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House Pharmacology > Annoying Slide > Flashcards

Annoying Slide Flashcards

1
Q

Dose response curve is _____ shape

Log of dose response curve is _____ shape

A

Hyperbolic

Sigmoid

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2
Q

Thresholds based on acute responses, such as ____, are more (easy to or difficult to ?) determine, while thresholds for chemicals that cause ___ or other chronic responses are more (easy to or difficult to ?)determine.

A

death
Easy to

cancer

Difficult to

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3
Q

When a threshold is difficult to determine, toxicologists look at the _________________ to give them information about the toxicity of a chemical.

A sharp increase in the slope of the curve can suggest _____________ as the dose increases, as illustrated by line A on the next graph.
A relatively flat slope suggests that the effect of an increase in dose is ______

A

slope of the dose-response curve

increasingly higher risks of toxic responses

minimal

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4
Q

Quantal dose response curve relates dose to _______

Graded dose response curve relates dose to _______

A

Frequency of effect

Intensity of effect

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5
Q

the penicillin molecule binds to a bacterial enzyme ______ and prevents “____” in the bacterial ______ leading to death of the bacteria.

A

transpeptidase

cross links

cell wall.

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6
Q

The interaction between penicillin and the enzyme depends on the ________

Large amounts of penicillin _______ the enzyme and in the presence of small amounts, the enzyme _______

A

amounts of penicillin present.

completely blocks

resumes its normal function.

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7
Q

thyrotoxicosis can affect a drug’s pharmacodynamics

T/F

A

T

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8
Q

Drugs can impart new functions on any system, organ or cell.
T/F

A

F
Drugs (except those gene based)
Do NOT impart new functions on any system, organ or cell.
Only alter the PACE of ongoing activity.

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9
Q

STIMULATION: selective enhancement of the level of activity of specialized cells, e.g _____ on the heart, _____ on salivary glands.
DEPRESSION: selective diminution of activity of specialized cells, e.g. ______ on the CNS, _____ on the heart, _____ on gastric secretion.

A

adrenaline

pilocarpine

barbiturates

quinidine

omeprazole

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10
Q

Silent receptors

These are sites which bind specific drugs but no pharmacological response is elicited. They are better called ______ or ________ e.g. ________

A

Drug acceptors or Sites of loss

plasma proteins.

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11
Q

Autoantibodies can also mimic the effects of agonists

T/F

A

T

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12
Q

Myasthenia Gravis:
Antibodies against the ________ receptors at ________

A

cholinergic nicotinic

motor end plate.

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13
Q

Testicular feminisation:

_________ syndrome (AIS) is when a person who is genetically ____ is resistant to ___ hormones .
As a result, the person has some of the physical traits of a ______, but the genetic makeup of a ______.

A

Androgen insensitivity

male; male

woman; man

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14
Q

Familial Hypercholesterolaemia

People who have this condition are born with it. This change prevents the body from __________________________________

A

ridding itself of the type of cholesterol that can build up in the arteries and cause heart disease.

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15
Q

Effectors of Go
Substrates of Go

A

Inhibits Calcium channel
Potassium channel in heart

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16
Q

Most things that go for Gi also go for Go

T/F

A

T

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17
Q

Activation of adenyl Cyclase could result in:
(Contraction or relaxation?) (smooth muscle)
(Increased or reduced ?) contractility of heart
______
______
(activation or inhibition?) of secretion/mediator release
hormone secretion (activation or inhibition?) , among others.

A

Relaxation
Increased

glycogenolysis

Lipolysis
Inhibition
Activation

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18
Q

cAMP activity is terminated by _______, which _____ it to _____

A

phophodiestarases

hydrolyse

5-AMP

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19
Q

Activation of phospholipase C catalyzes the cleavage of membrane-bound ____________ into the second messenger _____________ and ________

A

phophatidylinositol 4,5 biphosphate (PIP2)

inositol (1, 4, 5) triphosphate (IP3)

diacylglycerol (DAG).

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20
Q

IP3/DAG pathway

Main Results:
Mediates /modulates (contraction or relaxation?)
Secretion/transmitter release
Neuronal (excitability or hyper polarization?)
________ movements
_______ synthesis
Cell _______

A

Contraction

excitability

Intracellular

Eicosanoid

Proliferation

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21
Q

Occupancy theory: response is proportional to the ______________; maximal response occurs when _____________

A

fraction of occupied receptors

all the receptors are occupied.

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22
Q

Rate theory: response is proportional to the ________________.
Here, _____ of receptor ______ determines whether a molecule is agonist, partial agonist or antagonist.

A

rate of Drug-Receptor complex dissociation

duration; dissociation

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23
Q

Stephenson’s theory: response is proportional to the ____________

Ariens’ theory: response is a function of _______

A

fraction of occupied receptor and the intrinsic activity.

affinity

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24
Q

Based on Arien’s theory, maximum response can’t be produced without 100 % receptor occupation.
T/F

A

F

It can

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25
Q

The induced-fit theory:

______ is not necessarily complementary with the ____ conformation.

Rather binding produces a ______ of both the ______ and ______ as a dynamic process

A

binding site; ligand

plastic molding

ligand and the receptor

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26
Q

______ theory nullifying the obsolete “key and lock” concept

A

The induced fit theory

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27
Q

In the induced fit theory , agonist induces _______ change; antagonist induced ________ change and partial agonist induces __________ change.

A

a conformational

no conformational

partial conformational

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28
Q

Theophylline is a beta2 agonist

T/F

A

F

PDE inhibitor

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29
Q

Ephedrine is a beta 2 agonist

T/F

A

T

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30
Q

the response ( _______ ) is plotted against the logarithm of the drug concentration (________)

A

ordinate

abscissa

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31
Q

fentanyl evokes a given response at a low concentration. ———- evokes the same response only at (lower or higher?) concentrations.

A

meperidine

Higher

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32
Q

Zidovudine is used to treat _________

A

HIV

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33
Q

ispaghula is a ______

A

Bulk laxative

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34
Q

Pralidoxime as a _______ reactivator.

Cholestyramine for __________

A

choline esterase

sequestration of bile acids and cholesterol in the gut.

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35
Q

Dimercaprol, penicillamine, desferrioxamine as ______.

A

chelating agents

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36
Q

Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors e.g. ______

A

captopril

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37
Q

Reversible anticholinesterases e.g. ________ ,———-

A

neostigmine, physostigmine

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38
Q

Irreversible anticholinesterases e.g. ______________

A

organophosphorus compounds

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39
Q

Aspirin inhibits cyclooxygenase enzyme and therefore _______ synthesis.

A

prostaglandin

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40
Q

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors used to treat depression e.g. _______.

A

imipramine

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41
Q

Proton pump inhibitors: e.g. ______ inhibit the H+/K+ ATPase in parietal cells of stomach.

A

omeprazole

42
Q

Inhibition of choline carrier by ______.

A

hemicholinium

43
Q

Inhibition of noradrenaline vesicular uptake by _______.

Inhibition of neuronal reuptake of noradrenaline by _______.

Inhibition of neuronal reuptake of serotonin by ________.

Inhibition of weak acid (e.g. uric acid) carrier by drugs (e.g. _____

A

reserpine

desipramine

fluoxetine

probenecid

44
Q

Eg of silent proteins

A

Plasma proteins

45
Q

_______ antagonizes mercuric ion

And it’s _____ type of antagonism.

A

dimercaprol

Chemical

46
Q

NaHCO3 as an ______.

Dimercaprol as _________

A

antacid

Chelating agents

47
Q

penicillamine as __________

A

Chelating agent

48
Q

desferrioxamine as _______

A

chelating agents.

49
Q

quinidine (opens or blocks?) sodium channels

A

Blocks

50
Q

procainamide is a sodium channel ______

A

Blocker

51
Q

local anaesthetics block the sodium channels

T/F

A

T

52
Q

nifedipine

______ channel blocker

A

Calcium

53
Q

verapamil

______ channel (opener or blocker ?)

A

Calcium

Blocker

54
Q

diltiazem opens the voltage gated calcium channels

T/F

A

F

Blocks it

55
Q

amiodarone

______ channel blocker

A

Potassium

56
Q

sulfonylureas.

_______ channel blocker

A

Potassium

57
Q

Characteristics of Receptor:

  • specificity - a drug only binds to _______ and causes _______ effect.
  • selectivity – a drug binds to _______ receptors with _______ than to other receptors.

*saturability – a receptor has a ______________, and is therefore saturated at _______ concentrations.

A

one single type of receptor; one single

one or a few types of; higher affinity

limited number of binding sites; high ligand

58
Q

scopolamine

Agonist, antagonist, partial , or inverse

A

Antagonist

59
Q

phenoxybenzamine

Agonist, antagonist, partial , or inverse

A

Antagonist

60
Q

Beta carbolines

Agonist, antagonist, partial , or inverse

A

Inverse

61
Q

receptors without known ligands (_________).

A

Orphan receptors

62
Q

orphan receptors can occur as a result of ________

A

Molecular cloning

63
Q

Alpha-1-adrenergic. ___
Alpha 2-adrenergic ___
vii. GABA B ___
viii. 5-HT1 ____
ix. 5-HT2 ____
x. H2 ——

A

Gq
Gi, Go
Gi, Go
Gi, Go
Gq
Gs

64
Q

Most common classification of receptors is by _______

A

Transduction pathway

65
Q

Go decreases _____ channel

A

Calcium

66
Q

Additive drug combinations

Aspirin+ ________ as _______ or _____

A

Paracetamol

Analgesic or antipyretic

67
Q

Additive drug combinations

Nitrous oxide +________ as _____

A

Halothane

General anaeethetics

68
Q

Additive drug combinations

Amlodipine + _______ as _____

A

Atenolol

Anti hypertensive

69
Q

Additive drug combinations

Ephedrine +_______ as ______

A

Theophylline

Bronchodilator

70
Q

Additive drug combinations

Glibenclamide + _______ as _______

A

Metformin

As hypoglycaemic

71
Q

Imipramine

Competitive or non competitive

A

Non competitive

72
Q

Desipramine

Competitive or non competitive

A

non competitive

73
Q

Neostigmine works by ______

Physical or chemical mechanism?

A

None

Biochemical mechanism ( receptors)

74
Q

Flumazenil

GABA agonist or antagonist??

A

Antagonist

75
Q

Penicillin

High or low TI

A

High TI

76
Q

Digoxin

Low or high TI

A

Low TI

77
Q

What is margin of safety?

A

Ratio of LD1 to ED99

78
Q

Adrenaline is a replacement drug

T/F

A

F

79
Q

Familial hypercholesteremia is a receptor related disease

T/F

A

T

80
Q

Drug distribution

it is not in phases

T/F

A

F

It is

81
Q

Drug distribution

delivery to the muscle occurs first

T/F

A

F

82
Q

Drug distribution

the ____ is one of the organs which the drug first reaches

A

Liver

83
Q

Drug distribution

the _____ phase involves a far larger mass of the body than the _____ phase

A

second

First

84
Q

Essential medicines are Cost effective treatment

T/F

A

T

85
Q

Concerning log dose response curve

between 30-70% of the curve are straight lines
T/F

A

T

86
Q

Concerning log dose response curve

Penicillin has a (high or low ?) therapeutic index
digoxin has a (high or low?) therapeutic index

A

High
Low

87
Q

tyramine containing foods cause cheese crisis

T/F

A

T

88
Q

High plasma protein binding means a (high or low ?) volume of distribution

A

Low

89
Q

Ionization of bases make them less ionic

T/F

A

F

90
Q

Drug concentrations in the brain are often similar to plasma concentrations

T/F

A

F

91
Q

Which of the following drug interactions should be avoided

Aminoglycoside + penicillins
Probenecid + penicillin
Amoxicillin+ clavulanic acid
Ibuprofen + paracetamol
Antacids + tetracycline

A

Antacids + tetracycline

92
Q

What happens when tetracyclines are taken together with antacids?

A

Tetracyclines form insoluble complex molecules by metal ion chelation with various antacids; tetracycline absorption may be decreased by more than 90% by this interaction.

93
Q

Tyramine containing foods should be taken with monoamine oxidase
inhibitors(MAOIs)

T/F

A

F

Should not

94
Q

Garlic causes increased bleeding when used with anti coagulants

T/F

A

T

95
Q

Tetracycline is better taken with food

T/F

A

F

96
Q

The following are factors that affect bioavailability of a drug , except?
a) Nature of drug
b) Intestinal motility
c) Age of the patient
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

A

Age of the patient

97
Q

Cholestyramine does not act on receptors

T/F

A

T

98
Q

Antacids function by acting on receptors

T/F

A

F

99
Q

Phenobarbitone is an enzyme inhibitor

Valproate is an enzyme inhibitor

T/F

A

F
T

100
Q

Metformin lowers blood sugar by_____________

Glibenclamide lowers blood sugar by __________

A

Helping your body make better use of the insulin

Increasing the amount of insulin produced by the pancreas

101
Q

Mention one inducer of CYP2D6

A

Dexamethesone

House Pharmacology (50 decks)

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