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questions i got wrong > phase 1 sba and saq > Flashcards

phase 1 sba and saq Flashcards

1
Q

what is transceullar space

A

transcellular fluid is the portion of total body water contained within the epithelial-lined spaces

it is about 2.5% of the total body water.

0.5L

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2
Q

What is the diameter of a tubulin filament

A

25nm

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3
Q

the medulla oblongata is derived from which embryonic structure

A

myelenecephalon

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4
Q

Which receptor is most associated with increasing heart rate when acetylcholine binds

A

Beta-1

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5
Q

General sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is by what nerve

A

mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3)

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6
Q

does thyroxine increase ADH

A

no

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7
Q

actions of thyroxine

A

Fatty acid mobilisation
Increased bone resorption
Formation of oligodendrocytes
Increased carbohydrate absorption

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8
Q

What hormone would be released in response to reduced blood volume

A

Vasopressin

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9
Q

What level of the vertebral column situates the thyroid gland?

A

C5-T1

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10
Q

From which blood vessel does the liver receive most of its blood supply

A

Portal Vein

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11
Q

The ‘functional unit of the liver’ most commonly refers to what?

A

lobule

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12
Q

Which of these is stored in the liver and is a core component of haemoglobin thus essential for RBC formation?

A

iron

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13
Q

Roughly how long do vitamin B12 stores in the liver last for

A

3-5 years

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14
Q

In the urea cycle, what enzyme converts arginine → ornithine + urea

A

Arginase

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15
Q

Which disease is a result of a single nucleotide polymorphism

A

Sickle cell disease

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16
Q

patient has sickle cell disease. This patients parents and sibling don’t have the disease. What is the chance that the sibling is a carrier

A

66%

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17
Q

Where in the respiratory tract is the greatest resistance to airflow?

A

bronchi

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18
Q

Which cell type in the liver is the site of bilirubin conjugation?

A

Hepatocyte

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19
Q

which cells make renin

A

juxtaglomerular cells in kidney

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20
Q

What day of fertilisation does the blastocyst form?

A

5

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21
Q

Where is the SAN present

A

crista terminalis

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22
Q

Closure of the mitral valve is indicated by what on a sinus ECG

A

QRS complex

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23
Q

what inhibits prolactin release

A

Dopamine

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24
Q

What division of the spermatogenesis cycle forms secondary spermatocytes?

A

Meiosis I

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25
Q

What is the average lifespan of a platelet

A

7-10 days

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26
Q

How many layers are present in gas exchange

A

7

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27
Q

What law dictates that more gas will dissolve in tissues of the body at depth

A

henrys

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28
Q

decrease in H+ ions in the blood will move the dissociation curve which way

A

left

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29
Q

A BMI of 19.2 is considered what

A

normal

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30
Q

Where is leptin released from and what is its function

A

Adipose tissue - promotes satiety

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31
Q

is chicken pox a notifiable disease

A

no

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32
Q

What effect does and increase in CO have on the dissociation curve?

A

Shifts curve left, increased O2 unloading at tissues

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33
Q

According to the Gell and Coombs classification which hypersensitivity reaction involves only IgG antibodies?

A

Type 3

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34
Q

What is the correct definition of Absolute risk?

A

The ability of a test to rule out false positives

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35
Q

What is the enzyme that converts succinate to fumarate

A

succinate synthase

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36
Q

Which report released in the 1980s identified 4 theories for health inequalities which consisted of artifact, selection, behavioral/cultural and structural?

A

Black report (1) – showed a great detail of how ill-health and death is unequally distributed among the population of Britain

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37
Q

What ethical theory would support a patient dying for their organs to be used to save the lives of 5 other patients?

A

Utilitarianism/Consequentialism (1) – judges act on the end result- maximize lives saved, allow: survival lottery

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38
Q

Briefly explain the process of neurotransmitter release across the synapse, starting from the action potential arriving at the presynaptic neuron

A

Calcium ion channels open when an action potential reaches the pre-synaptic terminal (1)
- Ca2+ ions cause vesicles containing neurotransmitter to fuse with the membrane and release their contents (1)
- Neurotransmitter diffuses across the synaptic cleft and attaches to receptor sites on the post-synaptic membrane (1)

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39
Q

Name 2 neuromodulators (slower acting

A

Dopamine (0.5), Serotonin (0.5), Noradrenaline

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40
Q

List 3 protective mechanism of gastric mucosa

A

Alkaline mucus on luminal surface, tight junctions between epithelial cells, replacement of damaged cells with stem cells to produce new cells

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41
Q

List the role of pepsin in protein digestion

A

Breaks down collagen in meat helping to increase the surface area for digestion, accelerated protein digestion, essential for vit B-12 in the small intestine

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42
Q

volumes of stomach

A

1.5l when eating minus 50ml when empty

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43
Q

List two causes of delayed gastric emptying

A

Idiopathic, abdominal surgeries, autonomic neuropathies, parkinsons

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44
Q

The liver produces bile which is then secreted into the GI tract, give 2 functions of bile

A

Emulsifies fats/ aids digestion of fats (1 mark), Excretion of certain drugs/toxins

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45
Q

what regulates TSH

A

Thyrotropin releasing hormone

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46
Q

Name two other hormones released by the hypothalamus that stimulate the anterior pituitary.

A

CRH. GHRH. GnRH.

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47
Q

function of type 1 pneumocytes

A

allows gas exchange

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48
Q

What connects adjacent alveoli that allows movement of macrophages

A

Pores of Kohn

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49
Q

In a healthy patient, roughly what is their tidal volume (

A

500ml

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50
Q

What enzyme converts angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2 and where is it produced

A

Angiotensin converting enzyme - produced in the lungs

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51
Q

What are 4 functions of the skeleton (

A

mineral storage, protection, movement/lever system, maintains body shape, supports against gravity, contains bone marrow - allows its function, transmits weight

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52
Q

osteoblast function

A

secretes osteoid that gets mineralised and builds bone

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53
Q

oesteoclast function

A

resorbs bone by dissolving the mineralised matrix

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54
Q

what stain may be used to detect iron

A

Perls’s prussian blue

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55
Q

what are 4 different types of joints found in the body

A

hinge, pivot, plane, ball and socket, condyloid, saddle

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56
Q

if a patient has lost a lot of water, what will detect this and where are these found

A

osmoreceptors - found in the hypothalamus

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57
Q

If a patient is hypovolemic, ADH will be released, where is this produced and what cells does it act on

A

produced in the hypothalamus (released from the pituitary) and acts on the principle cells in the collecting duct

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58
Q

What type of protein structure would zinc fingers, helix-turn-helix and beta-alpha-beta be classed as

A

Super-secondary

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59
Q

In a 70kg male, how many litres of the total body water distribution are accounted for by the interstitial fluid?

A

11L

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60
Q

. What point on an ECG corresponds to the plateau (phase 2) of the action potential of myocytes?

A

ST Segment

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61
Q

what has a similar function to ANP?

A

Adrenaline acting on α2 receptor

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62
Q

The activation of baroreceptors would cause what

A

Decreased ADH

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63
Q

Define the functional residual capacity

A

The volume of air present in lungs after a passive expiration

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64
Q

. Which part of the anatomic dead space has got the largest area?

A

Trachea

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65
Q

. Which epithelium lines the vocal foldss

A

Stratified squamous

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66
Q

components of saliva?

A

Alpha-amylase and lingual lipase
Mucin and muramidase
Bicarbonate and magnesium
Lactoferrin and ABO blood group substances

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67
Q

Scurvy is a condition that results from a diet deficient in a particular vitamin. What vitamin is this?

A

c

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68
Q

where is mcburneyrs point

A

Right side of the abdomen that is one-third of the distance from the anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus.

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69
Q

Which enzyme hydrolyses triglycerides?

A

Lipoprotein lipase

70
Q

Where is the main site of exocrine secretion within the pancreas?

A

pancreatic acini

71
Q

which areas of the pancreas does the ventral pancreatic bud form

A

Uncinate process, main pancreatic duct and pancreatic head

72
Q

what are renshaw cells

A

a specialised population of interneurons that are stimulated by alpha motor neurons and through a feedback system can be inhibited by alpha motor neurons causing autoinhibition.

73
Q

what decreases in pregnancy

A

TPR

74
Q

Why does menopause increase FSH

A

ue to lack of negative feedback from oestrogen. Whilst there is initially a rapid increase in oestrogen from existing follicles, when these have depleted the increase in FSH no longer stimulates oestrogen release. LH increases, not decreases, due to lack of negative feedback from oestrogen. There is a decline of inhibin which causes further FSH increase.

75
Q

What do urethral folds develop into

A

The urethral folds develop into labia minora in females, as well as the corpus spongiosum enclosing the urethra in males.

76
Q

what does genital tuebcle form

A

he glans penis in males and the clitoris in females.

77
Q

what do The labioscrotal folds form

A

fuse to form the scrotum and ventral penis in males, and the labia majora in females.

78
Q

Which cells in the kidney tubule are responsible for controlling acid-base balance?

A

Intercalated cells

Type A control H+ concentration and type B control HCO3- concentration.

79
Q

where do kidneys develop

A

the kidneys develop low in the pelvis and ascend.

80
Q

floor of anatomical snuffbox

A

scaphoid bone

81
Q

what causes pelvis drop on right side

A

weakness on the left side. The gluteus medius and gluteus minimus prevent pelvic drop, and they are innervated by the superior gluteal nerve.

82
Q

where do monocytes orignate from

A

hematopoetic stem celsl

83
Q

collagen structure type IV

A

Type IV collagen has a non-fibrillar structure

84
Q

Which part of the gastrointestinal tract normally absorbs the most fluid?

A

jejunum

85
Q

what does stimulation of the carotid sinus cause

A

Reduced blood pressure

86
Q

does Local nitric oxide release ovveride central control of bp

A

yes

87
Q

purpose of coughing?

A

To move material from the vocal cords to the pharynx

88
Q

what joins type 1 pneumocytes

A

tight junctions

89
Q

what provides the greatest stimulus to increase breathing rate?

A

High concentration of brain carbon dioxide

90
Q

Expiration or exhalation is the process of letting air out of the lungs during the breathing cycle. Which mechanism is primarily responsible for this process

A

Elastic recoil of the lung

91
Q

how much is hameoglobin saturated throghout the capillary

A

25%

92
Q

what does exocrine pancreas secrete

A

trypsinogen

93
Q

fat soluble vitamin

A

retinol

94
Q

function of pepsin

A

hydrolyses bonds between aromatic amino acids

95
Q

In which of the following steps in aerobic glycolysis is adenosine triphosphate produced?

A

Conversion of 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate to 3-phosphoglycerate

96
Q

example of trace element

A

manganese

97
Q

A large number of people at a small risk may give rise to more cases of disease than the small number who are at a high risk. Which public health term best describes this scenario?

A

prevention paradox

98
Q

During an outbreak we can estimate the probability of an individual developing a particular disease in a particular time period. Which of the following terms best describes this probabilit

A

absolute risk

99
Q

Six hundred and ninety-eight elderly people prescribed iron supplements were surveyed and 189 reported symptoms of constipation. Which term describes the level of this condition in this population?

A

prevalence

100
Q

There are large geographical inequalities in mortality and morbidity in the UK: Tudor-Hart (1970) suggested that access to health care tends not to be proportionate to the actual need for care in the population served. Which term below best describes this concept?

A

inverse care law

101
Q

function of neuronal synaptic clefts

A

Allow neurons to signal to each other and other types of cells

102
Q

where do first order olfactory neurones synapse

A

olfactory bulb

103
Q

what supplies The external vesical sphincter (micturition)

A

pundendal nerve

104
Q

Damage to the LEFT VIth cranial nerve causes double vision. Which of the following is the most likely problem for the patient?

A

Double vision which is worse when looking to the left`

105
Q

Some psychiatric diagnoses are associated with issues of either ‘over-control’ or ‘under-control’. Which of the following behaviours would be typical of an individual with ‘over-control’ traits

A

Good at delayed gratification

106
Q

where are microglia found

A

in the meninges, brain parenchyma and vasculature`

107
Q

A right-handed person has an occlusion (blockage) of their right middle cerebral artery? Which of the following would likely result from the occlusion?

A

Paralysis or weakness, and sensory loss on the left hand side of the body`

108
Q

Awareness of pain is associated with activity in which region of the brain?
0/1

A

pre frontal cortex

109
Q

Calcitonin is produced in ‘C-cells’ and is involved in calcium homeostasis. In which of the following are ‘C-cells’ located?
0/1

A

thyroud gland

110
Q

Which is the primary physiological change that results in the menopause

A

Reduced production of oestradiol (estradiol) and inhibin B by the ovary

111
Q

After embryo implantation the luteal phase supports the early days of the pregnancy through production of a hormone. Which hormone is produced?
0/1

A

progesterone

112
Q

into which of the following does Type B spermatogonium develop

A

primary spermatocytes

113
Q

The micturition cycle has two distinct phases, storage and voiding. What is the primary event in the switch from storage to voiding?
0/1

A

Relaxation of the urethral sphincter

114
Q

A 50 year old alcoholic man presents with bilateral peripheral oedema. Blood tests show raised liver enzymes, a low sodium level and a low albumin. Which alteration in normal physiology explains his oedema?

A

Reduced resorption of tissue fluid due to low plasma osmotic pressure

115
Q

describe muscle spindles

A

They are innervated by γ (gamma) motor-neurons and detect the amount and rate of change of muscle length

116
Q

feature of cardiac muscle

A

intercalated discs

117
Q

What is the Na+/K+ -ATPase an example of?

A

Primary active transport

118
Q

Enolase converts which substrate into phosphoenolpyruvate in glycolysis?
*
0/1

A

2-phosphoglycerate

119
Q

Which enzyme is involved in the production of FADH2 in the Krebs’ cycle?

A

Succinate dehydrogenase

120
Q

in which cell type are you most likely to find a perinuclear huff?

A

Plasma cell

121
Q

nucelus of monocytes

A

a reniform (kidney bean-shaped) nucleus

122
Q

Which artery is the main supply to the atrioventricular node (AVN)?

A

Posterior interventricular artery

123
Q

The maxillary artery arises from which of the aortic arches?

A

1

124
Q

What does the bulbus cordis develop into?

A

bulbus cordis develops into the right ventricle.

125
Q

. Respiratory epithelium is found in many parts of the respiratory tract but is not found in which of the following?

A

Bronchioles - ciliated columnar epithelium with a few goblet cells & Clara cells

126
Q

function of the periciliary fluid?

A

It keeps the mucous at an optimum distance from the epithelia

127
Q

What is the purpose of exhaled nitric oxide test

A

ndirect measuring of airway inflammation

128
Q

What percentage of the surface area of an alveoli does a type 1 pneumocyte usually make up?

A

90%

129
Q

What percentage of fluid is absorbed in the small intestine

A

80%

130
Q

etween which chambers of the heart is the foramen ovale located?

A

left and right atria

131
Q

define penetrance

A

Proportion of people with a gene/genotype who show the expected phenotype

132
Q

Where does haematopoiesis occur in an adult and where does it occur in a foetus?

A

Adult = axial bone marrow (1 mark)
*Foetus = one of: yolk sac OR liver OR spleen

133
Q

Name a method that can be used to measure total lung capacity.

A

Gas dilution OR total body plethysmography

134
Q

What type of prevention is smoking cessation with regards to lung cancer?

A

primary

135
Q

where are melanocytes

A

stratum basale

136
Q

In the blood supply to the kidneys, which vessel follows the interlobar artery?

A

arcuate artery

renal artery –> segmental artery –> interlobar
artery –> arcuate artery –> interlobular artery –> afferent arteriole –> glomerular capillary –>
efferent arteriole –> peritubular capillary

137
Q

Which vertebral levels do the kidneys sit between?

A

T12-L3,

138
Q

Rebecca is a 22 year old who has been rushed into hospital with a severe

A

everything is reduced, as FEV1 is majorly reduced (<80%) and FVC is reduced to a lesser
extent, meaning the FEV1/FVC ratio is also overall reduced.

139
Q

Which type of white blood cell lives for 1-2 days, has a granular histological
appearance and releases histamine?

A

basophils

140
Q

51: Arteries and veins have many of the same layers, which of the following does an
artery have but a vein lacks?

A

veins do not have external elastic lamina

141
Q

Which substrate, produced from the breakdown of adipocytes, can be used for
gluconeogenesis?

A

glycerol

142
Q

Which enzyme catalyses the rate-limiting step of the urea cycle?

A

Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I

143
Q

resting potential of myocardial cells

A

-90mV

144
Q

At which vertebral level does the renal artery come off the abdominal aorta?

A

L1 (or L2) vertebral body level.

145
Q

define hyper-osmolality

A

a condition in which the blood has a high concentration of salt (sodium), glucose, and other substances

146
Q

Where is rRNA synthesised in the cell

A

nucleolus

147
Q

In which type of cells would you find desmin

A

muscle cells

148
Q

when does primitive streak appear

A

week 3

149
Q

what collagen in bone

A

type 1

150
Q

How would you calculate the total peripheral resistance?

A

TPR = MAP/CO

151
Q

In which of the cardiac layers can Purkinje fibres be found?

A

endocardium - the innermost layer of the heart

152
Q

Which structure allows transmission and equilibrium of air pressure between the alveoli?

A

pores of kohn

153
Q

definition of a “generator potential”

A

All graded, non-propagated potential changes seen in sensory end organs

154
Q

muscle layers of stomach

A

the stomach has 3 muscle layers: oblique, circular and longitudinal

155
Q

how is glucose absorbed

A

through a sodium dependent carrier system

156
Q

which molecule transports the most copper around the body

A

ceruloplasmin transports most of the copper, albumin transports some

157
Q

How many millilitres of pure alcohol is in 1 UK unit of alcoho

A

10 ml

158
Q

which molecule decreases satiety

A

Ghrelin increases hunger ( decreases satiety

159
Q

what causes yellow urine

A

urobilin

160
Q

What does the vas deferens pass over at the posterior aspect of the bladder

A

Ureters

161
Q

Where is the only place in the body where you can find a double layer of stratified columnar cells

A

conjuctiva of the eyelid

162
Q

in which cells would you find Reinke’s crystalloids

A

Leydig cells

163
Q

Where is EPO produced?

A

by the interstitial cells of the renal cortex

164
Q

Which type of bone is most numerous in the human body?

A

long bones

165
Q

function of osteocytes?

A

Regulate bone mass and maintenance of bone

166
Q

Which nerve is compressed in tarsal tunnel?

A

tibisl

167
Q

how much of pancreas is exocrine

A

80 - 85% digestive enzymes

168
Q

how much of pancreas is endocrine

A

1-2%
insulin & glycogen

169
Q

which ducts in pancreas

A

intercalated

170
Q

main component of liver

A

hepatocytes & sinusoidal
aterioles

portal triads

171
Q

compare thyroid and parathyroud histology

A

thyroid - lobulated

parathyroid - poorly defines lobules, within capsule of thyroid

questions i got wrong (25 decks)

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