Pharmarcodymamic Flashcards

1
Q

Pharmacodynamics describes the effect of _____

A

the drug on the body

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2
Q

The components of pharmacodynamics includes
*Drug ____(___)
*Drug ____(_____)

A

Action; invisible

Effect; visible

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3
Q

DRUG ACTION
-Drug action refers to the mechanism by which _______

A

the drug produces desirable or undesirable effects in the body

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4
Q

TYPES OF DRUG ACTION
-list 5

A

Stimulation
-Depression
-Irritation
-Replacement
-Cytotoxic

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5
Q

Stimulation
Involves ________
E.g. ___ in Cardiac arrest

A

the selective enhancement of specific activity done by a specialized cell

Adrenaline

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6
Q

Depression
Involves the ______
E.g. _____ for Hypertension

A

selective diminution of specific activity done by a specialized cell

Lisinopril

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7
Q

Irritation
Involves producing ______
E.g. ——- for Joint and Muscle pain

A

non selective noxious effect on non-specialized cells

Methylsalycylate

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8
Q

Replacement
Involves _______
E.g ______ in Diabetes Mellitus

A

replacement of deficient endogenous substances

Insulin

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9
Q

Cytotoxic action
Involves the _______, usually ———- or _____, without significantly affecting other cells
E.g. ———- for cancer

A

selective destruction of cells

neoplasm or microbes

Cyclophosphamide

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10
Q

MECHANISM OF THE DRUG ACTION

_____
_____
____

A

Physical
Chemical
Biochemical

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11
Q

Physical mechanism
-Drug neither produces a _____ or _____
-Effect are purely _____
-E.g.
*______ for Constipation
*______ binds with Poisons
*_____ as an Osmotic diuretic

A

chemical reaction or change in the cells of the body

Physical

Laxatives

Activated charcoal

Mannitol

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12
Q

Chemical mechanism
-Drugs act by producing ______
-E.g.
*_____ for dyspepsia
*______ as chelating agents.
*_____ as a choline esterase reactivator.
*Cholestyramine for sequestration of bile acids and cholesterol in the gut

A

a chemical reaction in the body

Antacids

Deferoxamine

Pralidoxime

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13
Q

Biochemical mechanism ( _____ )
List them

A

RICE

Receptors

Ion channels

Carrier

Enzymes

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14
Q

Receptors
______ for Asthma
Ion channels
______ for Local anesthesia
Carrier
______ for Peptic Ulcer Disease
Enzymes
______ for Hypertension

A

Albuterol

Lidocaine

Omeprazole

Captopril

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15
Q

RECEPTORS

Ligand gated channel receptors
-Location: ____
-Effectors:____
-Coupling: ____
-Examples: GABA Type __
-Drugs: ——
-Structure: Oligometric assembly of subunits surrounding central pore

A

Membrane

Ion channel

Direct

A

Benzodiazepines

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16
Q

G-protein coupled receptors
-Location:_____
-Effectors: _____
-Coupling:______
-Examples:_____
-Drugs: _____
-Structure: Monomeric or Dimeric structure comprising seven transmembrane helices.

A

Membrane

Channel or Enzymes

G-protein

Muscarinic receptors

Atropine

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17
Q

Enzyme linked receptors
-Location: ____
-Effectors: _____
-Coupling: ____
-Examples:______
-Drugs:_____
-Structure: Single Transmembrane Helix linking extracellular receptor domain to intracellular kinase domain.

A

Membrane

Enzyme
Direct

Insulin receptors

Insulin

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18
Q

Intracellular receptors
-Location:_____
-Effectors:______
-Coupling:_____
-Examples:______
-Drugs:_____
-Structure: Monomeric structure with separate receptor and DNA binding domains.

A

Intracellular

Gene transcription

via DNA

Steroid receptors

Steroid

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19
Q

DRUG RECEPTOR RELATIONSHIP

____
_____

A

Affinity
Intrinsic activity

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20
Q

Affinity (A):
________

A

Propensity of a drug to bind with a given receptor

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21
Q

Intrinsic activity (I.A):
Capacity of a drug to ________

A

induce functional change in a given receptor in a way that produces a biological response

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22
Q

all drugs have intrinsic activity

T/F

A

F

Not all

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23
Q

if a drug is using a receptor, there must be ____ and ____

A

affinity and a bond

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24
Q

DRUG RECEPTOR OUTCOME

List 4

A

Full agonist
Partial agonist
Inverse agonist
Antagonist

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25
Full agonist Drug that _______ Full Agonist = A + I.A =___
stimulates a given receptor to produce a maximal biological response 1
26
Partial agonist Drug that ________ Partial Agonist = A + I.A = ___
stimulates a given receptor to produce a sub-maximal biological response > 0 but < 1
27
Inverse agonist Drug that _____ Inverse Agonist = A+ I.A = ____
interacts with a given receptor to produce a negative biological response < 0 but > -1
28
Antagonist Drug that _____ Antagonist = A + I.A =__
interacts with a given receptor but does not produce any response 0
29
DRUG RECEPTOR REGULATION Up-regulation Increase in the _____ leads to Increase _____ Down-regulation Decrease in the ______ leads to Decrease ______
number of receptors sensitivity of the receptor number of receptors sensitivity of the receptors
30
What are: Spare receptors Silent receptors
Ise, know it!!!!
31
A receptor may exist in two interchangeable states, ______ and ______ which are in equilibrium.
active (Ra) & inactive (Ri)
32
______- any molecule which attaches selectively to particular receptors.
Ligand
33
Affinity -The ______ of the (reversible or irreversible?) interaction between ______ and ______, as measured by the ______, is defined as the affinity of one for the other.
strength; reversible a drug and its receptor dissociation constant
34
Intrinsic activity – capacity to induce a ______ in the ______.
functional change receptor
35
Specificity - A drug that interacts with a single type of receptor that is expressed on only a limited number of differentiated cells will exhibit (Low or high?) specificity.
High
36
Agonists are ___ that bind to physiological receptors and mimic the ________ of the endogenous signaling compounds
Drugs regulatory effects
37
If the drug binds to the same recognition site as the endogenous agonist the drug is said to be a _______
primary agonist.
38
endogenous agonist’s attachment site is the ______ or ________ site on the receptor
primary or orthosteric
39
Allosteric agonists bind to a (same or different?) region on the receptor referred to as ________ site.
Different An allosteric
40
Antagonists are Drugs that (aid or block?) or (increase or reduce?) the action of an agonist
Block Reduce
41
Antagonism most commonly results from competition with an agonist for the same or overlapping site on the receptor (a ______ interaction)
syntopic
42
Physical antagonist binds to the drug and prevents ________ like _____ binds to ______ and prevents _______.
its absorption charcoal; alkaloids Their absorption
43
Chemical antagonist combines with a substance _____ally like _______ binds with the metals.
chemic chelating agents
44
Physiological antagonist produces an action (similar or opposite?) to a substance but by binding to the (same or different?) receptors e.g. adrenaline is a physiological antagonist of _____ because adrenaline causes broncho_____ by binding to ____ receptors, which is opposite to broncho________ caused by _____ through ____ receptors.
Opposite Different histamine dilatation; β2 constriction; histamine ; H1
45
Partial agonists -Agents that are ________ regardless of the concentration employed.
only partly as effective as agonists
46
Inverse agonists -Many receptors exhibit some _______ in the absence of a _____; drugs that _____ such receptors in an ______ conformation are termed inverse agonists (produce effect opposite to that of agonist).
constitutive activity regulatory ligand stabilize inactive
47
Efficacy of an agonist is A ________ an agonist can produce. It can be measured with a _________ only.
maximal effect (Emax) graded dose-response curve
48
Potency is The _______________
amount of the drug needed to produce a given effect.
49
potency is not determined by the affinity of the receptor for the drug. T/F
F
50
The dose causing 50% potency from the maximal effect (ED50) can be obtained from ________.
graded dose-response curve
51
In ______________ curve, ED50, TD50 and LD50 are potency variables.
quantal dose response
52
Repeated administration of a drug results in diminished effect “ _______ ”.
Tolerance
53
List the types of tolerance
Tachyphylaxis Desensitization
54
Tachyphylaxis: is a type of tolerance which ______
occurs very rapidly.
55
Desensitization: ___eased response to the agonist after its _______ in (small or large?) doses.
Decr ; repeated injection; small
56
Desensitization May be due to 1- ______ or ______ of the receptors. 2- Loss of receptors (_____\)- due to _____ or ______ 3- Exhaustion of _________ (depletion of catecholamine).
Masking or internalization down regulation decreased synthesis or increased destruction. mediators
57
Answer with competitive or non competitive antagonist Antagonist binds with the same receptor as agonist Antagonist chemically resembles the agonist
Competitive Competitive
58
Effect of competitive antagonist on agonist Drug response curve?
Parallel rightward shift of agonist DRC
59
Effect of non competitive antagonist on agonist Drug response curve?
Flattening of agonist DRC
60
With non competitive antagonism, the antagonist appears to have inactivated a number of receptors T/F
T
61
In ______ antagonism, the intensity of response depends on the conc of both agonist and antagonist
Competitive
62
In ______ antagonism, the intensity of response depends on the conc of only the antagonist
Non competitive
63
Examples of competitive antagonism Ach - Morphin-
Atropine Naloxone
64
Examples of non competitive antagonist Diazepam-
Bicuculline
65
Drug synergism is When ______________________________ they are said to be synergistic.
the action of one drug is facilitated or increased by the other,
66
In a synergistic pair, both the drugs can’t have action in the same direction T/F
F They can
67
In a synergistic pair, given alone one may be ____ but still ______ the action of the other when given together.
inactive enhance
68
Additive The effect of the two drugs is in (the same or different?) direction and simply adds up:
The same
69
In an additive drug pair, effect of drugs A + B = ______________
effect of drug A + effect of drug B
70
In a Supraadditive (aka _____ ) drug pair, The effect of combination is (lesser or greater than or equal to?) the individual effects of the components
potentiation Greater than
71
In a supradditive drug pair, effect of drug A+ B __ effect of drug A+ effect of drug B
>
72
Physiological receptors List 6
GPCR  Ion channels Transmembrane enzymes Transmembrane, non-enzymes Nuclear receptors Intracellular enzymes 
73
Physiological receptors have at least two major functions, ______ and ________
ligand binding and message propagation
74
Two functional domains within the receptor: -________ domain and -________ domain.
ligand-binding effector
75
The regulatory actions of a receptor may be exerted directly on its ______, on ________, or may be conveyed by intermediary cellular signaling molecules called ______.
cellular target(s) effector protein(s) transducers
76
In Ligand gated ion channels, there is little intervention of G-protein or second messenger. T/F
F None
77
For ligand gated ion channels, Response is (slowest or fastest?) (in _______).
fastest milliseconds
78
GPCRs a family of ______ GTP-binding regulatory proteins termed _______
heterotrimeric; G proteins
79
G proteins are _______ that convey the information that agonist is bound to the receptor from the ______ to one or more ________
signal transducers receptor effector proteins.
80
The G protein heterotrimer is composed of a ____ nucleotide-binding ___ subunit, which confers specific recognition to _____ and _____, and an associated dimer of _____ and _____.
guanine α both receptors and effectors β and ϒ subunits
81
G–protein-regulated effectors include enzymes such as -________, -_______, -___________ (PDE6), -membrane ion channels selective for _______
adenylyl cyclase phospholipase C cyclic GMP phosphodiesterase Ca2+ and K+.
82
GPCRs span the plasma membrane as a bundle of __________.
seven alfa-helices
83
GPCRs serve as (Intra or Extra?) cellular binding site for ligand and ______ binding site for transducer G-protein.
Extra Cytosolic
84
Active alpha-GTP returns to basal state by ____ proteins
RGS
85
G-proteins : The subunits fall into four families (_____,_____,____, and _____).
Gs, Gi, Gq, and G12/13
86
The Gs α-subunit uniformly (activates or inhibits?) _________ the Gi α-subunit can (activate or inhibit?) certain isoforms of _____; the Gq α-subunit (activates or inhibits?) all forms of ________ the G12/13 α-subunits couple to _________(GEFs), such as p115RhoGEF for the small GTP-binding proteins ___ and _____
Activates ; adenylyl cyclase Inhibit; adenylyl cyclase Activates; phospholipase C guanine nucleotide exchange factors ; Rho and Rac.
87
RESENSITIZATION AND DOWN-REGULATION OF RECEPTOR 1) Agonist binding to receptors initiates signaling by promoting receptor interaction with G proteins (Gs) located in the cytoplasm. Agonist-activated receptors are phosphorylated by a _________, preventing receptor interaction with ___ and promoting binding of a different protein, - ______, to the receptor.
G protein-coupled receptor kinase (GRK) Gs β arrestin (β-Arr)
88
RESENSITIZATION AND DOWN-REGULATION OF RECEPTOR 2) The receptor- β arrestin complex binds to ____, promoting ______ ________________ reduces - β Arr binding affinity, allowing _______ of receptors by ______.
coated pits; receptor internalization. Dissociation of agonist from internalized receptors dephosphorylation; phosphatase
89
RESENSITIZATION AND DOWN-REGULATION OF RECEPTOR 3) Return of receptors to the ______ result in the efficient resensitization of cellular responsiveness. Repeated or prolonged exposure of cells to _____ favors the delivery of internalized receptors to _____ , promoting receptor ______ rather than _______
plasma membrane agonist lysosomes down-regulation resensitization
90
Enzyme linked receptors Either 1) With ___________. or 2)Without _________(but bind a ______ on activation
intrinsic enzymatic activity intrinsic enzymatic activity ; JAK-STAT kinase
91
JAKs- STATS PATHWAY Binding of the cytokine causes _____ of the receptor and recruits the _____ to the cytoplasmic _____ of the receptor. JAKs __________ and lead to the phosphorylation of the _______. The phosphorylated STATS translocate to the _____ and __________
dimerization; Janus Kinases (JAKs); tails trans-phosphorylate; signal transducers and activators of transcription (STATs) nucleus; regulate transcription
92
There are proteins termed __________ that inhibit the JAK-STAT pathway
suppressors of cytokine signaling (SOCS)
93
Therapeutic index = —— Or ——- ——— ———— —— ——
TD50/ED50 LD50/ED50
94
TD = ________ LD= ________
Toxic dose Lethal dose
95
The higher the therapeutic index, the more dangerous a drug is T/F
F The safer it is
96
List 4 common drugs with very low TI
Theophylline Digoxin Warfarin Lithium
97
Response to steroid receptors (Slower or faster?) in onset; (shorter or longer ?) in duration
Slower Longer
98
All beta receptors use ____ Gprotein Who uses Gi
Gs M2,A2,D2
99
Most 1s and M3 use ____Gprotein
Gq
100
_____ is a specific TK inhibitor _______ is a non specific TK inhibitor
Imatinib Sorafenib
101
MLCK-
Myosin light chain kinase
102
stimulation of the nicotinic receptor by acetylcholine results in _______ and _________
sodium influx and potassium outflux
103
agonist stimulation of the γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA) receptor increases ________ and hyperpolarization of neurons.
chloride influx
104
Up-regulation of receptors can make the cells more resistant to the effect of the antagonist. T/F
T
105
Which is more clinically useful Efficacy or drug potency?
Efficacy is a more clinically useful characteristic than is drug potency,
106
Full agonists have intrinsic activity of ____ Partial agonists have intrinsic activity of ____ inverse agonists have an intrinsic activity of ___
One greater than zero but less than one less than zero
107
RGS ?
Regulator of G-protein signaling
108
Lorazepam works on _____ receptors to ____
GABA Reduce seizures
109
TYPES OF DRUG EFFECT _____ Effect _____ Effect ______ Effect
Desired Side Adverse
110
Desired Effect Refers to physiological changes that are _____ and _____
expected and desired
111
Side Effect Refers to physiological changes that are __________ but ______
expected but undesired
112
Side effect Occurs at the normal therapeutic dose of the drug T/F
T
113
Desired effect Occurs at the normal therapeutic dose of the drug T/F
T
114
Side effect of aspirin is ??
Increased bleeding
115
Adverse Effect Refers to physiological changes that are _______ and _____
unexpected and undesired
116
Adverse effects Occurs at a specific dose T/F
F At any dose
117
Adverse effects can be life threatening T/F
T
118
About ____ to ____% of the sigmoid curve is a straight line for statistical analysis
20 80
119
Potency = EC50 T/F
T
120
Margin of safety is a term used in _______ curve
Dose response Quantal curve
121
Margin of Safety (M.S) Refers to the ratio of the _____ dose for __% of the population(___) divided by the effective dose for ___% of the population (____)
lethal 1; LD1 99; ED99
122
MS= ___/___
LD1 ED99
123
Examples of potentiation Levodopa + ______ Amoxicillin + _______
Carbidopa Clavulanic acid
124
Example of synergism Penicillin + _______ Prednisolone + _____
Aminoglycoside NSAIDs
125
Example of antagonism Propranolol + ______ Pilocarpine + ______
Salbutamol Atropine
126
Combination of Deferoxamine and _____ metal is an example of a _____ antagonism
Iron Chemical
127
List the 3 competitive inhibition in the slide
Ace inhibitor- captopril Reversibile AchE - neostigmine Allopurinol- inhibits xanthine oxidase
128
List the non competitive inhibition in the slide
Irreversible anti ACHE Aspirin Monoamine oxidase inhibitor Proton pump inhibitor