaller

A

prokaryotic

61
Q

what is in the nucleoid

A

the chromosome, usually 1 per cell

62
Q

is the nucleoid membrane bound

A

no

63
Q

what do the projections in nucleoid contain

A

DNA being actively transcribed

64
Q

describe the prokaryotic chromosome

A
  • a closed, circular, double stranded DNA molecule
  • looped and coiled extensively
65
Q

what do nucleoid proteins do

A

aid in folding of chromosome

66
Q

what are some components of unusual nucleoids

A

-some can have more than one chromosome
- some have chromosomes composed on linear double stranded DNA
- a few genera have membrane delimited nuceloids

67
Q

describe plasmids

A
  • usually small closed circular DNA molecules
  • exist and replicate independently of chromosome
  • not required for growth and reproduction
  • may carry genes that confer selective advantage
68
Q

describe the prokaryotic cell wall

A

rigid structure that lies just outside the plasma membrane

69
Q

what are the functions of the cell wall

A

-provides characteristic shape to cell
- protects the cell from osmotic lysis
- may also contribute to pathogenicity
- may also protect cell from toxic substances

70
Q

what are the 2 groups of bacteria divided into

A

gram positive bacteria and gram negative

71
Q

what color do gram positive bacteria stain

A

purple

72
Q

what color do gram negative bacteria stain

A

pink

73
Q

what is the staining reaction of bacteria due to

A

cell wall structure

74
Q

what is the gram positive cell wall made of

A

peptidoglycan and plasma membrane

75
Q

what is the gram negative cell wall made of

A

outer membrane, peptidoglycan and plasma membrane

76
Q

what is periplasmic space

A

gap between plasma membrane and cell wall (gram positive bacteria) or between plasma membrane and outer membrane (gram negative bacteria)

77
Q

what is periplasm

A

substance that occupies periplasmic space

78
Q

where are periplasmic enzymes found

A

in periplasm of gram negative bacteria

79
Q

what are the functions of periplasmic enzymes

A

-nutrient acquisition
- electron transport
- peptidoglycan synthesis
- modification of toxic compounds

80
Q

what are exoenzymes secreted by and what do they do

A
  • secreted by gram positive bacteria
  • perform many of the same functions that periplasmic enzymes do for gram negative bacteria
81
Q

what forms the backbone of the peptidoglycan structure

A

2 alternating sugars called N- acetylglucosamine and N-acetylemuramic acid

82
Q

what is polysaccharide formed by

A

peptidoglycan subunits

83
Q

what is the gram positive cell wall made of

A

-primarily peptidoglycan
- large amounts of teichoic acids

84
Q

what are teichoic acids

A

polymers of glycerol or ribitol joined by phosphate groups

85
Q

what is the gram negative cell wall made of

A
  • a thin layer of peptidoglycan surrounded by an outer membrane
  • outer membrane composed of lipids, lipoproteins, and lipopolysaccharides
  • no teichoic acids
86
Q

what do Braun’s lipoproteins connect

A

outer membrane to peptidoglycan

87
Q

what are adhesion sites

A
  • sites of direct contact between plasma membrane and outer membrane
  • substances may move directly into cell through adhesion sites
88
Q

what are the 3 parts of a lipopolysaccharide (LPS)

A

-lipid A
- core polysaccharide
- O side chain (O antigen)

89
Q

what are the function of LPS

A
  • protection fro host defenses (O antigen)
  • contributes to negative charge on cell surface (core polysaccharide)
  • helps stabilize outer membrane structure (lipid A)
  • act as an endotoxin (lipid A)
90
Q

why is the outer membrane more permeable than the plasma membrane

A

due to presence of porin proteins and transporter proteins

91
Q

what passes through porin proteins

A

small molecules 600-700 daltons pass through these channels

92
Q

what are the components external to cell wall

A

capsules, slime layers and S layers

93
Q

describe capsules

A
  • usually composed of polysaccharides
  • well organized and not easily removed from cell
94
Q

describe slime layers

A

similar to capsules except diffuse unorganized and easily removed

95
Q

describe the glycocalyx

A
  • network of polysaccharides extending from the surface of the cell
  • a capsule or slime layer composed of polysaccharides can also be referred to as a glycocalyx
96
Q

what are the functions of the components external to the cell wall

A
  • protection from viral infection or predation by bacteria
  • protection from chemicals in environment
  • motility of gliding bacteria
  • protection against osmotic stress
97
Q

what are fimbriae and what do they do

A

-short, thin, hairlike proteinaceous appendages up to 1,000 per cell
-mediate attachment to surfaces

98
Q

what are sex pili and what do they do

A
  • similar to fimbriae except longer, thicker and less numerous about 1-10 per cell
  • required for mating
99
Q

what are the patterns of arrangement and what does each mean

A
  • monotrichous: one flagellum
  • polar flagellum: flagellum at end of cell
    -amphitrichous: one flagellum at each end of cell
  • lophotrichouse: cluster of flagella at one or both ends
  • peritrichous: spread over entire surface of cell
100
Q

what are the 3 parts to the flagella

A
  • filament
  • basal body
  • hook
101
Q

describe the bacterial endospore

A
  • formed by some bacteria
  • dormant
  • resistance to heat, radiation, chemicals and desiccation
102
Q

what is the general overview of the eukaryotic cell

A
  • membrane delimited nuclei
  • membrane bound organelles
  • more structurally complex than prokaryotic cell
  • larger than prokaryotic cell
103
Q

describe the endoplasmic reticulum

A

irregular network of branching and fusing membranous tubules and flattened sacs

104
Q

describe rough ER and the other name for it

A
  • granular
  • ribosomes attached
  • synthesis of secreted proteins by ER associated ribosomes
105
Q

describe smooth ER and the other name for it

A

-agranular
- no ribosomes
- synthesis of lipids by ER associated enzymes

106
Q

what are the functions of ER

A

-transports proteins, lipids and other materials within cell
- major site of cell membrane synthesis
- synthesis of lysosomes

107
Q

describe the golgi apparatus and its function

A
  • memrbanous organelle made of cisternae stacked on each other
  • dicytosomes: stacks of cisternae
  • involved in modification, packaging and secretion of materials
108
Q

which direction do materials move in the golgi

A

cis or forming face -> to the trans or maturing face

109
Q

describe lysosomes and what they contain

A

-membrane bound vesicles
- contain hydrolytic enzymes needed for digestion of macromolecuels

110
Q

what is endocytosis

A

uptake of solutes or particples by enclosing them in vesicles or vacuoles pinched off from the plasma membrane

111
Q

what is phagocytosis

A

endocytosis of particles or bacterial cells

112
Q

what is pinocytosis

A

endocytosis of solutes

113
Q

what happens in the mitochondria

A

-tricarboxylic acid cycle activity
- ATP is generated by electron transport and oxidative phsophorylation

114
Q

describe the 3 main components of the mitochondrial structure

A
  • outer membrane
  • inner membrane
  • matrix
115
Q

describe the inner membrane of the mitochondria

A
  • highly folded to form cristae
  • location of enzymes and electron carriers for electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation
116
Q

describe the matrix of the mitochondria

A
  • contains ribosomes, mitochondrial DNA, and large calcium phosphate granules
  • contains enzymes of the tricarboxylic acid cycle and the beta oxidation pathway for fatty acids
117
Q

describe chromatin

A
  • dense fibrous material within the nucleus
  • contains DNA
  • condenses to form chromosomes during cell division
118
Q

describe the nuclear envelope

A
  • double membrane structure that delimits nucleus
  • has nuclear pores that allow materials to be transported into or out of nucleus
119
Q

what are the similarities between prokaryotes and eukaryotes

A

-same basic chemical composition
- same genetic code
- same basic metabolic processes

120
Q

what are the differences between prokaryotes and eukaryotes

A

-eukaryotes have membrane bound nucleus
- eukaryotes have DNA complexed with histones
- eukaryotes have more than one chromosome
-eukaryotes have introns in genes
-eukaryotes have nucleolus
-eukaryotes undergo mitosis and meiosis
-eukaryotes have mitochonria, chloroplasts, plasma membrane with sterols, ER, golgi, lysosomes, microtubules, and cytoskeleton
- eukaryotes have larger flagella
- eukaryotes have a simpler cell wall lacking peptidoglycan
- prokaryotes have cell wall complexed with peptidoglycan
- eukaryotes have 80S ribosome, prokaryotes have 70S
-