phase 2 sba 4 Flashcards

1
Q

tumour marker for HCC

A

Alpha-fetoprotein

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2
Q

inheritance pattern does Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy have

A

Autosomal Recessive

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3
Q

‘contemplation’ phase of the stages of change model?

A

Aware a problem exists but no commitment to action

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4
Q

stages of change transtheoretical model of change

A

Precontemplation → Contemplation → Preparation → Action → Maintenance → Relapse → Precontemplation etc.

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5
Q

what originates from endoderm

A

pancreas

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6
Q

what originates from ectoderm

A

epidermis of the skin, tooth enamel and the nervous
system

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7
Q

Which artery is most at risk of rupture from a posterior duodenal wall ulcer

A

Gastroduodenal artery

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8
Q

is pyruvate produced in krebs cycle

A

no

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9
Q

characteristics of anal fissure

A

The presence of fresh red blood and the tearing sensation

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10
Q

Turner Syndrome karyotype

A

45, XO

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11
Q

what can cause hyperuricaemia

A

thiazide diuretics.

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12
Q

Where is McBurney’s Point Located?

A

2/3 of the way from the Umbilicus to the Right ASIS

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13
Q

biggest risk factor for primary biliary cholangitis

A

female

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14
Q

Which clotting factor is not affected by warfarin?

A

Factor VI

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15
Q

treatment for acute chest syndrome sickle cell crisis

A

Hydroxycarbamide

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16
Q

which med given before phaeochromocytoma surgery

A

Phenoxybenzamine

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17
Q

what is cut to release pressure on the median nerve?

A

Transverse carpal ligament.

18
Q

what is is diagnostic of acute pancreatitis

A

Raised urinary amylase

19
Q

treatment for tonsilitis

A

Phenoxymethylpenicillin QDS 10 days

20
Q

what are kerley b lines

A

interstitial oedema

21
Q

how to diagnose postural hypotension

A

getting the patient to lie down for 5 minutes then measure BP.

Ask them to stand up and at 1 minute and 3 minutes measure their BP.

If there is a systolic drop >20mmHg or if the systolic BP drops to less than 90 (from any original starting point)
the patient is diagnosed with postural hypotension.

22
Q

does hyperthryodism cause polyuria

A

no

23
Q

does ceeliac cause loss of appetite

A

no - just malabsorption

24
Q

what is enlarged virchows node associated with

A

gastric cancer

25
Q

a first-line treatment for mild ulcerative colitis

A

Mesalazine- member of 5-ASA drug group that is used for mild UC

26
Q

definr acute liver failure

A

INR greater than 1.5
Onset of less than 26 weeks duration
Mental alteration without pre-existing cirrhosis
No previous liver disease

27
Q

describe cancer of the head of pancreas

A

can obstruct the Common Bile Duct, causing obstructive
jaundice

28
Q

what does Benzene exposure increase risk of

A

renal cell carcinoms

29
Q

treatment for e diarrhoea due to cholera

A

Rehydration with IV fluids

30
Q

treatment for suspected meningococcal septicaemia

A

Benzylpenicillin

31
Q

example of beta-haemolytic gram-positive streptococcus with
Lancefield grouping A

A

Strep. Pyogenes

32
Q

UTI treatment for pregnat woman

A

Nitrofurantoin

trimethoprim is teratogenic

33
Q

which antibiotics inhibit nucleic acid synthesis?

A

Ciprofloxacin
Metronidazole
Rifampicin
Trimethoprim

34
Q

What nutrient agar is used to grow Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A
  • Lowenstein-Jensen
35
Q

example of a non-lactose fermenting aerobic bacillus that gives a
positive result on oxidase test?

A

Pseudomonas

36
Q

most common cause of infective endocarditis in
adults

A

Optochin resistant alpha-haemolytic streptococcus

37
Q

descrbe grades of mrc dysponea scal

A

Grade 1: Breathless with strenuous exercise.

Grade 2: Short of breath when hurrying or when walking up hill.

Grade 3: Walks slower than people of the same age or stops for breath when walking at own pace on flat.

Grade 4: Stops for breath after
walking 100m on flat.

Grade 5: Too breathless to leave the house/ Breathlessness on changing
clothes.

38
Q

how does Parapneumonic pleural effusion present

A

commonly occur after a pneumonia

stony dull percussion

blunting of the Right costophrenic angle with a homogenous
opacity of the lower zone of the right lung

39
Q

Which antibody is most commonly associated with granulomatosis
with polyangitis?

A
  • C-ANCA
40
Q

most common culprit of community acquired pneumonia?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

41
Q
A