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questions i got wrong > phase 2 saq 3 > Flashcards

phase 2 saq 3 Flashcards

1
Q

first line treatment for unstable angina

A

GTN spray (1 mark) and either B-blocker or Calcium Channel Blocker

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2
Q

extra-articular manifestations of ankylosing spondylitis

A

5 A’s: anterior uveitis (2), autoimmune bowel disease (2), apical lung fibrosis (2), aortic regurgitation (2), amyloidosis

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3
Q

ankylosing spondylitis management

A

NSAIDS (1), Steroids during flares (1), Anti-TNF

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4
Q

describe moderate asthma

A

PEFR more than 50-75% best or predicted and normal speech, with no features of acute severe or
life-threatening asthma.

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5
Q

descrbe acute severe asthma

A

PEFR 33-50% best or predicted (less than 50% best or
predicted in children) or respiratory rate of at least 25/min in people over the age of 12 years, 30/min in children between the ages of 5-12 years, and 40/min in children between 2-5 years old, or pulse rate of at least 110/min in people over the age of 12 years, 125/min in children between the ages of 5-12 years, and 140/min in children between 2-5 years old, or inability to complete sentences in one breath, or accessory muscle use, or inability to feed (infants), with oxygen saturation of at least 92%

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6
Q

describe life threatning asthma

A

PEFR less than 33% best or predicted, or oxygen saturation of less than 92%, or altered consciousness, IorI poor respiratory effort, or silent chest, or confusion.

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7
Q

indications of good asthma control

A

No night-time symptoms
● Inhaler used no more than three times per week
● No breathing difficulties, cough or wheeze on most days
● Able to exercise without symptoms
● Normal lung function test

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8
Q

adrenaline mechanism of action

A

Stimulation / agonist (1) of beta (1) adrenergic (1) receptors

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9
Q

physiological responses to mediators of anaphylaxis

A

Vasodilation (1), Increased vascular permeability (1), tachycardia (1), hypotension (1), maximise blood glucose levels in brain

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10
Q

non malignant causes of lymphadenopathy

A

infection, sarcoidosis, phenytoin, EBV associated lymphoproliferative disease, SLE

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11
Q

symotoms of CLL

A

anorexia, weight loss, fatigue, bleedings, infections, abdominal pain

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12
Q

additional test to confirm CLL diagnosis

A

Immunophenotyping

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13
Q

3 treatments for CLL

A
  • chemotherapy
  • radiotherpay
  • stem cell transplant
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14
Q

non-pharmacological management options for OA

A

Patient education (1), activity / exercise (1), weight loss (1), improved diet (1) - anti-inflammatory foods physiotherapy (1), occupational therapy

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15
Q

topical management for OA

A

NSAIDs (1), capsaicin

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16
Q

oral managemnt of OA

A

paracetamol (1), NSAIDs (1), opioids (1), bisphosphonates

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17
Q

What treatment would you prescribe Trevor to prevent stroke AFTER tia

A

aspirin

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18
Q

treatment for ischaemic total anterior circulation stroke

A

thrombolysis / Alteplase within 4.5 hours

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19
Q

chest x ray for TB

A

Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (1), ghon focus

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20
Q

specific signs of IBD

A

pyoderma gangrenosum, erythema nodosum, clubbing, arthritis

21
Q

gold standard test for UC

A

Colonoscopy and biopsy

22
Q

What marker, if raised, is definitive for diagnosing iron deficiency anaemia
in an iron profile?

A

ferritin

23
Q

pathophysiology of bronchitis

A

an irritant leads to inflammation causing the epithelium to become ulcerated and
squamous epithelium replaces columnar cells when the ulcer heals, leading to
scarring and thickening of the wall

24
Q

treatment for a moderate acute exacerbation of COPD caused
by a bacterial infection?

A

nebulisers, steroids and antibiotics

25
Q

Why are diabetics a classic culprit of silent MIs?

A

Diabetic neuropathy so do not feel anginal pain so the diagnosis may be missed.
Patients can often die from a sudden collapse

26
Q

two cells involved in acute inflammation

A

Neutrophils, monocytes

27
Q

What does beta-naphthylamine increase the risk of ?

A

bladder cancer

28
Q

methods of innate immunity

A

lysozyme in tears, skin as a physical barrier, cilia and mucus in
bronchus, vaginal flora

29
Q

what two factors do TH2 cells release and what are their functions

A

IL-4 – induces B cell proliferation

; IL-5 – induces B cell differentiation
into plasma cells

30
Q

what does F stand for in adverse drug reactions

A

Failure of therapy eg Failure of Oral contraceptive pill in the presence of an enzyme inducer

31
Q

Which two markers would indicate a chronic infection of liver cirrhosis due to hepatits

A

hepatitis surface antigen

hepatitis core antibody

32
Q

most common cause of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

A

E.coli

33
Q

complications of CML

A

Myelosuppression, neutropenic sepsis, blast crisis, tumour lysis syndrome

34
Q

what cancer can CLL change to

A

non hodghkins lymphoma

35
Q

risk factors for tonic clonic seizures

A

Premature birth, cerebral palsy, brain tumour, meningitis,
neurofibromatosis, family history, traumatic brain injury, stroke, cocaine
use

36
Q

driving rules for epilepsy

A

seizure
free for 12 months if this is not the patient’s first seizure

37
Q

comlplication. of epilpeys

A

Injury, tongue biting, status epilepticus, sudden death, Todd’s paralysis,
shoulder dislocation

38
Q

Which area of the brain is the primary motor cortex found

A

Anterior to central sulcus in the frontal lobe

39
Q

investigation to diagose feltys

A

abdominal ultrasound

40
Q

Define the Z score for DEXA scan

A

Number of standard deviations patient’s bone density falls below mean for their age

41
Q

why does nephritis syndrome cause hameaturia

A

Increased permeability of glomeruli leads to red blood cells moving into the filtrate

42
Q

What parasympathetic nerve is involved in micturition?

A

Pelvic splanchnic nerve

43
Q

tests for cushings

A

Random plasma cortisol or overnight dexamethasone suppression test or
24 hour urinary free cortisol

44
Q

two of the criteria for a screening process to be performed.

A

Condition should be important, recognisable latent or early symptomatic
stage, natural course of condition should be adequately understood,
suitable test, test acceptable to population

45
Q

Define incidence.

A

= a measure of the risk of developing some new condition within
a specified period of time

46
Q

Define deontology

A

based on the belief that we owe a duty of care to each other,
ignores the consequences.

47
Q

fiest line test for stroke

A

non contract ct head

48
Q
A

questions i got wrong (25 decks)

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