PMP TEST 3.1 Flashcards

1
Q

9Key members of a project are in the process of defining and assigning individual and team responsibilities. Which of the following is most critical for this team while the project management method is still not finalized?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Understanding the location and time zone of team members

Knowing the attitudes of team members

Having open communication and effective collaboration

Skill and experience of team members

A

Correct Option:C

EXPLANATION

Project responsibilities within a team Open communications and effective collaboration are critical regardless of the specific project management method chosen

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2
Q

12An important feature in Agile is to maintain a prioritized list of backlog. Which of the following is NOT a prioritization technique?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Monte Carlo simulation

Kano model

MoSCoW analysis

100 Points Method

A

Correct Option:A

EXPLANATION

Monte Carlo simulation is a technique used to understand the impact of risk and uncertainty in prediction and forecasting models.

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3
Q

14Estimations are fundamental in every project. Which of the following is used as an estimate in Agile projects?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Absolute time estimate

Relative measures

Three point estimate

Hours of effort

A

Correct Option:B

EXPLANATION

Story Point estimating uses relative measures, which can be helpful as an integrated assessment to provide time estimates.

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4
Q

15Teams in Agile approach take accountability to ensure that all the work required for an iteration is delivered. Which of the following statements is not true?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Agile teams are self-organized.

Task accountability need not be tracked.

Team members pull work for an iteration.

User stories are decomposed into required tasks.

A

Correct Option:B

EXPLANATION

Accountability of tasks should be tracked in an Agile approach.

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5
Q

17The Project Manager of a team observes that the project team is spending too much time during standups though this is meant to be a 15-minute ceremony every day. What could be the possible cause of this?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Team members might not be sticking to the agenda

The team might be trying to find solutions to problems that were brought up.

Team might not be making effective use of parking lot to discuss issues post the standup meeting

All of the above

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

Standup meetings should be focusing on the following 3 questions for every team member and are typically timeboxed for 15 minutes: What did you do yesterday? What will you do today? Are there any impediments?

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6
Q

18It is important to have a clear vision for every project. Sam states that Vision is about bridging the gap between where we are and where we want to be. John mentions that Vision is about satisfying customer needs based on the requirements provided. Vinod says that Vision is only meant for the organization as a whole and not required for a project. Joe states that Vision is a desired end state. Who among them is correct about Vision?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Sam and John

Vinod and Joe

Joe

Vinod

A

Correct Option:C

EXPLANATION

Vision is a desired end-state and it is critical to have a clear vision of the desired end objectives for a new project.

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7
Q

20Agile has certain ceremonies like daily standup, sprint review, and sprint retrospective. Which of the following is not true about the ceremonies?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Daily standups are status meetings.

Sprint planning is a collaborative event for planning the project release.

Both A and B are wrong

Both A and B are correct

A

Correct Option:C

EXPLANATION

Sprint planning plans the work for the current sprint, not an entire project. Daily standups are not status meetings. The are required for a team to reaffirm commitment to its objectives, coordinate work among team members, and surface potential blockers.

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8
Q

25Which is of the following techniques puts customers/stakeholders in the position of a marketer of the product?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

XP Metaphor

Product box exercise

Planning poker

None of the above

A

Correct Option:B

EXPLANATION

Product Box Exercise gets stakeholders to describe aspects of a solution in the same way a marketer might describe product features and benefits. It helps team understand the most critical value aspects of the solution.

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9
Q

27A senior member from the portfolio team of your organization has requested you to prepare a document to validate the benefits of a component since they do not have enough information. Which document would you prepare in this case?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Project implementation plan

Business needs document

Charter

Business Case

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

Business case is a documented economic feasibility study used to establish the validity of the benefits of a selected component when there is a lack of sufficient information.

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10
Q

28Agile Practice Guide categorizes project life cycle into 2 major types:
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Agile and Predictive

Predictive and Adaptive

Predictive and Incremental

Incremental and Iterative

A

Correct Option:B

EXPLANATION

Two major types of project life cycle as per Agile Practice Guide are predictive and adaptive.

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11
Q

31Which technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for analysis?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Mind mapping

Affinity diagram

Plurality

Benchmarking

A

Correct Option:B

EXPLANATION

Affinity diagram is a technique that allows large numbers of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis.

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12
Q

32A project manager requests his subject matter experts to build visuals to represent the project outcome with an intent to illustrate the functioning of a product. Which of the following is the project manager expecting from the SMEs?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Work breakdown structure

Storyboarding

Join application design

Quality function deployment

A

Correct Option:B

EXPLANATION

Storyboarding is a prototyping method that can use visuals or images to illustrate a process or represent a project outcome.

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13
Q

33Planning packages in WBS are:
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Activities meant for creating a plan

Components of known content without detailed schedule activities

Components in WBS with detailed steps to achieve a deliverable

All of the above

A

Correct Option:B

EXPLANATION

Planning package is a WBS component below the control account with known work content but without detailed schedule activities

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14
Q

34Code of Accounts in WBS is used:
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

As a management control point

As a tracking system by finance to verify costs

As a work package with dependencies

To identify components

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

A code of accounts is a numbering system used to uniquely identify each component of the WBS.

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15
Q

35Which of the following can a Scope Baseline include?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Cost baseline

Benefits plan

Planning package

Business case

A

Correct Option:C

EXPLANATION

A scope baseline may include any of the following components: Project scope statement, WBS, Work package, Planning package, WBS dictionary

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16
Q

38A typical user story contains:
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Risks

Constraints

Assumptions

Value

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

User stories describe the value/objective.

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17
Q

39Which of the following is NOT a tool/technique for verifying scope?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Definition of Done

Definition of Ready

Acceptance Criteria

Team review comments

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

DOD, DOR, and Acceptance criteria are tools and techniques for verifying the scope.

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18
Q

40A project manager is reviewing a checklist of all the criteria required to be met so that a deliverable can be considered ready for customer use. What is the checklist called?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Definition of Ready

Validation of Scope

Definition of Done

Acceptance Criteria

A

Correct Option:C

EXPLANATION

Definition of Done is a team’s checklist of all the criteria required to be met so that a deliverable can be considered ready for customer use.

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19
Q

43A charter for a simple project without much dependency is approved, and the team is working on Iterative scheduling. Which of the following is NOT true about Iterative scheduling?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

The method uses progressive elaboration

Iterative scheduling works best for complex projects with dependency

Stories that provide the highest value are prioritized

Stories are prioritized based on how long they take

A

Correct Option:B

EXPLANATION

Iterative scheduling with a backlog does not work well with activities that have complex dependency relationships.

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20
Q

45When do we use Agile methodologies in a project?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

During Initiation and Conclusion

During Execution

During Monitoring and Control

All of the above

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

Agile is a framework used across the lifecycle of the project.

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21
Q

47An Agile team is preparing for its retrospective. Which of the following is NOT correct about retrospectives?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

A retrospective is a review of what went well

A retrospective is a review of what could have been done better

A retrospective assesses team collaboration.

The product owner is not included as this is for the agile team

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

A retrospective meeting consists of the agile team, product owner, and key stakeholders

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22
Q

49Minimum business increment best works for:
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

A new product ideation

Creating MVP for a new product release

Products that are live and in-use

None of the above

A

Correct Option:C

EXPLANATION

Minimum Business Increment works best when the product and functions are understood or for improving products that are live and in-use.

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23
Q

51Diversity is an important element to implement effective leadership. One should be aware that the working style of individuals varies based on:
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Experience

Job role

Age

All of the above

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

Motivations and working styles of individuals and groups vary greatly based on their experiences, age, culture, job roles, and many more influencers.

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24
Q

53Value stream mapping is used to:
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Develop earned value management

Develop expected monetary value

Analyze flow of information

Compute overall value of the project

A

Correct Option:C

EXPLANATION

Value stream mapping is used to document, analyze, and improve the flow of information or materials required to provide a product or service for a customer.

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25
Q

55Impediments and blockers can be identified at various stages by the team. Which of the following is NOT true about impediments?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Can be uncovered during daily standups.

Can be represented using sticky notes on a whiteboard

Can be tracked using sophisticated software

Cannot be a result of project risks

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

Impediments may be due to or as a result of project risks or issues.

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26
Q

57Personality profile assessment can help assess and present the personality profile of each individual, which suggests ways to work with them. Which of the following is not a personality style assessment for individuals?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

DiSC model

Theory of Psychological types

Tuckman’s model

True colors methodology

A

Correct Option:C

EXPLANATION

Tuckman’s model articulates team formation cycle and is not about individual styles

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27
Q

60Project risks are captured, tracked, and managed using a risk register. Which of the following is true in relation to compliance with legal and regulatory requirements?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Risks related to compliance should include risk owner and impact.

Compliance validation must be assured as the project deliverables are created.

Risks are meant for the project team and are not related to compliance.

Both A and B

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

Identified risk, owner, impact and risk responses should be tracked to establish compliance with legal and regulatory requirements. It is also necessary to assure compliance validation as the deliverables are created.

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28
Q

64Which of the following is NOT a non-functional requirement?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Security of confidential information during transaction

Capacity of enough supply to meet demand

Product feature to enable online purchase

Both A and B

A

Correct Option:C

EXPLANATION

Non-functional requirements focus on usability and level of service warranty of the deliverables.

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29
Q

66Which of the following is done by QA?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Review the deliverable so that it meets functional and nonfunctional requirements

Suggest potential improvements

Make recommendations to address any noncompliance

All of the above

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

As the project team produces deliverables, quality assurance (QA) will review the deliverable, verify that it meets functional and nonfunctional requirements, and often identify and suggest potential improvements. QA will validate whether the deliverables align with compliance requirements and provide feedback on any variances.

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30
Q

68Quality audits are used to verify compliance and are generally conducted by an external team. Audits are generally used to: (Choose all options that are correct)
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER(S)

Share good practices from other projects in the organisation or industry

Highlight contributions to lessons learned

Identify critical path

None of the above

A

Correct Option:A, B

EXPLANATION

Quality audits are used to verify compliance with organizational policies, processes, and procedures. They are generally used to identify good practices being used, share good practices from other projects, proactively offer improvements to improve productivity, and highlight contributions to lessons learned.

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31
Q

69Which of the following are components of Business value?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Employee knowledge

Customer value

Channel partner value

All of the above

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

Shareholder value, customer value, channel partner value, and employee knowledge are all part of business value.

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32
Q

70A project management plan can contain many subsidiary plans. Which of the following is not correct about Benefits Management Plan?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

It describes how the benefits of a project will be derived.

It describes how the benefits are measured.

It is a subsidiary component of the project management plan.

It describes when the benefits will be realized, usually by project phase.

A

Correct Option:C

EXPLANATION

Benefits Management plan is a business document and is not a subsidiary component of the project management plan.

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33
Q

73PESTLE factors are:
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Techniques used to build project schedule

Used in aggregation of costs

Used to prioritize backlog items

Used to identify impact on business case

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

It is critical that project managers are aware of PESTLE factors that can impact their projects business case and be prepared to adapt accordingly.

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34
Q

75Which of the following is NOT true about continuous improvement?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

It is an ongoing effort.

You can make small incremental improvements.

It is a business strategy

It is not for large, breakthrough improvements

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

Continuous improvement is a business strategy that is developed at the organizational level for projects and can bring small, incremental or large, breakthrough improvements.

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35
Q

76TQM is an approach to improve business results. Which of the following is NOT true about TQM implementation by quality theorists?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Juran trilogy breaks quality management into quality planning control and improvement.

Taguchi method emphasizes that quality should be designed into the product.

Deming cycle is focused on one-time fix for quality to meet customer needs.

Six sigma emphasizes responding to customer needs by systematically removing defects.

A

Correct Option:C

EXPLANATION

Deming cycle focuses on continuous process improvement in which quality must be continuously improved to meet customer needs.

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36
Q

77Which of the following is NOT true about continuous improvement approaches? (Select all that apply)
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER(S)

Small development cycles in Agile project management give teams opportunity for continuous improvements.

Kaizen believes in large breakthroughs as small incremental improvements are not efficient.

Agile teams frequently go through the complete development process.

Kaizen believes in research, as improvement ideas come from researchers rather than workers themselves

A

Correct Option:B, D

EXPLANATION

Kaizen features include: Improvements based on many small changes Ideas come from workers themselves, rather than from expense research, consultants, or equipment.

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37
Q

78Which of the following statements is NOT true about a product life cycle?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

It starts with conception of a new product and ends with its withdrawal.

A product can spawn a single project in its life.

The five stages of each product lifecycle are product development, introduction, growth, maturity, and decline.

It focuses on managing the properties of a product from a company’s business point of view.

A

Correct Option:B

EXPLANATION

A product can spawn a single project in its life. Product lifecycle management (PLM) is the process of managing the entire lifecycle of a product from its conception, through design and manufacture, to service and disposal. PLM integrates people, data, processes, and business systems to provide a product information backbone for companies. The five stages of each product lifecycle are product development, introduction, growth, maturity, and decline. A product can spawn or require many projects over its life.

38
Q

81A manager who manages a collection of projects grouped together to facilitate effective management to meet strategic business objectives is called a:
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Program Manager

Portfolio Manager

Project Manager

Stakeholder

A

Correct Option:B

EXPLANATION

Portfolio refers to a collection of projects or programs grouped together to facilitate effective management to meet strategic business objectives, and the person managing it is called a Portfolio Manager. Portfolio management describes methods for analyzing and collectively managing a group of current or proposed projects based on numerous key characteristics like business objectives, technical strategy, goals, etc.

39
Q

83Which of the following is NOT true about the initiating process group?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Large projects may divide the projects into phases.

The project team members are committed.

Initial scope and financial resources are committed.

Internal and external stakeholders are identified.

A

Correct Option:B

EXPLANATION

The entire project team is usually not available during initiation.

40
Q

84Harry has been assigned the flyover construction project, and he is in the process of initiating the project. In order to meet the customer’s project expectations based on the business and compliance requirements, which of the following should Harry define FIRST?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Key deliverables

Project schedule

Project Statement of Work

Product Statement of Work

A

Correct Option:A

EXPLANATION

According to PMI’s classification, the Project Manager should define the key deliverables of the project based on the business and compliance requirements to meet the customer’s project expectations.

41
Q

85Jenny is a Project Manager and is currently in the initiating process group. She understands that it is critical for project success to identify stakeholders early in the project. Therefore, she is in the Identify Stakeholders process. Of the following, which INPUT may not be required?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Project documents

Project Charter

Expert Judgment

Enterprise environmental factors

A

Correct Option:C

EXPLANATION

Expert judgment is a tool and technique for the Identify Stakeholders process and is not an input

42
Q

87Which of the following is NOT true about the project charter?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

It provides the Project Manager the authority to assign organization resources.

It formally authorizes the project.

It details the business justification of the project.

It states what the project is, what the project will deliver, and how all the processes will be managed

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

Project Charter provides the high-level project description and product characteristics. It authorizes the project and provides the Project Manager the authority to assign organization resources.

43
Q

88You work as a Project Manager at a mobile phone chipset manufacturer. As predicted by Moore’s law, each year your company introduces a new model of mobile phone chipsets that are faster and more powerful than their predecessors. Mobile phone chipsets that are obsolete or do not sell are quickly retired from production. The chipsets’ life cycle begins in R and D, extends to manufacturing, and finally ends with phase out. This cycle is often referred to as:
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Product lifecycle

Project lifecycle

Feedback loop

Product development

A

Correct Option:A

EXPLANATION

A product life cycle consists of generally sequential, non-overlapping product phases determined by the manufacturing and control need of the organization. For more details on product lifecycle, refer to PMBOK Guide - Sixth Edition page 19.

44
Q

89A Project Manager has defined the key deliverables of the project based on the business and compliance requirements and is now identifying and documenting high-level risks, assumptions, and constraints based on current environment, historical data, and/or expert judgment to identify project limitations and propose an implementation approach. Which process group is the Project Manager in?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Initiating

Planning

Executing

Closing

A

Correct Option:A

EXPLANATION

It is during the initiating process group that you identify and document high-level risks, assumptions, and constraints to identify project limitations and thereafter propose an implementation approach.

45
Q

90Which of the following is NOT a function of the project management office?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Monitoring compliance with project management standards policies, procedures, and templates via project audits

Coaching, mentoring, training, and oversight

Managing shared resources across all projects administered by PMO

Identifying and developing the organization’s methodology, administrative practices, and rules

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

The PMO’s role is to identify and develop the project management methodology, best practices, and standards.

46
Q

97A key stakeholder from the quality department wants to know more about how the process tailoring was done by the project team. Additionally, the stakeholder would like to know the rationale for selecting processes, their implementation-level details, and how they will be used to manage interdependencies. Which document should the Project Manager refer the stakeholder to?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Project Statement of Work

Project Scope Statement

Project Management Plan

Work performance Information

A

Correct Option:C

EXPLANATION

The results of the process tailoring by the project team, along with all the other information required by the stakeholder, are captured in the project management plan.

47
Q

99You are the Project Manager of a highly visible and critical project in your company. This project was initiated with much fanfare, and you have some of the best technical experts in your project team. You are in the process of planning and detailing the scope of the project when you hear the project is being terminated. What could be the MOST likely cause?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

The senior management didn’t approve the project charter.

The project team didn’t have the required technical expertise.

The project sponsor failed to support the project.

The project contract was not signed off by the customer.

A

Correct Option:C

EXPLANATION

The answer to this question can be reached by the process of elimination. Since the project is already initiated and is in the planning stage, options A and D can’t be true. There is no evidence to believe option B, and the most probable explanation could be the failure to support the project by the sponsor. The term sponsor, by definition, suggests a financial responsibility. This sponsor is thought to “own the project and is considered responsible for ensuring its success. The sponsor is also typically the one who proposes the project in the first place, whose business unit reaps its benefits.

48
Q

100A Project Manager is in the process of documenting and defining a stakeholder’s needs to meet project objectives. What is the output of this process?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Stakeholder Register

Stakeholder Management Strategy

Requirements Documentation

Issue Log

A

Correct Option:C

EXPLANATION

The Project Manager is in the process of collecting requirements. The output of this is requirements documentation. This document describes how individual requirements meet the business need for the project. It is important that the requirements documented are unambiguous (measurable and testable), traceable, and acceptable to key stakeholders. Option A, stakeholder register, is only a list of stakeholders in the project; option B, stakeholder management strategy, describes the strategy to manage stakeholder expectations. Option D, issue log, is a document to capture project issues.

49
Q

101You have taken over as the Project Manager of a complex and technically challenging project. In addition, your team members are from diverse cultures and lack bonding. You want the team to participate and take ownership of project activities, as well as understand the big picture of the project. Which of the following activities would be most helpful?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Use colocation to help the team bond better, which in turn would maximize productivity

Create Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

Develop Responsibility Assignment Matrix to describe the roles and responsibilities of every team member

Conduct knowledge sessions where each member appraises the team about his or her culture

A

Correct Option:B

EXPLANATION

The Project Manager wants the team to take ownership as well as understand how individual project activities affect the overall project deliverable (the big picture). The Project Manager also wants the team to develop bonding. All these objectives are met when the team gets involved in creating the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) and WBS dictionary. Option A may not be always possible due to physical constraints in the project. Option D has limited utility, but Option B is the best choice as it fulfills multiple project objectives

50
Q

102You are a Project Manager working on a critical project. You track the project schedule closely. While going through the critical path, you realize that the project is showing negative float. What would be the BEST response to the situation?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Use a schedule compression technique

Reduce the number of resources from the project

Reduce the number of noncritical activities in the project

Revisit the risks and do a risk analysis of the project

A

Correct Option:A

EXPLANATION

Negative slack is the time required by a task beyond project’s scheduled completion.One of the causes for negative floats can be due to constraint set on tasks (E.g must finish by a certain date). A project manager can solve this by using schedule compression technique such as fast tracking or crashing.

51
Q

103A Project Manager is in the process of analyzing activity sequences, durations, resource requirements, and schedule constraints to create an approved project schedule. What should the Project Manager do NEXT?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Determine Resource Requirement for each activity in the project

Use techniques like Critical Path method and What-if Analysis to calculate the optimum duration of the project

Use this approved schedule duration as a baseline and start tracking the project

Create a Network diagram of the project using one of the diagramming methods

A

Correct Option:C

EXPLANATION

The Project Manager is in the develop schedule process. Since the project schedule has already been approved, options A, B, and D are already completed as part of the processes estimate activity resources, develop schedule, and sequence activities. The next step would be to treat this estimate as a schedule baseline and start tracking the project as part of the process control schedule.

52
Q

105A project activity has the following values for the earliest and latest it can start and the earliest and latest it can be completed. An activity’s Late Start (LS) is 5/day and Late Finish (LF) is 10/day. Similarly, Early Start (ES) is 3/day and Early finish (EF) is 8/day. What is the float of this activity?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

0 days

4 days

2 days

-3 days

A

Correct Option:C

EXPLANATION

Float for an activity can be calculated using the formulae (i.e. Float = LS-ES or LF-EF). In this case, float = 5-3 or 10- 8 or 2 days. Remember, float or slack is the amount of time a task in a project network can be delayed without causing a delay to subsequent tasks (free float) or the project completion date (total float).

53
Q

108You are managing a project which would provide e-learning solutions to your customer. The requirements of this project are not clearly defined in the beginning, and there would be modifications based on customer feedback as the project evolves. You decide to plan as much as you can and begin to create work while continuing the planning. Which of the following techniques would be most helpful while defining activities for the project?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Rolling Wave Planning

Templates

Extreme Programming

Just in Time

A

Correct Option:A

EXPLANATION

Rolling wave planning is a form of progressive elaboration where work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail and future work is planned at a higher level of the Work Breakdown Structure. Therefore, work can exist at various levels of detail depending on where it is in the project lifecycle. As more information is known about upcoming events, the higher-level work packages can be decomposed further. Templates, which are usually standardized, would not be a very helpful tool for evolving requirements. Option (c) and (d) are not recognized tools and techniques of project time management.

54
Q

109Which of the following statements about critical path is TRUE?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

It needs SMEs to work.

All the activities on the critical path do not have any float.

A project will have only one critical path.

A critical path takes into consideration logical as well as resource dependencies.

A

Correct Option:B

EXPLANATION

Critical path activities do not have any float. If any activity on the critical path is delayed, the completion of the project will be delayed by an equal amount. To determine the critical path, you have to add the amount of time estimated for the duration of each activity to the previous activity.

55
Q

110Which of the following are the MOST important to derive the total funding requirements and periodic funding requirements of the project?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Management Reserve and Contingency Reserve

Cost Baseline and Management Reserve

Funding Limit Reconciliation

Project Budget and Contingency Reserve

A

Correct Option:B

EXPLANATION

The total funds required in the project are those included in cost baseline, plus management reserve if any. Remember, the cost baseline includes contingency reserves because the cost baseline will include projected expenditures plus anticipated liabilities.

56
Q

113John, a project manager, wants to capture the details of activities, including their inputs, outputs, and interfaces with other processes, to enhance the value of the process. Which of the following documents would be MOST helpful?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Project Management Plan

Quality Management Plan

Process Improvement Plan

Product Management Plan

A

Correct Option:B

EXPLANATION

Quality management plan would be most helpful as it considers the continuous improvement procedure.

57
Q

114Which of the following would NOT be part of cost of conformance?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Prevention cost

Appraisal cost

Internal failure cost

Cost of training

A

Correct Option:C

EXPLANATION

Internal failure cost (including failure found by the project internally, like rework and scrap) is not part of the cost of conformance. All the failure costs (including external failure costs) are referred to as the cost of poor quality. The cost of conformance denotes the money spent during the project to avoid failures.

58
Q

116According to Maslow’s Hierarchy of needs, what comes HIGHEST on the pyramid?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Social

Safety

Physiological

Hygiene Factors

A

Correct Option:A

EXPLANATION

According to Maslow, there are five levels of human needs from bottom to top: physiological, safety, social, esteem, and self-actualization. Hygiene factors, is part of Herzberg’s theory.

59
Q

117A pharmaceutical company wants to launch a new over-the-counter medication for flu in the U.S. The Project Manager is identifying project communication constraints. Which of the following is NOT a valid constraint?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

The company should get an FDA approval before producing or selling the medicine.

The key person responsible for communicating the information on the project may not be available through the entire project.

The milestone meeting should be attended by all the major key stakeholders.

The project has teams working in different geographical locations and time shifts.

A

Correct Option:B

EXPLANATION

A communication constraint is usually derived from specific legislation or regulation (Option A), organizational policies (Option C), or a project constraint (Option D). This limits the project’s options during communication management. However, Option B is an uncertain event or risk in the project which needs to be addressed through risk management.

60
Q

118You are a Project Manager in a financial firm with multinational dealings. You feel the financial meltdown in one of the client’s countries could affect your project adversely, and you want to hedge your risks. Although the probability of occurrence of the event is low, you are advised to play it safe. In terms of risk attitude, your organization could BEST be described as:
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Risk Seeker

Risk Averse

Risk Neutral

Risk Mitigator

A

Correct Option:B

EXPLANATION

Someone who doesn’t want to take risks is called risk averse, and the Project Manager seems to be part of such an organization. Option C, risk neutral, describes a person/or an organization that is indifferent to the risk, and Option A, risk seeker, suggests an aptitude to take risks with an opportunity for higher returns. Option D, risk mitigation, is a risk response strategy and is an invalid choice.

61
Q

119Which of the following is NOT a tool used in the perform qualitative risk analysis process?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Probability and Impact Matrix

Facilitation

Monte Carlo Simulation

Interview

A

Correct Option:C

EXPLANATION

Monte Carlo Simulation is typically associated with the quantitative risk analysis process. It generates the output as a range instead of a fixed value and shows how likely the output value is to occur in the range.

62
Q

120Which of the following is an example of Lead?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Pillars for a structure can be started 7 days after the foundation to allow for curing.

Test lab preparation can start 5 days before a product is made available for testing.

Both test planning and product development can start simultaneously after the design is finalized.

Crash tests cannot be carried out until a working final model is made available.

A

Correct Option:B

EXPLANATION

Lead means that the successor activity can start in advance of the predecessor activity.

63
Q

25A Project Manager is facing many serious issues in his project to create an application for a hospital management system. The project’s final deliverable is scheduled for two weeks from now. It needs to fulfill compliance with mandatory government health standards. In addition, there are some changes required to improve performance, which the Project Manager feels will make the customer happy. Amidst all of this, a senior test engineer asks the Project Manager for a long leave. Which is the most critical issue the Project Manager needs to address FIRST?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Ensure the product is compliant to government health standards

Find a replacement for the senior tester and ensure he completes knowledge transfer before leaving

Complete change control process to incorporate changes to enhance performance

Notify the customer about probable delay in the final deliverable to avoid surprises later

A

Correct Option:A

EXPLANATION

This question exemplifies a typical scenario when a Project Manager needs to integrate information and prioritize the most critical issue. In this scenario, Option C is part of gold plating and is not actually required for the project. Option B can pose some trouble to the Project Manager. The question doesn’t clearly establish whether the resource is leaving before or after the final delivery. There is no indication that his absence would adversely affect the project delivery. In this situation, the most important thing to focus on is the compliance testing, as it is a mandatory requirement on the project.

64
Q

126You are a Project Manager taking over a project midway. It is in the execution phase. You would like to know more about project deliverables, work required to complete those deliverables, project constraints, assumptions, etc. Which of the following documents would be MOST useful?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

Requirements Documentation

Activity List

Project Scope Statement

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

The Project Manager should refer to the project scope statement as it captures all the details related to the project scope, including product acceptance criteria, scope description, project deliverables, constraints, assumptions, etc. Options A and Option C define project scope at the smaller work package and activity level respectively. Option B, Requirements Documentation, captures requirements of the project related to quality, functional and non-functional aspects, support, etc. This is incorrect.

65
Q

127A project is relying on a contractor to deliver a component. The contractor informs the Project Manager about the likelihood of a 3-week delay in the delivery date. What should the Project Manager do?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Meet with the team to discuss the issue

Escalate the matter to the senior management of the contractor as per the escalation matrix

Issue a formal show-cause notice asking why the contract could not be submitted

Inform the senior management and the customer about the possibility of delay to the overall project due to the delayed component

A

Correct Option:A

EXPLANATION

The first thing to do is to understand the impact and find out how the impact can be contained. Only after this is done can other steps be considered.

66
Q

128You are managing an e-banking solution project when the Vice-President of the company calls you to discuss an opportunity to manage a critical company project that can boost your career and professional experience. Your e-banking solution project is due to be completed in 3 weeks. What is your best response to the Vice-President?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

You would like to manage both the projects together as the latter is a critical project for the company.

You would use a compression technique to finish your current project faster and then take up this new project.

Since the new project is more critical to the organization, you could take this project immediately. Your earlier project can be managed by someone else, as it is about to be completed anyway.

The project should first develop an approved project charter, which would formally initiate the project.

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

The new project should be formally initiated with an approved project charter. This authorizes a Project Manager to apply resources to the project. With this in mind, a Project Sponsor should first develop a project charter. Options A, B, and C are not suitable until the new project is formally initiated.

67
Q

130An infrastructure company had an option of bidding for a toll highway project with an NPV of $5 million, but they opted to bid for a power plant project with an NPV of $6 million. $5 million represents _________ for the company.
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Opportunity cost

Depreciation

Sunk Costs

Internal Rate of Return

A

Correct Option:A

EXPLANATION

Opportunity cost is the cost of the opportunity that was foregone in choosing a different option.

68
Q

131You are the Project Manager for an IT company in the final phases of project execution. Your project status is well within the budget and you are almost a week ahead of your schedule. During the final testing phase of the project, you realize that the performance of the product can be increased by almost 20% of the expected value by doing minor code changes in two modules. This change would require an additional 2 days of work. What should you do NEXT?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Analyze the various alternatives and do a detailed impact analysis before proceeding with the change

Update the change management form and send it to change control board for consideration

Discuss the change and impact with the customer and seek their approval

Ignore the change as it is gold plating and should be avoided

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

This is an example of gold plating because this requirement is not actually part of the contract. Such additions are usually based on a perceived notion of what the customer would like rather than a specific requirement from the customer. Gold plating is defined in simple words as adding more to the system than is specified in the requirements. Gold plating can increase operation and maintenance costs and reduce quality as well.

69
Q

132A Project Manager is going through the defect report to review the bugs reported during the testing cycle of a software project. The report has information on the severity of the bugs, origin of the bugs, and possible resolutions, along with the owner and reporter of the bugs. The Project Manager wants to prioritize bug fixing activities by evaluating the three most frequent reasons for the defects. Which of the following tools should the Project Manager use?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Control chart

Fishbone diagram

Scatter diagram

Pareto chart

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

Pareto charts work on the Pareto principle, which states that 80% of the problems usually stem from 20% of the causes. Pareto charts can be used for defect analysis by arranging defect data so that the few vital factors that are causing most of the problems reveal themselves. Concentrating improvement efforts on these few factors will have a greater impact and be more cost-effective than undirected efforts.

70
Q

138Your software project is in the critical system testing stage when two of the senior members of the team come to you with a conflict on usage of the simulation software during testing. One person claims that the other person keeps the software engaged for almost all the working hours of the project. You decide to change their working schedules so that they no longer overlap. Which of the following techniques for conflict resolution are you using?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Compromising

Collaborating

Forcing

Smoothing

A

Correct Option:A

EXPLANATION

This would be a compromise for both of them.Both team members have to adjust their working schedules to accommodate the limited availability of the simulation software.

71
Q

139As a Project Manager, you decide to create an issue log that captures issue description, owner, and the target date for issue closure. Which of the following is NOT a common issue in a project?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Differences in Opinion

Probable delay in the next delivery

Pending Root cause Analysis

Delay in receiving feedback from the customer

A

Correct Option:B

EXPLANATION

Probable delay in the next delivery represents a project risk and is not an issue as the event is uncertain. This may or may not happen in the future.

72
Q

140A Project Manager is working on shortlisting, interviewing, and selecting candidates for the open positions within a project as per the job descriptions. Which process group is being worked on here?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Planning

Initiating

Controlling

Executing

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

The process being worked on is Acquire Project Team, which is part of the Executing process group.

73
Q

147A key stakeholder expresses concern over lack of project visibility and progress and says that project status reports lack information relevant to the stakeholder’s department. How should the Project Manager respond?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Review the Project Communication Management Plan to determine the stakeholders’ needs

Take another look at the Manage Communications process to identify the gaps

Raise a change request to address the stakeholder’s feedback

Take another look at the monitor Communications process to understand the problem

A

Correct Option:A

EXPLANATION

The communication management plan determines the project stakeholders’ information needs and defines the communication approach. It is the document that would help resolve the stakeholder’s issues. Since the stakeholder is receiving timely performance reports, options (b) and (c) are not correct.

74
Q

148A Project Manager in an e-learning project is using free downloadable tutorials via the Internet to reach out to large audiences. This communication method is called:
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Interactive Communication

Pull Communication

Push Communication

Personal communication

A

Correct Option:B

EXPLANATION

This is an example of a pull communication method, which is used for large volumes of information or for large audiences. It is used when recipients access the communication content at their own discretion. It is easier to recall pull communication as “pulling of information” as desired by the receiver at his or her discretion.

75
Q

152A Project Manager is conducting a bidder conference to select the most suitable sellers. Which of the following tools will NOT be helpful?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Advertising

Proposal evaluation

Procurement Negotiations

Make-or-Buy analysis

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

The Project Manager is in the process of conducting procurements. Make-or-buy analysis is not a part of the tools and techniques used in this process but is part of the plan procurement process.

76
Q

161A Project Manager, Joe, is discussing the observed variations between planned and actual values of defects with his quality engineer. He realizes that he has forgotten to identify one of the important metrics to analyze defects. Which process group is the Project Manager in if he evaluates the current result for the metric to see if it requires corrective action?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Planning

Executing

Monitor and Control

Quality Audit

A

Correct Option:C

EXPLANATION

The activity of identifying applicable quality standards, processes, and metrics is completed as part of project planning. In this case, the Project Manager is evaluating the variation in the current results for the new metric and whether it requires corrective action. Hence, he is in the monitor and control process group.

77
Q

165A Project Manager has delivered a major deliverable of the project. The customer comes back a week after the release saying that he is not entirely satisfied with the deliverable. What should the Project Manager do NEXT?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Continue with the next deliverable as the project has to be finished on time

Talk to the Senior Manager to discuss the customer’s concern and resolution

Ensure that the next deliverables have the features that the customer specified and exceed his expectations

Do a scope verification of this deliverable to check if it satisfies project objectives

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

Verifying the project scope includes reviewing deliverables to ensure that each is completed satisfactorily. If this is successful, it should provide customer satisfaction. Option C is gold plating, i.e., providing the customer something they didn’t ask for and that wouldn’t solve the problem. Options A and B avoid addressing the main problem directly and are not recommended.

78
Q

166Your project is in the final stages of testing, and the team is interacting with the customer on a daily basis to update the customer about the project status and incorporate feedback. Which of the following would be the most critical process to be followed in this scenario?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Control Quality

Control Scope

Manage Communications

Monitor Risks

A

Correct Option:B

EXPLANATION

In this case, frequent changes are expected to be made by the team based on customer feedback. When a change is presented, a part of considering the change involves additional planning. The Project Manager and the team must examine how the change affects the project work and knowledge areas. Thus, Control scope ensures that the project scope is protected from unnecessary changes and all eligible changes are made using the scope change control system. Option A, Control Quality, is more focused on ensuring conformance to documented standards and is not the correct choice.

79
Q

167John, a Project Manager, is proactively managing change through the control scope process. Which of the following should he be MOST worried about?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Value-Added Changes

Errors and Omissions

Risk Response

Verbal communication from key stakeholders

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

Undocumented changes should never be allowed by the Project Manager. He or she should ensure that whenever a change is requested, the impact on features and functions of the product (including that on the triple constraints) is documented with a change request. Only then should the change continue through integrated change control. Option A, value-added changes, describes changes in the scope that would provide benefits such as cost reduction. Option B, errors and omissions, could be both in project scope, which is the work required to complete the project, and the product scope, which refers to the features and functions of the deliverables. Option C, risk response, involves changes in the scope required to mitigate an identified risk. Option D, verbal undocumented changes, poses maximum potential threat to a project.

80
Q

168The ES of an activity is 2 days, and the duration of the activity is 5 days. The LF for the activity is 8 days. What is the total float for this activity?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

6 days

3 days

1 day

5 days

A

Correct Option:C

EXPLANATION

We can calculate float using the formula EF=ES+D=2+5=7 and LS=LF-D=8-5=3. The formula for total float is LS-ES or LF-EF. The answer is 1 day.

81
Q

169As a Project Manager and member of the PMO (Project Management Office), you want to present a snapshot of the status of various projects that the organization is working on to the senior management. Which of the following charts would be most suitable for the purpose?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Milestone chart

Gantt Chart

Precedence diagram

Control chart

A

Correct Option:A

EXPLANATION

A milestone chart depicts key events along a timescale. It is used for top-level reporting so that management does not become bogged down in the details of the projects. A milestone chart can contain various colors or markings that indicate status. It can also contain other information related to the project(s), like customers, responsibility, duration, phase of the milestone, etc.

82
Q

170You are trying to figure out if there is a correlation between the slack time available in a shift and the number of rejected components produced during the shift. Which tool will you use to analyze this?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Pareto chart

Ishikawa diagram

Histogram

Scatter diagram

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

Scatter diagrams are used to plot data between two variables to figure out if there is a pattern or correlation between them.

83
Q

171You are managing an infrastructure project that is nearing completion when a major stakeholder points out a flaw in the design that could make the entire structure weak. He suggests that you construct two support pillars that would provide the necessary support. You are worried that this change could impact the schedule and cost of the project significantly. What is your BEST response to the stakeholder?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Refuse his suggestion as the project is already nearing completion and it’s not possible to make any changes at this stage

Do a root cause analysis with the team to determine how this design flaw could have been missed and if there could be more potential problems with the design

Proceed with the change and communicate the impact on project schedule and cost to the customer

Use a schedule compression technique as part of integrated change control to investigate and minimize the adverse impact of the change

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

Schedule compression technique is useful not only during project planning to see if the desired completion date can be met but also during integrated change control to look at the schedule impacts of changes to time, cost, scope, or risk. Option B seems to be in good faith but doesn’t address the immediate problem. Option C should be done once all the alternatives are explored to minimize the adverse effect of the change on the project schedule and other constraints.

84
Q

172As a Project Manager, you realize that the initial budget cost, Budget at Completion (BAC), for your project is no longer viable. You need to develop a new Estimate At Completion (EAC) forecast assuming that current variances would continue in the future. Which of the following formulae should you use to calculate EAC? Here, AC is the Actual Cost, EV is the Earned Value, and PV is the Planned Value.
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

EAC = AC + ETC

EAC= AC+ (BAC - EV)

EAC = EV/PV

EAC = BAC/Cumulative CPI

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

This method assumes current variances to be typical of the future. The remaining work is assumed to be performed at the same cumulative cost performance index (CPI) as what has been incurred by the project to date.

85
Q

173Earned value management is the tool and technique of which process?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Perform Integrated Change Control

Control Costs

Direct and Manage project work

Control Schedule

A

Correct Option:B

EXPLANATION

Earned value management is a tool and technique of the Control Costs process. See page 261 of PMBOK Guide - Sixth Edition

86
Q

174A project team with a CPI of 0.78 is looking for options to reduce cost. Which of the following would be the BEST option to do so?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Reduce a test cycle in the system testing phase

Reduce scope by cutting down non-essential features

Add more resources to expedite the schedule

Revisit estimates, eliminate risks, and then re-estimate

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

Option C wouldn’t reduce cost. Option A and B would have a negative effect as they compromise on quality or scope. Of all the available options, D is the one with minimum negative effect.

87
Q

175You are a Project Manager. You need to decide whether to buy insurance for a temporary manufacturing facility. The likelihood of a mishap is assessed at 10% and the likely impact is evaluated at $500,000. The cost of insuring is $20,000 and has a $10,000 deductible. Would you buy insurance?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Yes, because 50,000 > 21,000

Yes, because 50,000 > 30,000

No, because 30,000 < 500,000

No, because 21,000 < 50,000

A

Correct Option:A

EXPLANATION

EMV when there is no insurance is -500,000 * 0.1 = $50,000. EMV when there is insurance is -(20,000+ 0.1*10,000) = -21,000. Therefore, it makes sense to buy insurance.

88
Q

176A project has a CV of -$500 and SPI of 1.2. What can be said about the project?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Your project is over budget and behind schedule

Your project is under budget and behind schedule

Your project is over budget and ahead of schedule

Your project is under budget and ahead of schedule

A

Correct Option:C

EXPLANATION

CV < 0 indicates that the project over budget; SPI > 1 indicates that project is ahead of schedule

89
Q

177As a manager, you would like to get the status on the remaining work with respect to the remaining funds. Which of the following measures will give you the information?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

To-Complete Performance Index

Earned Value Technique Performance

Variance Analysis

Trend Analysis

A

Correct Option:A

EXPLANATION

To-Complete Performance Index (TCPI) is the calculated projection of cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to meet a specified management goal. The formula to calculate TCPI is Work Remaining (BAC-EV)/Funds Remaining (BAC-AC) or (EAC-AC), where AC is the Actual Cost, EV is the Earned Value, EAC is Estimate at Completion, and BAC is Budget at Completion.

90
Q

178In a normal distribution, what is the probability of finding the actual value between 1 standard deviation distance from the mean?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

  1. 95
  2. 9973
  3. 5
  4. 68
A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

The answer is based on the property of the normal distribution where 68% of data falls within 1 SD, 95 % of data falls within 2SD and 99% data falls within 3 SD.

91
Q

179A team is inspecting specific project deliverables to ensure that they are in accordance with the specifications. Which process is the team working on?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Manage quality

Validate Scope

Plan Quality Management

Control Quality

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

Quality control is the process of examining specific project deliverables to ensure they are in accordance with the requirements/specifications.

92
Q

180Your project is going through an audit cycle. One of the senior auditors points out that the target value for Schedule Performance Index (SPI) is set to a low value and should be increased by at least 5 percent. You try to tell the auditor that this target value is in accordance with the organization baseline and cannot be changed. Which of the following is the CORRECT statement in this case?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

The auditor is right; as the project must meet a critical deadline, target SPI should be increased.

The auditor is right; the target value of SPI is a benchmark for the project, and it should be kept high.

The Project Manager is right; as the project schedule is not critical, target SPI value needn’t be kept too high.

The Project Manager is right; target SPI is based on an organization baseline derived from its process maturity level and should be followed by the project.

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

Most organizations set up an organization-level baseline called Process Capability Baseline (PCB). This specifies what results to expect when a process is followed. Using PCB, a project manager can predict, at the gross level, effort required at various stages, defect densities, overall quality, and productivity. In this case, the Project Manager is right to set the target values of his project metrics based on the organization baseline value.