Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

questions i got wrong > phase 2a sba > Flashcards

phase 2a sba Flashcards

1
Q

what antiplatelet therapy do MI patients require

A

dual antiplatelet therapy consisting of aspirin and a PY12 inhibitor (e.g
clopidogrel, ticagrelor or prasugrel).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

pharmacology of spironolactone?

A

Inhibition of aldosterone receptor in the distal tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

whats the diagnosis for audible pan-systolic murmur at the apex

A

Mitral regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

which ECG changes is most typically seen in a patient with a myocardial
infarction?

A

ST depression

Myocardial infarction ECG changes include: ST elevation, ST depression (C), T wave inversion,
abnormal Q wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

patient comes to A&E with slurred speech, left arm weakness and a severely ataxic gait. Which underlying condition
is most likely to have contributed to this presentation?

A

Atrial fibrillation

AF increases the risk of stroke due to blood collecting in the atria and forming clots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

patient has hypertension and suspected Conns - What medication
is prescribed prior to her operation to stabilise her BP and K+ levels?

A

Spironolactone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

3 key aspects of conns syndrome

A
  • hypertension associated with
    hypokalaemia
  • hypertension despite being on 3 or more antihypertensive
  • hypertension before 40
    years of age
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is not a cause of hypercalcaemia?
A. Down’s syndrome
B. Familial benign hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia
C. Malignancy
D. Sarcoidosis
E. Thyrotoxicosis

A

Down’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

causes of hypercalcaemia

A

CHIMPANZEES-
Calcium supplements,
Hydrochlorothiazide,
Iatrogenic/Immobilisation,
Multiple myeloma/Medication (lithium),
Parathyroidhyperplasia,
Alcohol,
Neoplasm,
Zollinger ellison syndrome,
Excessive Vit D,
Excess Vit A,
Sarcoidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

side effects of tamsulosin

A

Postural Hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what does tamsulosin do

A

is a selective alpha 1-adrenenergic receptor antagonist which relaxes the smooth muscle in the bladder neck and prostate, allowing an increase in urinary flow rate and an improvement in obstructive symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

why does tamsulosin cause postural hypotension

A

alpha 1 adrenoceptors are also found in smooth muscle of blood
vessels and therefore alpha blockers cab also lower vascular resistance resulting in postural hypotension, dizziness and syncope.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following U&E components should we be most concerned about with an AKI patient
A. Chlorine
B. Creatinine
C. Potassium
D. Sodium
E. Urea

A

potassium

When a patient with an AKI’s kidney function start failing, they are unable to excrete potassium.
When this happens, it causes a build-up in the blood and leads to hyperkalaemia which is a medical
emergency as it can result in a cardiac arrest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

pharmacology of furosemide

A

Loop diuretic acting on ascending limb of loop of Henle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how to diagnose CML

A
  • WCC very high
  • haemoglobin and platelets can be higher or lower.
  • because there is an increase in
    cell turnover of myeloblast cells which further differentiate into basophils, neutrophils and
    eosinophils.
  • Leucocytosis is an increase in
    WBCs in the blood stream which occurs due to the abnormal proliferation of WBCs in CML.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

. Which of the following is not a risk factor for a deep vein thrombosis?
A. Dehydration
B. Malignancy
C. Nausea
D. Obesity
E. Varicose Veins

A

nausea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following findings would you least
expect to find in a patient with iron deficiency anaemia?
A. Brittle hair and nails
B. Koilonychia
C. Pale conjunctivae
D. Reduced reflexes
E. Systolic flow murmur

A

reduced reflexes - this is macrocytic anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A patient recently started ceftriaxone for meningitis which has caused haemolysis, what
would you expect to see on assessment of the patient?

A

Presence of dark urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

side effects of amitryptiline

A
  • blurred vision
  • confusion
  • dry mouth
  • urinary retention
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the three cardinal signs of heart failure?

A

Shortness of breath, fatigue, ankle oedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

ECG signs of right bundle branch block

A

R wave in V1 and Slurred S wave in V6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

distinctive signs of infectve endocarditis

A
  • splinter haemorrhages
  • Osler’s nodes,
  • janeway lesions
  • Roth spots
  • fever.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how to treat GORD

A

Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor commonly given as first line medication for GORD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

first line investigation for bowel obstruction

A

Abdominal X-ray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

complications of untreated GORD

A
  • oesophagitis
  • oesophageal ulcers and strictures
  • oesophageal cancer
  • barrrets oesophagus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

presentation of coeliacs

A
  • smelly floaty stools (Steatorrhea),
  • diarrhoea
  • weight loss.
  • Dermatitis Herpetiformis,
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

gold standard investigation for bowel cancer

A

colonoscopy

Double contrast barium enema is 2nd line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

causes of diverticulum

A

Low fibre diet
Obesity
NSAIDs
Smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A 38-year-old female presents to you with bouts of diarrhoea with urgency, fatigue,
abdominal pain and mouth ulcers. She smokes and complains of a stressful life. What
investigation result may you expect to see

A

she has crohns so

Anaemia due to Iron and Folate deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

describe chronic prostatitis

A
  • characterised by pelvic or perineal pain lasting longer than 3 months as the key symptom.
  • trauma causing nerve damage in the lower urinary tract is a risk factor for chronic prostatitis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what drug can u not give a pregnant woman for uti

A

Trimethoprim - carries a teratogenic risk in the first trimester as it inhibits folate synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

complications of PKD

A
  • Cardiovascular disease
  • Kidney stones
  • Polycystic liver disease
  • Subarachnoid haemorrhage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

describe ann arbor staging for lymphoma

A

I Confined to single lymph node region.

II Involvement of two or more nodal areas on the same side of the diaphragm.

III Involvement of nodes on both sides of the diaphragm.

IV Spread beyond the lymph nodes, e.g. liver or bone marrow.

Each stage is either ‘a’—no systemic symptoms other than pruritus; or ‘b’—presence of b symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

management of Venous ThromboEmbolsism in post-hip replacement patients states

A

Dalteparin acutely then maintenance treatment with apixaban

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

define hyperplasia

A

Increased size of a tissue due to increase in number of constituent cells

36
Q

components of atherosclerotic plaques

A
  • connective tissue
  • foam cells- lipid-laden macrophages
  • T lymphocytes
  • smooth muscle cells

Others; cholesterol, lipid deposits, fragments of destroyed
internal elastic lamina

37
Q

What cell type is the end result of the metaplastic change in Barrett’s oesophagus?

A

Barrett’s oesophagus occurs where the oesophageal stratified squamous cells undergo metaplasia to simple columnar cells

38
Q

what is thee most indicative of prostate cancer?

A

A hard, craggy prostate on DRE

39
Q

What is the 1st line pharmaceutical treatment for
paracetamol overdose?

A
  • N-acetyl cystine
40
Q

which disease has high AMA antibodies

A

Primary Biliary Cholangitis (PBC)

41
Q

characteristics of upper GI bleeds

A
  • Coffee ground vomit
  • Hypotension
  • Melaena
  • Tachycardia
42
Q

what is The main complication to be concerned about in alcohol withdrawal

A

seizures - The 1st line treatment of withdrawal seizures is chlordiazepoxide

43
Q

side effect of alendronic acid

A

Alendronic acid is a bisphosphonate. Bisphosphonates can cause oesophagitis and so it is
recommended that patients take them first thing in the morning and remain upright for at least 30
minutes.

44
Q

most appropriate in diagnosing Sjogren’s syndrome?

A

Schirmer’s test

45
Q
  1. Which of the following X ray signs is mostly likely to be found a patient with psoriatic
    arthritis?
A

Pencil in cup - in arthritis mutilans, a severe form of psoriatic
arthritis

46
Q

Ankylosing Spondylitis first line management

A

ibuprofen

47
Q

presentation of psuedogout

A

typically presents as an acute onset of monoarthritis, often in the knee.

A fever may also be present.

Risk factors include IV fluids and
parathyroidectomy (the benign tumour in his neck) as these can derange calcium levels.

48
Q

Which of the following medications is the most appropriate to prescribe to prevent future gout
attacks occurring?

A

allopurinol

49
Q

what T score suggests osteopenia

A

A T score of -1 to -2.5

50
Q

what T score suggests osteoporosis

A

a score of under -2.5
suggests osteoporosis

51
Q

what MSK disorder can chlamidya cause

A

Reactive arthritis

This can cause Reiter’s
triad of conjunctivitis, urethritis and arthritis (can’t see, can’t pee, can’t climb tree) as well as
keratoderma blennorrhagium (the rash on his feet) and mouth ulcers

52
Q

what imaging is preferred for stroke

A

CT because it is fast

MRI is sensitive and specific but not readily available

53
Q

describe amaurosis fugax

A

painless, unilateral vision loss secondary to emboli such as to lodge within the retinal artery

54
Q

common features in patients with parkinsons

A
  • Blank facial expressions except when told to smile
  • Extremely small handwriting
  • Rigid limbs and difficulty getting out of bed
  • Slow walking
55
Q

which features are likely in patients with brain tumours

A

Coma
Dysdiadochokinesis
Nausea and vomiting
Seizures

56
Q

treatment of giant cell (temporal) arteritis

A

Oral prednisolone

57
Q

risk factors for peripheral neuropathies

A

Diabetes Mellitus
immunocompromised status
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Thiamine (Vit B1) deficiency

58
Q

Adult patients with acute ischaemic stroke should receive alteplase treatment within what
time after onset of their symptoms?

A

<4.5hrs

. IV alteplase – a clot busting drug or tissue
plasminogen activator

59
Q

What is the commonest cause of an infective exacerbation of COPD?

A

Haemophilus influenzae

60
Q

Which of the following is a sign of a life-threatening asthma attack?
A. Inability to complete sentences in one breath
B. SpO2 <92%
C. Pulse < 110
D. RR≥25
E. RR<25

A

SpO2 92%

61
Q

Which
medication below is most commonly associated with a fine tremor?

A

Salbutamol Inhaler

62
Q

Which type of lung cancer is most commonly seen in non-smokers

A

Adenocarcinoma

63
Q

presentation of PE

A

pleuritic chest pain
(worse on deep breaths), shortness of breath and haemoptysis.
Pregnancy - RISK FACTOR

64
Q

Which of the following is not a risk factor for a Pulmonary Embolism?
A. Antiphospholipid syndrome
B. Cancer
C. Early mobility post-surgery
D. Factor V Leiden mutation
E. Synthetic Oestrogen

A

Early mobility post-surGERY

65
Q

presentation of TB

A
  • productive cough for 4 months and sputum is sometimes tinged with blood.
  • night sweats, fatigue, a decreased appetite
  • cavitating lesion in the upper left lobe and hilar lymphadenopathy
  • sputum sample is taken which comes back positive for
    growing acid-fast bacilli
66
Q

an excess of which foods
would decrease warfarin’s effect

A

spinach - because it is high in vitamin K

67
Q

licensed treatment for heroin addiction

A

Methadone

68
Q

what drug should you take before surgery for phaochromocytoma

A

Phenoxybenzamine

69
Q

give a complication of Clostridium Difficile infection?

A
  • Pseudomembranous colitis
70
Q

symptoms of severe infective gastrienteritis

A
  • Bloody diarrhoea
  • Fever
  • Headache
  • Reduced skin turgor
71
Q

causes of aytpical pneumonia

A
  • Chlamydia psittaci
  • Coxiella burnetii
  • Legionella pneumophila
  • Mycoplasma pneumoniae
72
Q

Which antibiotic is not indicated in Staphylococcus Aureus infection?

A

Ampicillin

73
Q

Which heart valve is most commonly affected in infective endocarditis?

A

tricuspid

74
Q

give a Gram-negative diplococcus?

A

Neisseria spp

75
Q

. Which of the following antibiotics does not inhibit cell wall synthesis?
A. Benzylpenicillin
B. Cefotaxime
C. Erythromycin
D. Teicoplanin
E. Vancomycin

A
  • Erythromycin
76
Q

Which is the most common cause of bacterial pneumonia?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae`

77
Q

A 58-year-old male presents with sudden painful inflammation of his big toe. What is the
treatment?

A

Colchicine - for gout

78
Q

extra dural haemrrhoage characteristicd

A

A lemon shaped bleed and a lucid period following a head injury in the brain is characteristic of
an extradural haemorrhage which is caused by a rupture of the middle meningeal artery

79
Q

first line treatment for migraine

A

ibuprofen

80
Q

treatment for chorea

A

risperidone – dopamine receptor antagonist that helps to manage aggression and chorea.
Belongs to the antipsychotic drug class

81
Q

What is the treatment for Guillian-Barre syndrome?

A

IV immunoglobulins

82
Q

causes of tension headaches

A

Depression, lack of sleep, missed meals and stress

83
Q

treatment for confirmed PE

A

DOAC
such as apixaban or rivaroxaban,

if this is unsuitable or contraindicated then you can start them on
LMWH such as dalteparin

84
Q

how to treat classic primary spontaneous pneumothorax, which has developed into a tension pneumothorax

A

immediate decompression via large bore canula

85
Q

What drug group cause bronchodilation by blocking acetylcholine receptors which
normally cause contraction of bronchial smooth muscle?

A

Long-acting muscarinic antagonists

86
Q

describe the 6 in 1 vaccine

A

The 6-in-1 vaccine is given to babies three times when they are 8, 12 and 16 weeks old. Currently it
vaccinates against diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Hib and Hepatitis B. T

questions i got wrong (25 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions