phase 2 saq 2 Flashcards
Which spirometry results indicate an obstructive respiratory disease?
Obstructive pattern = FEV1 <0.8
FEV1/FVC <0.7
common organisms that can cause an infective exacerbation of COPD
Most common organism in COPD exacerbation = haemophilus influenzae
Others = strep pneumoniae (2), Moraxella catarrhalis
which antibodies are sensnitive and specific for RA
Sensitive: Rheumatoid Factor
Specific: Anti-ccp antibody
1 life-threatening complication of RA
feltys syndrome
extra-articular manifestations of RA
Skin: Nodules, vasculitis (ulcers, splinter haemorrhages) Ocular, Oral: Sjogren’s
Pulmonary: Pleuritis, effusions
Renal: Glomerulonephritis
Neuro: peripheral neuropathy (rare)
Haematology: deranged bloods
Cardiac: atherosclerosis, pericarditis, MI
causes of cauda equina
Tumours (1), spinal metastases (1), spondylolisthesis (displacement of vertebra) (1), abscess (1), trauma (1)
name of the symptom causing loss of sensation in the genital region
Saddle anaesthesia
whats it called when nails have some thin red lines on them
Splinter haemorrhages
with infective endcarditis and Considering his history of IV drug use, which valve is most-likely affected, and
why?
Tricuspid valve (2) because the tricuspid valve is the first valve contacted in the heart with venous return
possible complications from inective endorcarditis
ulmonary embolism (1), kidney damage (1), spleen damage (1), abscess formation (1), sepsis (1), heart failure
investigations for mallory weiss tear
Upper GI endoscopy
FBC (1), U&Es (1), Coagulation profile (1), LFTs (1), Erect CXR
what does glasgow Blatchford Score for upper gi bleeds include
Haemoglobin (1), Urea (1), Systolic blood pressure (1), Gender (1), Heart rate (tachycardia) (1), Melaena (1), History of syncope (1), History of hepatic disease (1), cardiac failure (1).
What is the first-line management of an upper GI bleed caused by an oesophageal tear, if the bleeding is persistent?
Surgical: Upper GI endoscopy and clipping +/- adrenaline OR thermal coagulation (2)
High-dose proton pump inhibitor post-surgery
What radiological intervention can be used to treat renal tract stones
Ultrasound shock wave therapy (2) or ultrasound shock wave lithotripsy (3)
Name 3 substances that urinary tract stones can be formed by
Bilirubin (2), uric acid (2), calcium (2), cholesterol (2)
side effects of biphosphnates
Oesophagitis, osteonecrosis of jaw, oesophageal ulcers
how should biphosphonates be taken
Take first thing in the morning (1) on an empty stomach (1), with a full glass of water (1), stand or sit upright for 30 minutes after taking them (1), don’t eat for at least 30 minutes before eating food / drinking fluids (1), for up to 2 hours (1).
GP medication for meningits
intramuscular (1) Benzylpenicillin (
gold-standard investigation for meningits
Lumbar puncture
what antibiotics for meningitis
Cefotaxime (2) or ceftriaxone (2), 3rd generation Cephalosporin
chest x ray for aortic stenosis?
Cardiomegaly (1), dilated ascending aorta (1), pulmonary oedema (1) calcification of aortic valve
4 symptoms of septic infection
Fevers (1), rigors (1), night sweats (1), weight loss (1), anaemia (1), splenomegaly (1), clubbing (1)
What is the most likely infection (disease name) to occur after valve
replacement surgery?
Infective Endocarditis
pathologies on hand with infective endocarditis
splinter haemorrhages (1), Janeway lesions (1), Osler’s nodes (1)
which LFT raised in alcoholic liver disease
Gamma-glutamyl Transferase / Gamma-GT. (1).
what does excessive alochol abuse lead to
Vitamin B1 / Thiamine deficiney (1).
Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome (2).
Which benzodiazepine may be used to manage the effects of alcohol withdrawal?
Chlordiazepoxide
presentations of delirium tremens.
Acute confusion (1), severe agitation (1), delusions and hallucinations (1), tremor (1), tachycardia (1), hypertension (1), hyperthermia (1), ataxia (1), arrhythmias
What kind of bacteria is Staphylococcus Aureu
Gram positive (1 mark) beta-haemolytic (1 mark) cocci / clusters
