phase 1 sba and saq Flashcards
(171 cards)
1
Q
what is transceullar space
A
transcellular fluid is the portion of total body water contained within the epithelial-lined spaces
it is about 2.5% of the total body water.
0.5L
2
Q
What is the diameter of a tubulin filament
A
25nm
3
Q
the medulla oblongata is derived from which embryonic structure
A
myelenecephalon
4
Q
Which receptor is most associated with increasing heart rate when acetylcholine binds
A
Beta-1
5
Q
General sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is by what nerve
A
mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3)
6
Q
does thyroxine increase ADH
A
no
7
Q
actions of thyroxine
A
Fatty acid mobilisation
Increased bone resorption
Formation of oligodendrocytes
Increased carbohydrate absorption
8
Q
What hormone would be released in response to reduced blood volume
A
Vasopressin
9
Q
What level of the vertebral column situates the thyroid gland?
A
C5-T1
10
Q
From which blood vessel does the liver receive most of its blood supply
A
Portal Vein
11
Q
The ‘functional unit of the liver’ most commonly refers to what?
A
lobule
12
Q
Which of these is stored in the liver and is a core component of haemoglobin thus essential for RBC formation?
A
iron
13
Q
Roughly how long do vitamin B12 stores in the liver last for
A
3-5 years
14
Q
In the urea cycle, what enzyme converts arginine → ornithine + urea
A
Arginase
15
Q
Which disease is a result of a single nucleotide polymorphism
A
Sickle cell disease
16
Q
patient has sickle cell disease. This patients parents and sibling don’t have the disease. What is the chance that the sibling is a carrier
A
66%
17
Q
Where in the respiratory tract is the greatest resistance to airflow?
A
bronchi
18
Q
Which cell type in the liver is the site of bilirubin conjugation?
A
Hepatocyte
19
Q
which cells make renin
A
juxtaglomerular cells in kidney
20
Q
What day of fertilisation does the blastocyst form?
A
5
21
Q
Where is the SAN present
A
crista terminalis
22
Q
Closure of the mitral valve is indicated by what on a sinus ECG
A
QRS complex
23
Q
what inhibits prolactin release
A
Dopamine
24
Q
What division of the spermatogenesis cycle forms secondary spermatocytes?
A
Meiosis I
25
What is the average lifespan of a platelet
7-10 days
26
How many layers are present in gas exchange
7
27
What law dictates that more gas will dissolve in tissues of the body at depth
henrys
28
decrease in H+ ions in the blood will move the dissociation curve which way
left
29
A BMI of 19.2 is considered what
normal
30
Where is leptin released from and what is its function
Adipose tissue - promotes satiety
31
is chicken pox a notifiable disease
no
32
What effect does and increase in CO have on the dissociation curve?
Shifts curve left, increased O2 unloading at tissues
33
According to the Gell and Coombs classification which hypersensitivity reaction involves only IgG antibodies?
Type 3
34
What is the correct definition of Absolute risk?
The ability of a test to rule out false positives
35
What is the enzyme that converts succinate to fumarate
succinate synthase
36
Which report released in the 1980s identified 4 theories for health inequalities which consisted of artifact, selection, behavioral/cultural and structural?
Black report (1) – showed a great detail of how ill-health and death is unequally distributed among the population of Britain
37
What ethical theory would support a patient dying for their organs to be used to save the lives of 5 other patients?
Utilitarianism/Consequentialism (1) – judges act on the end result- maximize lives saved, allow: survival lottery
38
Briefly explain the process of neurotransmitter release across the synapse, starting from the action potential arriving at the presynaptic neuron
Calcium ion channels open when an action potential reaches the pre-synaptic terminal (1)
- Ca2+ ions cause vesicles containing neurotransmitter to fuse with the membrane and release their contents (1)
- Neurotransmitter diffuses across the synaptic cleft and attaches to receptor sites on the post-synaptic membrane (1)
39
Name 2 neuromodulators (slower acting
Dopamine (0.5), Serotonin (0.5), Noradrenaline
40
List 3 protective mechanism of gastric mucosa
Alkaline mucus on luminal surface, tight junctions between epithelial cells, replacement of damaged cells with stem cells to produce new cells
41
List the role of pepsin in protein digestion
Breaks down collagen in meat helping to increase the surface area for digestion, accelerated protein digestion, essential for vit B-12 in the small intestine
42
volumes of stomach
1.5l when eating minus 50ml when empty
43
List two causes of delayed gastric emptying
Idiopathic, abdominal surgeries, autonomic neuropathies, parkinsons
44
The liver produces bile which is then secreted into the GI tract, give 2 functions of bile
Emulsifies fats/ aids digestion of fats (1 mark), Excretion of certain drugs/toxins
45
what regulates TSH
Thyrotropin releasing hormone
46
Name two other hormones released by the hypothalamus that stimulate the anterior pituitary.
CRH. GHRH. GnRH.
47
function of type 1 pneumocytes
allows gas exchange
48
What connects adjacent alveoli that allows movement of macrophages
Pores of Kohn
49
In a healthy patient, roughly what is their tidal volume (
500ml
50
What enzyme converts angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2 and where is it produced
Angiotensin converting enzyme - produced in the lungs
51
What are 4 functions of the skeleton (
mineral storage, protection, movement/lever system, maintains body shape, supports against gravity, contains bone marrow - allows its function, transmits weight
52
osteoblast function
secretes osteoid that gets mineralised and builds bone
53
oesteoclast function
resorbs bone by dissolving the mineralised matrix
54
what stain may be used to detect iron
Perls’s prussian blue
55
what are 4 different types of joints found in the body
hinge, pivot, plane, ball and socket, condyloid, saddle
56
if a patient has lost a lot of water, what will detect this and where are these found
osmoreceptors - found in the hypothalamus
57
If a patient is hypovolemic, ADH will be released, where is this produced and what cells does it act on
produced in the hypothalamus (released from the pituitary) and acts on the principle cells in the collecting duct
58
What type of protein structure would zinc fingers, helix-turn-helix and beta-alpha-beta be classed as
Super-secondary
59
In a 70kg male, how many litres of the total body water distribution are accounted for by the interstitial fluid?
11L
60
. What point on an ECG corresponds to the plateau (phase 2) of the action potential of myocytes?
ST Segment
61
what has a similar function to ANP?
Adrenaline acting on α2 receptor
62
The activation of baroreceptors would cause what
Decreased ADH
63
Define the functional residual capacity
The volume of air present in lungs after a passive expiration
64
. Which part of the anatomic dead space has got the largest area?
Trachea
65
. Which epithelium lines the vocal foldss
Stratified squamous
66
components of saliva?
Alpha-amylase and lingual lipase
Mucin and muramidase
Bicarbonate and magnesium
Lactoferrin and ABO blood group substances
67
Scurvy is a condition that results from a diet deficient in a particular vitamin. What vitamin is this?
c
68
where is mcburneyrs point
Right side of the abdomen that is one-third of the distance from the anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus.
69
Which enzyme hydrolyses triglycerides?
Lipoprotein lipase
70
Where is the main site of exocrine secretion within the pancreas?
pancreatic acini
71
which areas of the pancreas does the ventral pancreatic bud form
Uncinate process, main pancreatic duct and pancreatic head
72
what are renshaw cells
a specialised population of interneurons that are stimulated by alpha motor neurons and through a feedback system can be inhibited by alpha motor neurons causing autoinhibition.
73
what decreases in pregnancy
TPR
74
Why does menopause increase FSH
ue to lack of negative feedback from oestrogen. Whilst there is initially a rapid increase in oestrogen from existing follicles, when these have depleted the increase in FSH no longer stimulates oestrogen release. LH increases, not decreases, due to lack of negative feedback from oestrogen. There is a decline of inhibin which causes further FSH increase.
75
What do urethral folds develop into
The urethral folds develop into labia minora in females, as well as the corpus spongiosum enclosing the urethra in males.
76
what does genital tuebcle form
he glans penis in males and the clitoris in females.
77
what do The labioscrotal folds form
fuse to form the scrotum and ventral penis in males, and the labia majora in females.
78
Which cells in the kidney tubule are responsible for controlling acid-base balance?
Intercalated cells
Type A control H+ concentration and type B control HCO3- concentration.
79
where do kidneys develop
the kidneys develop low in the pelvis and ascend.
80
floor of anatomical snuffbox
scaphoid bone
81
what causes pelvis drop on right side
weakness on the left side. The gluteus medius and gluteus minimus prevent pelvic drop, and they are innervated by the superior gluteal nerve.
82
where do monocytes orignate from
hematopoetic stem celsl
83
collagen structure type IV
Type IV collagen has a non-fibrillar structure
84
Which part of the gastrointestinal tract normally absorbs the most fluid?
jejunum
85
what does stimulation of the carotid sinus cause
Reduced blood pressure
86
does Local nitric oxide release ovveride central control of bp
yes
87
purpose of coughing?
To move material from the vocal cords to the pharynx
88
what joins type 1 pneumocytes
tight junctions
89
what provides the greatest stimulus to increase breathing rate?
High concentration of brain carbon dioxide
90
Expiration or exhalation is the process of letting air out of the lungs during the breathing cycle. Which mechanism is primarily responsible for this process
Elastic recoil of the lung
91
how much is hameoglobin saturated throghout the capillary
25%
92
what does exocrine pancreas secrete
trypsinogen
93
fat soluble vitamin
retinol
94
function of pepsin
hydrolyses bonds between aromatic amino acids
95
In which of the following steps in aerobic glycolysis is adenosine triphosphate produced?
Conversion of 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate to 3-phosphoglycerate
96
example of trace element
manganese
97
A large number of people at a small risk may give rise to more cases of disease than the small number who are at a high risk. Which public health term best describes this scenario?
prevention paradox
98
During an outbreak we can estimate the probability of an individual developing a particular disease in a particular time period. Which of the following terms best describes this probabilit
absolute risk
99
Six hundred and ninety-eight elderly people prescribed iron supplements were surveyed and 189 reported symptoms of constipation. Which term describes the level of this condition in this population?
prevalence
100
There are large geographical inequalities in mortality and morbidity in the UK: Tudor-Hart (1970) suggested that access to health care tends not to be proportionate to the actual need for care in the population served. Which term below best describes this concept?
inverse care law
101
function of neuronal synaptic clefts
Allow neurons to signal to each other and other types of cells
102
where do first order olfactory neurones synapse
olfactory bulb
103
what supplies The external vesical sphincter (micturition)
pundendal nerve
104
Damage to the LEFT VIth cranial nerve causes double vision. Which of the following is the most likely problem for the patient?
Double vision which is worse when looking to the left`
105
Some psychiatric diagnoses are associated with issues of either ‘over-control’ or ‘under-control’. Which of the following behaviours would be typical of an individual with ‘over-control’ traits
Good at delayed gratification
106
where are microglia found
in the meninges, brain parenchyma and vasculature`
107
A right-handed person has an occlusion (blockage) of their right middle cerebral artery? Which of the following would likely result from the occlusion?
Paralysis or weakness, and sensory loss on the left hand side of the body`
108
Awareness of pain is associated with activity in which region of the brain?
0/1
pre frontal cortex
109
Calcitonin is produced in ‘C-cells’ and is involved in calcium homeostasis. In which of the following are ‘C-cells’ located?
0/1
thyroud gland
110
Which is the primary physiological change that results in the menopause
Reduced production of oestradiol (estradiol) and inhibin B by the ovary
111
After embryo implantation the luteal phase supports the early days of the pregnancy through production of a hormone. Which hormone is produced?
0/1
progesterone
112
into which of the following does Type B spermatogonium develop
primary spermatocytes
113
The micturition cycle has two distinct phases, storage and voiding. What is the primary event in the switch from storage to voiding?
0/1
Relaxation of the urethral sphincter
114
A 50 year old alcoholic man presents with bilateral peripheral oedema. Blood tests show raised liver enzymes, a low sodium level and a low albumin. Which alteration in normal physiology explains his oedema?
Reduced resorption of tissue fluid due to low plasma osmotic pressure
115
describe muscle spindles
They are innervated by γ (gamma) motor-neurons and detect the amount and rate of change of muscle length
116
feature of cardiac muscle
intercalated discs
117
What is the Na+/K+ -ATPase an example of?
Primary active transport
118
Enolase converts which substrate into phosphoenolpyruvate in glycolysis?
*
0/1
2-phosphoglycerate
119
Which enzyme is involved in the production of FADH2 in the Krebs’ cycle?
Succinate dehydrogenase
120
in which cell type are you most likely to find a perinuclear huff?
Plasma cell
121
nucelus of monocytes
a reniform (kidney bean-shaped) nucleus
122
Which artery is the main supply to the atrioventricular node (AVN)?
Posterior interventricular artery
123
The maxillary artery arises from which of the aortic arches?
1
124
What does the bulbus cordis develop into?
bulbus cordis develops into the right ventricle.
125
. Respiratory epithelium is found in many parts of the respiratory tract but is not found in which of the following?
Bronchioles - ciliated columnar epithelium with a few goblet cells & Clara cells
126
function of the periciliary fluid?
It keeps the mucous at an optimum distance from the epithelia
127
What is the purpose of exhaled nitric oxide test
ndirect measuring of airway inflammation
128
What percentage of the surface area of an alveoli does a type 1 pneumocyte usually make up?
90%
129
What percentage of fluid is absorbed in the small intestine
80%
130
etween which chambers of the heart is the foramen ovale located?
left and right atria
131
define penetrance
Proportion of people with a gene/genotype who show the expected phenotype
132
Where does haematopoiesis occur in an adult and where does it occur in a foetus?
Adult = axial bone marrow (1 mark)
*Foetus = one of: yolk sac OR liver OR spleen
133
Name a method that can be used to measure total lung capacity.
Gas dilution OR total body plethysmography
134
What type of prevention is smoking cessation with regards to lung cancer?
primary
135
where are melanocytes
stratum basale
136
In the blood supply to the kidneys, which vessel follows the interlobar artery?
arcuate artery
renal artery --> segmental artery --> interlobar
artery --> arcuate artery --> interlobular artery --> afferent arteriole --> glomerular capillary -->
efferent arteriole --> peritubular capillary
137
Which vertebral levels do the kidneys sit between?
T12-L3,
138
Rebecca is a 22 year old who has been rushed into hospital with a severe
everything is reduced, as FEV1 is majorly reduced (<80%) and FVC is reduced to a lesser
extent, meaning the FEV1/FVC ratio is also overall reduced.
139
Which type of white blood cell lives for 1-2 days, has a granular histological
appearance and releases histamine?
basophils
140
51: Arteries and veins have many of the same layers, which of the following does an
artery have but a vein lacks?
veins do not have external elastic lamina
141
Which substrate, produced from the breakdown of adipocytes, can be used for
gluconeogenesis?
glycerol
142
Which enzyme catalyses the rate-limiting step of the urea cycle?
Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
143
resting potential of myocardial cells
-90mV
144
At which vertebral level does the renal artery come off the abdominal aorta?
L1 (or L2) vertebral body level.
145
define hyper-osmolality
a condition in which the blood has a high concentration of salt (sodium), glucose, and other substances
146
Where is rRNA synthesised in the cell
nucleolus
147
In which type of cells would you find desmin
muscle cells
148
when does primitive streak appear
week 3
149
what collagen in bone
type 1
150
How would you calculate the total peripheral resistance?
TPR = MAP/CO
151
In which of the cardiac layers can Purkinje fibres be found?
endocardium - the innermost layer of the heart
152
Which structure allows transmission and equilibrium of air pressure between the alveoli?
pores of kohn
153
definition of a “generator potential”
All graded, non-propagated potential changes seen in sensory end organs
154
muscle layers of stomach
the stomach has 3 muscle layers: oblique, circular and longitudinal
155
how is glucose absorbed
through a sodium dependent carrier system
156
which molecule transports the most copper around the body
ceruloplasmin transports most of the copper, albumin transports some
157
How many millilitres of pure alcohol is in 1 UK unit of alcoho
10 ml
158
which molecule decreases satiety
Ghrelin increases hunger ( decreases satiety
159
what causes yellow urine
urobilin
160
What does the vas deferens pass over at the posterior aspect of the bladder
Ureters
161
Where is the only place in the body where you can find a double layer of stratified columnar cells
conjuctiva of the eyelid
162
in which cells would you find Reinke’s crystalloids
Leydig cells
163
Where is EPO produced?
by the interstitial cells of the renal cortex
164
Which type of bone is most numerous in the human body?
long bones
165
function of osteocytes?
Regulate bone mass and maintenance of bone
166
Which nerve is compressed in tarsal tunnel?
tibisl
167
how much of pancreas is exocrine
80 - 85% digestive enzymes
168
how much of pancreas is endocrine
1-2%
insulin & glycogen
169
which ducts in pancreas
intercalated
170
main component of liver
hepatocytes & sinusoidal
aterioles
portal triads
171
compare thyroid and parathyroud histology
thyroid - lobulated
parathyroid - poorly defines lobules, within capsule of thyroid
