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Veterinary Pharmacology > PHARMA PPQ Written 2022 > Flashcards

PHARMA PPQ Written 2022 Flashcards

1
Q

As the generations of cephalosporins increase, their effectiveness against
Gram-negative bacteria decreases
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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2
Q

Nitrofurans are bactericidal in their mode of action
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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3
Q

Primary choice cephalosporine to treat canine pyoderma systemically:
a. cephalexin
b. cefquinome
c. cefoperazone
d. cefotaxime

A

a. cephalexin

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4
Q

What are the chemical properties of aminoglycosides that determine their
pharmacokinetics?
a. Negatively charged, polar and hydrophilic compounds
b. Negatively charged, apolar and lipophilic compounds
c. Positively charged, polar and hydrophilic compounds
d. Negatively charged, apolar and hydrophilic compounds

A

c. Positively charged, polar and hydrophilic compounds

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5
Q

Which of the following substances have positive inotropic effect?
a. both of them
b. none of them
c. pimobendan
d. digoxin

A

a. both of them

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6
Q

Loperamide is given in severe bacterial enteritis
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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7
Q

Due to its low therapeutic index, oclacitinib cannot be used in increased dose
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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8
Q

How much meloxicam injection is needed for the treatment of a cattle (bw: 400 kg),
if the dose is 0.5 mg/kg (bw) and the concentration of the product is 20 mg/ml?
a. 10 ml
b. 100 ml
c. 40 ml
d. 2 ml

A

a. 10 ml

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9
Q

Lokivetmab and oclacitinib have antiinflammatory and analgesic properties
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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10
Q

While using chloramphenicol wearing gloves is recommended to avoid the
possible development of aplastic anaemia as a side effect of the usage
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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11
Q

During the use of prolonged-acting insulin derivatives, moderate hyperglycemia
may result due to a rebound effect.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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12
Q

GnRH analogues are often used orally
a. True
b. False

A

False

GnRH are used IM, SC,

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13
Q

Salmeterol has long duration of action up to 12 hours
a. True
b. False

A

True

12-14 hours

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14
Q

Lincomycin can be used with high safety in the treatment of respiratory tract
infections in horses
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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15
Q

The canine congestive heart failure stage B1 do not need any treatment
a. True
b. False

A

True

Stage B1 CHF does NOT need treatment

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16
Q
  1. Salinomycin and diclazuril are coccidostatic agents that are authorized for rabbits
    as well
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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17
Q

. Which substance acts via nonspecific physical interaction
a. magnesium sulfate
b. both of them
c. mannitol
d. none of them

A

b. both of them

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18
Q

Which of the following substances can increase mucociliary movement?
a. bromhexin
b. both of them
c. N-acetylcysteine
d. none of them

A

b. both of them

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19
Q

Which of the following processes involves the formation of toxic metabolites
a. Neither
b. Reactions leading to glutathione deficiency
c. Modification of sulfhydryl groups
d. Both

A

d. Both

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20
Q

. Povidone iodine can be used for
a. all of them
b. skin disinfection
c. mammary gland disinfection
d. mucus membrane disinfection

A

a. all of them

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21
Q

Bacitracin is ineffective against Gram-negative bacteria
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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22
Q

. Which substance decreases the production of aqueous humor?
a. both of them
b. timolol
c. none of them
d. dorzolamide

A

a. both of them

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23
Q

In the treatment of BRDC, penicillins and cephalosporins can be active against
both fastidious Gram-negative bacteria and mycoplasmae.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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24
Q

Narrow spectrum penicillins include
a. piperacillin
b. amoxicillin
c. benzylpenicillin-procaine
d. ampicillin

A

c. benzylpenicillin-procaine
- narrow-spectrum pencillins are the long ones
a. piperacillin = antipseudomonal penicillin
b. amoxicillin = broad spectrum
d. ampicillin = broad spectrum

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25
Q

10-20% of sulfonamides are excreted in the urine in an active form
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

90% of sulfonamides are excreted in the urine

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26
Q

Opioids pharmacological effects include:
a. laxative effect
b. sedation
c. expectorant effect
d. all of them

A

b. sedation

and analgesia, antitussive

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27
Q

Pharmacokinetics deals with absorption and excretion, while pharmacodynamics
deals with metabolism and excretion
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

pharmacokinetics: Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion

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28
Q

Some NSAIDs decrease aggregation of thrombocytes by decreasing TXA
synthesis
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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29
Q

. For the treatment of canine gastric ulcers the recommended substance(s) is (are):
a. famotidine
b. omeprazole
c. sucralphate
d. famotidine+omeprazole

A

b. omeprazole

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30
Q

Decreasing the blood glucose levels is a possible side effect of glucocorticoids
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

glucocorticoids increases blood glucose level

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31
Q

Opioids have mucolytic effect in the respiratory tract
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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32
Q

Spectinomycin has a bacteriostatic mode of action
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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33
Q

An AVM (authorized for cattle) has the following WPs: cattle meat: 0 day, cattle milk: 0 hour.

How long should the WP be in the following case?
-Goat meat:
-Chicken eggs:
-Swine meat:

A

-Goat meat: 0 day
-Chicken eggs: 10 days
-Swine meat: 1 day

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34
Q

Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description.
Selamectin, Diazinon, Propoxur, Afoxolaner, Amitraz, Deltamethrin
* Reversible inhibitor of acetylcholine aesterase:
* Orally given ecto parasiticidal agent with one month duration of action:
* Macrocyclic lactone effective against fleas:
* Repellent antiparasitic substance with “knock down” effect:
* Irreversible inhibitor of acetylcholine aesterase:
* It’s antidote for the case of intoxication: atipamezole:

A
  • Reversible inhibitor of acetylcholine aesterase: propoxur
  • Orally given ecto parasiticidal agent with one month duration of action: afoxolaner
  • Macrocyclic lactone effective against fleas: selamectin
  • Repellent antiparasitic substance with “knock down” effect: deltamethrin
  • Irreversible inhibitor of acetylcholine aesterase: diazinon
  • It’s antidote for the case of intoxication: atipamezole: amitraz
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35
Q

It can cause colic symptoms, tremor, sweating in horses:
a. eCG
b. dinoprost
c. none of these
d. altrenogest

A

b. dinoprost

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36
Q

How can gentamicin be used in adult ruminants?
a. both of them
b. orally
c. as injection
d. none of them

A

c. as injection

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37
Q

Amantadine and rimantadine inhibit the release of virus
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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38
Q

. Azaperone is a neuroleptic agent that can only be used in dogs
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

Azaperone is almost exclusively used in pigs, not recommended in SA

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39
Q

Which of these substances causes immunosuppression?
a. ipratropium
b. gamithromycin
c. cyclophosmamide
d. nime

A

c. cyclophosmamide

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40
Q

Which of the equations are true for most drugs?
a. none of them
b. TD50>LD50
c. ED50
d. TD50

A

c. ED50

ED50 is the dose that causes therapeutic effect on 50% of the populatio

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41
Q

Febantel is a prodrug, that is metabolized to albendazole in the body
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

Febantel → Fenbendazole →Oxfenbendazole

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42
Q

Which agents have such excellent pharmacokinetics that they are the most important drugs for the treatment of meningitis after crossing the blood-brain barrier?
a. cefalexin and cefapirin
b. ceftazidime and cefoperazone
c. ceftriaxone and cefotaxime
d. cefuroxime and cefaclor

A

c. ceftriaxone and cefotaxime

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43
Q

The methylxanthines block the adenosine receptor
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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44
Q

Itraconazole can be used in dogs, but it should not be used in cats due to its
toxicity
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

can be used in cats

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45
Q

Diazinon can cause irreversible inhibition of AchE
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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46
Q
  1. In these animals, porto-renal system should be considered in case of injectable
    drug administration?
    a. fish
    b. reptiles
    c. mammals
    d. bees
A

b. reptiles

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47
Q

What is the MIC value of an antibiotic?
a. minimum bactericidal concentration
b. mean inhibitory concentration
c. minimum inhibitory concentration
d. maximum inhibitory concentration
e. maximum inhibitory concentration
f. mean bactericidal concentration

A

c. minimum inhibitory concentration

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48
Q

Phenoxymethylpenicillin is used parenterally in swine for the treatment of Clostridium perfringens C necrotic enteritis
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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49
Q

Clotrimazole can be used against yeasts and dermatophytes
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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50
Q

Which of the following drug actions is structure dependent?
a. activation of receptors
b. none of them
c. inhibition of enzymes
d. both of them

A

d. both of them

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51
Q

Pair the anticonvulsant agents with their corresponding statement?
KBr, Primidone, Midazolam, Imepitoin, Phenobarbital, Levetirazetam

  • Anticonvulsive agent given also in status epilepticus:
  • Antiepileptic agent inducing microsomal CYP enzymes in the liver:
  • Antiepileptic agent used long-term safely in liver and kidney failure patient as well:
  • Antiepileptic agent recommended to use only in the human medicine:
  • Antiepileptic agent with the possible side effects of : polyphagia, pruritus, paraparesis, pancreatitis:
  • Antiepileptic agent with minimal side effects applied TID-QID PO for long term management of epilepsy:
A
  • Anticonvulsive agent given also in status epilepticus: midazolam
  • Antiepileptic agent inducing microsomal CYP enzymes in the liver: phenobarbital
  • Antiepileptic agent used long-term safely in liver and kidney failure patient as well: imepitoin
  • Antiepileptic agent recommended to use only in the human medicine: primidone
  • Antiepileptic agent with the possible side effects of : polyphagia, pruritus, paraparesis, pancreatitis: KBr
  • Antiepileptic agent with minimal side effects applied TID-QID PO for long term management of epilepsy: levetiracetam
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52
Q

In the treatment of dehydration, dose of rehydrating infusion can be calculated by
dividing the dehydration percentage with the bodyweight:
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

Body weight (kg) x 10 x dehydration %

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53
Q

. In the case of bacitracin, which is the metal ion with which is compound leads to
10-20 x increase in potency?
a. Manganese
b. Zinc
c. Iron
d. Copper

A

b. Zinc

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54
Q

If the therapeutic index of a drug is small, it is difficult to overdose
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

low TI=toxic

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55
Q

Which of the following substances can be used for the treatment of proliferative
enteropathy caused by Lawsonia intracellularis in swine?
a. clindamycin
b. doxycycline
c. tiamulin
d. colistin

A

c. tiamulin

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56
Q

This animal is the most sensitive to chloramine
a. fish
b. chihuahua
c. horse
d. cat

A

a. fish

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57
Q

Penicillins can be effectively combined with bacteriostatic antibiotics
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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58
Q

ACE inhibitors act very rapidly and intravenous application is recommended in life-threatening conditions
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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59
Q

In case of oral drug administration, absorbents and antacids can decrease
absorption
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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60
Q

Pair the active substances with the expected duration of action:
4-6 hours, 12-24 hours, 72-96 hours, 6-10 days, 18-23 days
1. benzylpenicillin-procaine
2. benzylpenicillin-benzathine:
3. benzylpenicillin-Na/K:
4. tildipirosin:
5. tulathromycin:

A
  1. benzylpenicillin-procaine: 12-24 hours
  2. benzylpenicillin-benzathine: 72-96 hours
  3. benzylpenicillin-Na/K: 4-6 hours
  4. tildipirosin: 18-23 days
  5. tulathromycin: 6-10 days
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61
Q

The mechanism of action of tetracyclines is inhibition of bacterial protein
synthesis at the 50S subunit of the ribosome
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

Tetracyclines are 30S subunit of the ribosome

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62
Q

What is the spectrum of action of sulfonamides?
a. Gram-positive antibacterial action
b. coccidial action
c. all of them
d. gram-negative antibacterial action

A

c. all of them

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63
Q

Metomidate belongs to the steroid anaesthetics:
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

Metomidate belongs to IV hypnotics-Imidazoles

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64
Q

Metomidate belongs to the steroid anaesthetics:
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

Metomidate belongs to IV hypnotics-Imidazoles

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65
Q

Which of the following agents has excellent absorption after oral administration in pigs?
a. Amoxicillin
b. Florfenicol
c. Gentamicin
d. Colistin

A

b. Florfenicol

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66
Q

The mutant selection window (MSW) means the concentration range between MIC
and MPC values of antibiotics
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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67
Q

Ester-type local anaesthetics are hydrolysed primarily by plasma esterases
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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68
Q

In canine congestive heart failure stage D it is effective to dilate the pulmonary
arteries:
a. telmisartan
b. sildenafil
c. ramipril
d. pimobendan

A

b. sildenafil

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69
Q

How much 20% glucose solution is needed to prepare 100 ml of 5% solution?
a. 50 ml
b. 12.5 ml
c. 25 ml
d. 75 ml

A

c. 25 ml

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70
Q

Diclofenac is an anti-inflammatory drug that can be used safely in dogs
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

Diclofenac is a potent antiinflammatory and analgesic (highly toxic for dogs and cats)

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71
Q

Which of the following substances can have urethra sphincter relaxing effect?
a. both of them
b. doxazosin
c. phenoxybenzamine
d. none of them

A

a. both of them

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72
Q

It may causes follicular cysts or pyometra in small animals
a. cloprostenol
b. fertirelin
c. eCG
d. megestrol acetate

A

d. megestrol acetate

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73
Q

Average daily fluid uptake of dogs is 40-60 ml/kg/day
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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74
Q

How are fluoroquinolones excreted in the first place
a. Active form via the liver
b. Inactive form via the liver
c. Active form via the kidney
d. Inactive form via the kidney

A

c. Active form via the kidney

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75
Q

This drug can inhibit the CYP450 enzymes:
a. codein
b. gentamicin
c. ketoconazole
d. phenobarbital

A

c. ketoconazole

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76
Q

Phenobarbital can be used for the long term control of epilepsy as well as for the treatment of status epilepticus
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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77
Q

Match the active ingredient to the appropriate description:
Praziquantel, Selamectin, Fenbendazole, Melarsomine, Pyrantel embonate
* Macrocyclic lactone that active against nematodes and ectoparacites:
* Antiparasitic agent only effective against tapeworms:
* This antiparasitic is effective against Taenia and Giardia species:
* Antiparasitic agent only effective against intestinal nematodes:
* A medicine active against adult Dirofilaria:

A
  • Macrocyclic lactone that active against nematodes and ectoparacites: selamectin
  • Antiparasitic agent only effective against tapeworms: Praziquantel
  • This antiparasitic is effective against Taenia and Giardia species: Fenbendazole
  • Antiparasitic agent only effective against intestinal nematodes: Pirantel embonate
  • A medicine active against adult Dirofilaria: Melarsomine
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78
Q

Acrolein-caused hemorrhagic cystitis can be alleviated by mesna
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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79
Q

In case of external drug administration, systemic effects cannot occur:
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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80
Q

Eye drops usually have shorter duration of action than eye ointments, therefore
eye drops should be administered less frequently on a daily basis
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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81
Q

Which of the following side effects are typical of phenicols?
a. Yellow discoloration of bones
b. Anaemia, immunosuppression
c. Photosensitization
d. Explicit kidney damage

A

b. Anaemia, immunosuppression

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82
Q

Which of the following substances has sedatohypnotic effect?
a. romifidine
b. xylazine
c. none of them
d. medetomidine
e. all of them

A

e. all of them

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83
Q

The antibacterial spectrum of azithromycin and clarithromycin includes staphylococci and streptococci
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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84
Q

The competitive antagonist of 3-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase enzyme:
a. cabergoline
b. denaverin
c. terbutalin
d. trilostan

A

d. trilostan

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85
Q

Tiletamine belongs to the group of NMDA receptor antagonists, also called dissociative anaesthetics.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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86
Q

Agent used for the long term management of phonophobia in dogs
a. acepromazine
b. selegiline
c. cefovecin
d. clomipramine

A

d. clomipramine

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87
Q

Atropine can be used in case of uveitis and organophosphate toxicosis
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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88
Q

Acrolein-caused haemorrhagic cystitis can be alleviated by mesna
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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89
Q

Give the order of clearance of the amides, start with the fastest
a. Mepivacaine:
b. Lidocaine:
c. Prilocaine:
d. Bupivacaine:

A

a. Mepivacaine: 3
b. Lidocaine: 2
c. Prilocaine: 1
d. Bupivacaine: 4

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90
Q

Side effects of glucocorticoids include muscle hypertrophy, increased calcium absorption and collagen synthesis
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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91
Q

Carprofen is safe for use in most mammalian animals
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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92
Q

The lower the therapeutic index of an active substance, the closer to ED50 value is to its LD50 value
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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93
Q

Which of the following drugs can be effective in the treatment of Moraxella bovis keratoconjunctivitis in cattle?
a. none of them
b. both of them
c. chlortetracycline
d. florfenicol

A

b. both of them

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94
Q

Which of the following agents has a marked inhibitory effect on T-cells?
a. Sulfasalazine
b. Tacrolimus
c. Oclactinib
d. Lokivetmab

A

b. Tacrolimus

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95
Q

EPO can be used to treat anaemia as a result of chronic kidney failure or cancer only after hematokrit level determination
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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96
Q

The MAO-inhibitor selegiline can be used in dogs the slow down the progrediation of old age demetia.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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97
Q

The MAO-inhibitor selegiline can be used in dogs the slow down the progrediation of old age demetia.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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98
Q

Anti-inflammatory effects of glucocorticoids can only be achieved in high doses
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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99
Q

Clopidogrel should not be used in cats only in dogs
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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100
Q

Which of the following substance groups can reduce high blood pressure?
a. ATII receptor antagonists
b. both of them
c. none of them
d. ACE inhibitors

A

b. both of them

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101
Q

Pus and tissue debris greatly impair the effectiveness of sulfonamides
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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102
Q

Pair each drug with the appropriate indication
Cafapirin, Cefovecin, Cefoperazone, Ceftriaxone
a. Meningitis:
b. Gram-positive bacterial mastitis:
c. UTIs:
d. Gram negative bacterial mastitis:

A

a. Meningitis: ceftriaxone
b. Gram-positive bacterial mastitis: cefapirin
c. UTIs: cefovecin
d. Gram negative bacterial mastitis: cefoperazone

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103
Q

Pair the active substance to the appropriate description.
Quarternary ammonium compounds, Chlorhexidine, Hydrogen peroxide, Calcium hydroxide, Povidone iodine
a. Biguanide disinfectant.
b. Belongs to the alkalies disinfectants:
c. It is an oxidizing agent:
d. Cationic detergent:
e. Halogen containing disinfectant:

A

a. Biguanide disinfectant.Chlorhexidine
b. Belongs to the alkalies disinfectants: Calcium hydroxide
c. It is an oxidizing agent:** Hydrogen peroxide**
d. Cationic detergent: Quarternary ammonium compounds
e. Halogen containing disinfectant: Povidone iodine

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104
Q

Which of the following effects are considered to be adverse effects of drugs?
a. All three
b. damaging immune response
c. idiosyncratic response
d. toxic metabolite formation

A

a. All three

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105
Q

In fish, the WP is determined in degree days, which is the cumulative sum of
daily water temperature
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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106
Q

Pair the substances used for inducing or inhibiting vomiting to their corresponding statements.
Hydrogen-peroxide, Xylazine, Metoclopramide, Apomorphine, Ropinrole, Maropitant,
a. Peripheral emetic agent acting as irritant on the pharyngeal and stomach mucosa:
b. Antiemetic agent that is an antidote for the side effects of ropinirole:
c. Used in dogs, applied to the conjunctival sack, non readministrable opioid emetic agent:
d. The most potent antiemetic applied IV in the small animal practise:
e. Used in dogs, applied into the conjunctival sack, readministerable
dopamine-agonist agent:
f. Used in cats, applied IV or IM emetic agent:

A

a. Peripheral emetic agent acting as irritant on the pharyngeal and stomach mucosa: Hydrogen-peroxide
b. Antiemetic agent that is an antidote for the side effects of ropiniroleMetoclopramide
c. Used in dogs, applied to the conjunctival sack, non readministrable opioid emetic agent: Apomorphine
d. The most potent antiemetic applied IV in the small animal practise: Maropitant
e. Used in dogs, applied into the conjunctival sack, readministerable
dopamine-agonist agent: Ropinirole
f. Used in cats, applied IV or IM emetic agent: Xylazine

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107
Q

Benzylpenicillin-Na/K has an average duration of action of 4-6 hours
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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108
Q

In status epilepticus, propofol is administered intramuscularly
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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109
Q

In status epilepticus, levetiracetam may be administered by intravenous or rectal route of administration
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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110
Q

Diazepam may cause paradoxical reaction in cats
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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111
Q

Short-acting tetracyclines should be administered once daily by orally while long-acting tetracyclines should be administered every 2 days
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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112
Q

First-generation quinolone carboxylic acids have a narrow spectrum and are effective against against Gram-negative rods and coliforms
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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113
Q

Pair the active substance to the appropriate description:
**Doxapram, Strychine, Theophylline,Picrotoxin, Caffeine, **
a. Inhibits phosphodiesterase enzyme and it is a potent bronchodilator, can be used in the treatment of asthma:
b. Short-acting respiratory stimulant:
c. Glycine antagonist that causes severe convulsions:
d. Methylxanthine with weakest direct cardiac effect:
e. Antidote for poisoning of GABA-ergic depressants:

A

a. Inhibits phosphodiesterase enzyme and it is a potent bronchodilator, can be used in the treatment of asthma: Theophylline
b. Short-acting respiratory stimulant: doxapram
c. Glycine antagonist that causes severe convulsions: strychnine
d. Methylxanthine with weakest direct cardiac effect: caffeine
e. Antidote for poisoning of GABA-ergic depressants: picrotoxin

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114
Q

Acepromazine can be used for sedation of aggressive animals, eg. to alleviate
handling during veterinary investigations and transport
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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115
Q

Approx. 70-80% of isotonic crystalloid infusions is distributed in the IV fluid compartment
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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116
Q

Aminoglycosides are positively charged, cationic polar and hydrophilic compounds
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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117
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is highly sensitive to florfenicol
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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118
Q

Orthosteric agonist binds to the receptor at the same place where its ligand binds, while allosteric agonist binds to a different site
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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119
Q

Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description
Fipronil, Fluralaner, Methoprene, Piriprol, Afoxolaner, Imidacloprid
a. Juvenile hormone analogue antiparasitic agent:
b. GABA-antagonist agent effective against ticks and fleas, in case of 3-10 times overdose CNS signs can occur in dogs:
c. GABA-antagonist antiparasitic agent not recommended to use in rabbits:
d. Isoxazoline eliminated by the kidney:
e. Antiparasitic agent with relatively longer elimination halflife due to enterohepatic recirculation:
f. Antiparasitic agent effective only against fleas:

A

a. Juvenile hormone analogue antiparasitic agent: methoprene
b. GABA-antagonist agent effective against ticks and fleas, in case of 3-10 times overdose CNS signs can occur in dogs: piriprol
c. GABA-antagonist antiparasitic agent not recommended to use in rabbits: fipronil
d. Isoxazoline eliminated by the kidney: afoxolaner
e. Antiparasitic agent with relatively longer elimination halflife due to enterohepatic recirculation: fluralaner
f. Antiparasitic agent effective only against fleas: imidacloprid

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120
Q

Tiamulin is a concentration-dependent bactericidal antibacterial agent
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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121
Q

Isoflurane is an injectable anaesthetic
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

Isoflurane is an inhalational anaesthetic

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122
Q

How much meloxicam injection is needed for the treatment of a swine (bw: 100
kg), if the dose is 0.4 mg/kg (bw) and the concentration of the product is 20 mg/ml?
a. 10ml
b. 100 ml
c. 40ml
d. 2ml

A

d. 2ml

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123
Q

Pair the drugs used in opthalmology to their description!
**Atropine, Azelastine, Bromfenac, Prednisolone, Sodium Chromoglycate **
a. Anti-inflammatory drug used in milder cases of corneal ulcer
b. Antihistamine used in allergic conjunctivitis
c. Mast cell stabilizer used in allergic conjunctivitis
d. It can inhibit formation of synechia in uveitis
e. Anti-inflammatory drug used in uveitis if the cornea is intact

A

a. Bromfenac: anti-inflammatory drug used in milder cases of corneal ulcer
b. Azelastine: antihistamine used in allergic conjunctivitis
c.** Sodium chromoglycate**: mast cell stabilizer used in allergic conjunctivitis
d. Atropine: it can inhibit formation of synechia in uveitis
e. Prednisolone: anti-inflammatory drug used in uveitis if the cornea is intact

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124
Q

Which of the following substances can cause azotaemia?
a. none of them
b. lisnopril
c. enalapril
d. both of them

A

d. both of them

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125
Q

In case of transformation, the resistance gene is transmitted by a
bacteriophage.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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126
Q

Pair the active ingredient to the appropriate description.
Maduramycin, Salinomycin, Toltrazuril, Lazalocid, Diclazuril
a. Active substance for the treatment of coccidiosis via drinking water:
b. Semidivalent ionophore coccidostat:
c. Monovalent ionophore coccidiostat:
d. Triazine coccidiostat for use in chemoprophylaxis via feed:
e. Divalent ionophore coccidiostat:

A

a. Active substance for the treatment of coccidiosis via drinking water: Toltrazuril
b. Semidivalent ionophore coccidostat: Maduramycin
c. Monovalent ionophore coccidiostat: Salinomycin
d. Triazine coccidiostat for use in chemoprophylaxis via feed: Diclazuril
e. Divalent ionophore coccidiostat: Lazalocid

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127
Q

Only ionized drugs cross biological membranes by diffusion.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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128
Q

Which of the following substance group have got bronchodilator effect?
a. all of them
b. sympathomimetics
c. anticholinergic drugs
d. xanthine derivatives
e. none of them

A

a. all of them

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129
Q

HES infusions with higher average molecular weight have longer half-life,
however, the risk of liver side effects is also higher in case of them
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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130
Q

Which of the following agents is suitable for the treatment of enteritis caused by clostridia?
a. vancomycin
b. neither
c. bacitracin
d. both

A

d. both

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131
Q

Primary choice cephalosporin to treat canine pyoderma systemically:
a. cephalexin
b. cefquinome
c. cefoperazone
d. cefotaxime

A

a. cephalexin

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132
Q

Antibiotic resistance genes encoded on chromosomes have a bigger impact on the spread of resistance compared to genes on plasmids
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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133
Q

How much 40% glucose solution is needed to prepare 100 ml of 5% solution?
a. 12.5 ml
b. 25ml
c. 75ml
d. 50ml

A

a. 12.5 ml

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134
Q

Agent which of the following pathogens are aminoglycosides NOT effective?
a. Salmonella spp.
b. E.coli
c. Staphylococcus spp.
d. Streptococcus spp.

A

d. Streptococcus spp.

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135
Q

A higher therapeutic index means that the drug can easily be overdosed?
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

136
Q

Pair the antifungal drugs to their characterizations!
**Itraconazole, Clotrimazole, Amphotericin-B, Terbinafin, Naftifine, **
a. locally and systemically applied allylamine derivative:
b. locally applied allylamine derivative:
c. systemically applied triazole derivative:
d. parentally applied polyene:
e. locally applied imidazole derivative:

A

a. locally and systemically applied allylamine derivative: terbinafin
b. locally applied allylamine derivative: naftifine
c. systemically applied triazole derivative: itraconazole
d. parentally applied polyene: amphotericin-B
e. locally applied imidazole derivative: clotrimazole

137
Q

Pair the antifungal drugs to their characterizations!
**Itraconazole, Clotrimazole, Amphotericin-B, Terbinafin, Naftifine, **
a. locally and systemically applied allylamine derivative:
b. locally applied allylamine derivative:
c. systemically applied triazole derivative:
d. parentally applied polyene:
e. locally applied imidazole derivative:

A

a. locally and systemically applied allylamine derivative: terbinafin
b. locally applied allylamine derivative: naftifine
c. systemically applied triazole derivative: itraconazole
d. parentally applied polyene: amphotericin-B
e. locally applied imidazole derivative: clotrimazole

138
Q

The side chains of beta.lactam antibiotics are responsible for…
a. the spectrum of the antibiotic
b. both
c. the pharmacokinetic properties of the antibiotic
d. none of the above

A

b. both

139
Q

Dembrexine is mainly used for the treatment of feline asthma
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

140
Q

Despite the excellent distribution of lincomycin, it does not cross the blood brain barrier
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

141
Q

Generally, if the drug has high affinity to the receptor, higher dose is needed and the drugs effect develops slowly
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

142
Q

Prostaglandin-E increases mucin secretion in the gastric mucosa
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

143
Q

Long-acting parasympatholytics are mainly used for diagnostic opthalmic
purposes
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

144
Q

Long-acting parasympatholytics are mainly used for diagnostic opthalmic
purposes
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

145
Q

Idoxuridine can be used locally to treat herpesvirus-caused keratitis in cats
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

146
Q

Which of the following side effects is specific to fluoroquinolones?
a. Genotoxic and fetal effects
b. Allergy
c. Inhibition of growth of cartilage in young animals
d. Aplastic anaemia

A

c. Inhibition of growth of cartilage in young animals

147
Q

In which of the following conditions is the use of oclactinib contraindicated?
a. None
b. demodicosis
c. noncancerous diseases
d. both

A

d. both

148
Q

Antiparasitic agent licensed for oral use in poultry against bird bite
(Dermanyssus gallinae)
a. deltamethrin
b. moxidectin
c. fluralaner
d. fypronil

A

c. fluralaner

149
Q

Which of the following substances has sedatohypnotic effect?
a. romifidine
b. xylazine
c. none of them
d. medetomidine
e. all of them

A

e. all of them

150
Q

The long-term management of epilepsy must be started if the status
epilepticus lasted for more than one minute
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

151
Q

Pair the active substance to the appropriate description:
Benzalkonium Chloride, Sodium Hypocholrite, Ethyl Alcohol, Chlorinated Lime, Gluteraldehyde
a. It is a combination of a halogen disinfectant and a cationic detergent:
b. White powder, its watery solution can be used to disinfect the walls of stables:
c. Corrosive agent, its mechanism is the formation of short life free oxygen radicals:
d. Less potent disinfectant, it does not kill bacterial spores:
e. Non corrosive but irritative disinfectant, less influenced by impurities:

A

a. It is a combination of a halogen disinfectant and a cationic detergent:
Benzalkonium chloride
b. White powder, its watery solution can be used to disinfect the walls of stables:
Chlorinated lime
c. Corrosive agent, its mechanism is the formation of short life free oxygen radicals:
Sodium hypochlorite
d. Less potent disinfectant, it does not kill bacterial spores:
Ethyl alcohol
e. Non corrosive but irritative disinfectant, less influenced by impurities:
Glutaraldehyde

152
Q

If long-term prednisolone is to be used, 48-hour administration (alternative day therapy) is recommended
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

153
Q

Barbiturates do not have a muscle relaxant effect
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

154
Q

If we increase the dose of time-dependent bactericidal antibiotics, it will result
in a quicker killing of bacteria
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

155
Q

Which of the following is a first-generation antihistamine?
a. Hydroxyzine
b. Both
c. None
d. Dimenhydrinate

A

b. Both

156
Q

Package of authorized veterinary medicines should always include information
about the active substance, dosage form, concentration and target species of the product.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

157
Q

What are the central nervous system effects of first generation antihistamines?
a. Off-target effect on the inappropriate receptor but in the appropriate tissue
b. On-target effect on the appropriate receptor but not in the appropriate tissue
c. On-target effect on the appropriate receptor in the appropriate tissue
d. Off-target effect on the inappropriate receptor in the inappropriate tissue

A

b. On-target effect on the appropriate receptor but not in the appropriate tissue

158
Q

Amplodipine is mainly used in cat hypertension, verapamil and diltiazem are applied as antiarrhytmic agents.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

159
Q

Guaifenesin decreases ciliary movement and enhances mucus secretion.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

160
Q

EPO and darbepoetin-alpha should be applied parenterally only.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

161
Q

Application of xylazine is contraindicated in cats.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

162
Q

Match the names of the active ingredients with the appropriate statement.
Estriol, Proligestone, Progesterone, Aglepristone, Altrenogest
a. Active substance for injection to prevent estrus in dogs and cats:
b. Oral drug for estrus synchronization in horses:
c. Vaginal drug delivery system for the regulation of estrus cycle of cows and
heifers:
d. Used for induction of abortion in dogs:
e. Used in dogs to treat hormone-dependent urinary incontinence due to sphincter dysfunction:

A

a. Active substance for injection to prevent estrus in dogs and cats: Proligestone
b. Oral drug for estrus synchronization in horses: Altrenogest
c. Vaginal drug delivery system for the regulation of estrus cycle of cows and
heifers: Progesterone
d. Used for induction of abortion in dogs: Aglepristone
e. Used in dogs to treat hormone-dependent urinary incontinence due to sphincter dysfunction: estriol

163
Q

Tulathromycin is ion trapped in white blood cells due to the ionization of amino groups intracellularly in the presence of many protons.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

164
Q

Which of the following adverse reactions is specific to fluoroquinolones?
a. Genotoxic and fetal effects.
b. Allergy.
c. Vitamin K deficiency
d. Reversible retinopathy and risk of complete loss of vision when
enrofloxacin is given in cats.

A

d. Reversible retinopathy and risk of complete loss of vision when
enrofloxacin is given in cats.

165
Q

Imepitoin is an important agent in the management of status epilepticus
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

166
Q

Florfenicol belongs to AMEG category D, meaning its use is almost risk free
from a human health point of view.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

167
Q

In horses, penicillins can be effective in the treatment of….
a. both of them
b. strangles
c. abscesses, wound infections
d. none of them

A

a. both of them

168
Q

Structure-dependent drug action can occur via receptors and other targets
(e.g. enzymes, DNA, transporters) as well.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

169
Q

Which of the following substances can have antibiotics’ penetration enhancing effects?
a. bromhexin
b. both of them
c. none of them
d. N-acetylcysteine

A

b. both of them

170
Q

Pair the substances used for inducing or inhibiting vomiting to their corresponding statements.
Apomorphine, Maropitant, Dimenhydrinate, Acepromacine, Metoclopramide, Odansetrone
a. Used in dogs, applied SC, non readministerable opioid emetic agent:
b. Antiemetic agent used to avoid hypersensitivity reaction caused by vaccination:
c. Peripheral antiemetic suitable for emesis from all types of origin:
d. Antiemetic agent potentially increasing the clinical signs of preudopregnancy:
e. Serotonin antagonist antiemetic used PO/IV in chemotherapy induced vomiting:
f. Antiemetic agent having central and peripheral effect as well, suitable for increasing the motility of the duodenum:

A

a. Used in dogs, applied SC, non readministerable opioid emetic agent:
Apomorphine
b. Antiemetic agent used to avoid hypersensitivity reaction caused by vaccination:
Dimenhydrinate
c. Peripheral antiemetic suitable for emesis from all types of origin: Maropitant
d. Antiemetic agent potentially increasing the clinical signs of preudopregnancy: Acepromazine
e. Serotonin antagonist antiemetic used PO/IV in chemotherapy induced vomiting: Ondansetrone
f. Antiemetic agent having central and peripheral effect as well, suitable for increasing the motility of the duodenum: Metoclopramide

171
Q

Approx. 55% of hypotonic crystalloid infusions is distributed in the IS fluid compartment.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

172
Q

Pair the drugs used in ophthalmology to their description!
Latanoprost, Tropicamide, Dorzolamide, Cyclosporine, None of them
a. Prostaglandin analogue used for the treatment of glaucoma:
b. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used for the treatment of glaucoma:
c. Short acting parasympatholytic that is used for fundus examination:
d. Long acting parasympatholytic used for the treatment of glaucoma:
e. It can be used in ERU (equine recurrent uveitis) as an implant:

A

a. Prostaglandin analogue used for the treatment of glaucoma: Latanoprost
b. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used for the treatment of glaucoma: Dorzolamide
c. Short acting parasympatholytic that is used for fundus examination: Tropicamide
d. Long acting parasympatholytic used for the treatment of glaucoma: None of them
e. It can be used in ERU (equine recurrent uveitis) as an implant: Cyclosporine

173
Q

In dogs, typical side effects of glucocorticoids include skin scaling, thinning and alopecia.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

174
Q

Put the local anaesthetics according to their toxicity in increasing order.
a. Lidocaine:
b. Bupivacaine:
c. Procaine:
d. Mepivacaine:

A

a. Lidocaine: 3
b. Bupivacaine: 4
c. Procaine: 2
d. Mepivacaine: 1

175
Q

Which agents are suitable for the treatment of Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection?
a. ceftriaxone and cefotaxime
b. cefuroxime and cefaclor
c. cefalexin and cefapirin
d. ceftazidime and cefoperazone

A

d. ceftazidime and cefoperazone

176
Q

The renal toxicity of NSAIDs is generally reduced during anaesthesia.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

177
Q

Medetomidine is authorised to use mainly in dogs and cats.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

178
Q

How much 40% glucose solution is needed to prepare 100 ml of 10% solution?
a. 12.5 ml
b. 75ml
c. 25ml
d. 50ml

A

c. 25ml

179
Q

Pair the active ingredients with their characterization.
Paromomycin, Tobramycin, Streptomycin, Amikacin, Neomycin, Spectinomycin
a. Also used as eye drops, also has anti-Pseudomonas activity
b. Used almost exclusively in combination with narrow spectrum
penicillins,
c. With pronounced anti-Mycoplasma activity,
d. Also has antiparasitic activity
e. The safest aminoglycoside with pronounced anti-Pseudomonas
aeruginosa activity
f. The most toxic aminoglycoside

A

a. Tobramycin:also used as eye drops, also has anti-Pseudomonas activity
b. Streptomycin:used almost exclusively in combination with narrow spectrum
penicillins,
c. Spectinomycin:with pronounced anti-Mycoplasma activity,
d. Paromomycin:also has antiparasitic activity
e. Amikacin:the safest aminoglycoside with pronounced anti-Pseudomonas aeruginosa activity
f. Neomycin: the most toxic aminoglycoside

180
Q

Azithromycin can only penetrate the airways and bone in very small amounts, so it is not suitable for the treatment of infections of these organs.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

181
Q

What is the mechanism of action of rifamycin?
a. detergent action
b. inhibition of cell wall synthesis
c. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase inhibition
d. protein synthesis inhibition

A

c. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase inhibition

182
Q

If we increase the dose of concentration-dependent bactericidal antibiotics, it will result in a quicker killing of bacteria.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

183
Q

Medetomidine is an alpha-2-antagonist.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

184
Q

Lincosamides and macrolides have different spectra, the former being more effective against Gram-negative bacteria, while the latter is only effective against Gram-positive bacteria.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

185
Q

Propofol has a marked analgesic effect.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

186
Q

Specific symptom in toxicosis caused by diazinon:
a. Tachycardia
b. Depression
c. Vomiting
d. Enophtalmus

A

b. Depression

187
Q

Because of its high protein binding, carprofen can cross the blood-milk barrier in dairy cattle.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

188
Q

Which of the following substances can have antiarrhytmic effect?
a. Sotalol
b. None of them
c. Both of them
d. Propanolol

A

c. Both of them

189
Q

The first generation of cephalosporins has the most pronounced efficacy
against Gram-positive bacteria.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

190
Q

Which of the following substance groups has got diuretic effect?
a. Ca2+ channel blockers
b. None of them
c. ATII receptor antagonists
d. Both of them

A

b. None of them

191
Q

Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description.
Amitraz, Moxidectin, Permethrin, Piriproxifen, Fluvalinate, Fluralaner
a. Macrocyclic lactone highly effective against scabies, demodicosis and myiasis:
b. When overdosed, mainly orally, alpha-2 agonist side effects are seen:
c. Antiparasitic agent that can be sequestered by intralipid emulsion infusion (ILE) from the bloodstream in case of intoxication:
d. Pyrethroid effective against varroosis in honey bees:
e. Izoxazoline safe in pregnant dogs:
f. Inhibits metamorphosis:

A

a. Macrocyclic lactone highly effective against scabies, demodicosis and myiasis: Moxidectin
b. When overdosed, mainly orally, alpha-2 agonist side effects are seen: Amitraz
c. Antiparasitic agent that can be sequestered by intralipid emulsion infusion (ILE) from the bloodstream in case of intoxication: Permethrin
d. Pyrethroid effective against varroosis in honey bees: Fluvalinate
e. Izoxazoline safe in pregnant dogs: Fluralaner
f. Inhibits metamorphosis: Piriproxifen

192
Q

Which of the following substances might cause heart remodelling?
a. Furosemide
b. None of them
c. Both of them
d. ACE inhibitors

A

c. Both of them

193
Q

Second generation fluoroquinolones are not effective against intracellular
pathogens.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

194
Q

Pair the antifungal drugs to their mechanisms of action!
Nystatin, Terbinafin, Griseofulvin
a. Ergosterol synthesis inhibitor:
b. Plasma membrane stability inhibitor (polyene):
c. Fungal mitosis inhibitor:

A

a. Ergosterol synthesis inhibitor: Terbinafin
b. Plasma membrane stability inhibitor (polyene): Nystain
c. Fungal mitosis inhibitor: Griseofulvin

195
Q

Penicillins are….
a. inhibitors of folate synthesis
b. inhibitors of cell wall synthesis
c. inhibitors of protein synthesis
d. DNA damaging agents

A

b. inhibitors of cell wall synthesis

196
Q

The average duration of action of benzylpenicillin-procaine is 12-24 hours.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

197
Q

Pair the active ingredient to the appropriate description.
Albendazole, Triclabendazole, Levamizole, Closantel, Ivermectin
a. It is a broad spectrum antiparasitic agent, active against Nematoda, Cestoda and Trematoda.
b. Narrow spectrum antiparasitic, active against all stages of liver fluke.
c. Macrocyclic lactone, active against nematodes and ectoparasites.
d. Antiparasitic agent effective only against nematodes.
e. Among nematodes this antiparasitic agent is active only aganist bloodsucking worms.

A

a. It is a broad spectrum antiparasitic agent, active against Nematoda, Cestoda and Trematoda. Albendazole
b. Narrow spectrum antiparasitic, active against all stages of liver fluke.
Triclabendazole
c. Macrocyclic lactone, active against nematodes and ectoparasites.
Ivermectin
d. Antiparasitic agent effective only against nematodes.
Levamisole
e. Among nematodes this antiparasitic agent is active only aganist bloodsucking worms.
Closantel

198
Q

Long-acting tetracyclines have an excellent distribution, even crossing the blood-brain barrier, making them suitable for the treatment of neurological infections.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

199
Q

Potassium bromide should only be used in epilepsy in dogs because it causes severe pulmonary edema in cats.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

200
Q

Valnemulin is excellent for the treatment of diarrhea caused by Salmonella.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

201
Q

Dogs are more sensitive to cyclophosphamide treatment compared to cats.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

202
Q

In the ligand-receptor binding, a high dissociation constant means lower
affinity of the ligand to the receptor.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

203
Q

Butyl-scopolamine can be used to treat horse colic.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

204
Q

Theobromine inhibits the catecholamine uptake.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

205
Q

HES infusions with higher molar substitution have longer half-life, however, the risk of liver side effects is also higher in case of them.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

206
Q

How much meloxicam injection is needed for the treatment of a horse (bw: 400 kg), if the dose is 0.6 mg/kg(bw) and the concentration of the product is 20 mg/ml?
a. 2ml b. 10ml c. 40ml d. 12ml

A

12ml

207
Q

Cyclosporine can be used safely in dogs and cats in the therapy of autoimmune diseases.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

208
Q

Behaviour modifier agent for the management acral lick dermatitis in the dog:
a. Diazapam
b. Clomipramine
c. Teobromine
d. Trilostane

A

b. Clomipramine

209
Q

Acrolein-caused haemorrhagic cystitis can be alleviated by mesna.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

210
Q

In the calculation of the therapeutic index, the drugs’ LD50 value is divided
with their ED50 value.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

211
Q

In the so-called on-target effect, the harmful effect of the substance occurs when it binds to the wrong receptor.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

212
Q

Antibacterial agent topically used in Gr - otitis externa:
a. Spectinomycin
b. Polymycin B
c. Pradofloxacin
d. Metronidazole

A

b. Polymycin B

213
Q

Potentiated sulfonamides are effective against Mycoplasma and
Mycobacterium species.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

214
Q

Acrolein-caused haemorrhagic cystitis can be alleviated by
mesna.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

215
Q

Pair the substances used in constipation and diarrhoea to their
corresponding statements
Lactulose, MgSO4, Undigestable fibres, Loperamide, Tannic Acid
a. Decreases the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins →
b. GI tract motility increaser used in irritable bowel syndrome (IBS),crossing the BBB →
c. Adstringent, vasoconstrictor antidiarrheal agent
→
d. Diuretic used primerally in non-dehidrated large animals having ad libitum drinking water supply
→
e. Osmotic diuretic used also in hepatic encephalopathy, administered orally or per rectum
→
f. Expanded due to absorbtion of moisture mechanically increases the motility of the GI tract helping passing the stool
→

A

a. Decreases the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins → liquid paraffin
b. GI tract motility increaser used in irritable bowel syndrome (IBS),crossing the BBB
→ loperamide
c. Adstringent, vasoconstrictor antidiarrheal agent
→ tannic acid
d. Diuretic used primerally in non-dehidrated large animals having ad libitum drinking water supply
→ MgSO4
e. Osmotic diuretic used also in hepatic encephalopathy, administered orally or per rectum
→ lactulose
f. Expanded due to absorbtion of moisture mechanically increases the motility of the GI tract helping passing the stool
→ undigestable fibres

216
Q

The distribution of diaminopyrimidines in the body is very poor, they do not cross biological membranes
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

217
Q

Which statement is true about opioids?
a. They act only in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, where the sensory nerves are switched.
b. They act at three sites: supraspinal, spinal and peripheral.
c. They act only supraspinally.
d. Act only peripherally, at the site of pain.

A

b. They act at three sites: supraspinal, spinal and peripheral.

218
Q

Which statement is true? ______
a. All three
b. Opioids act at the site of nociception.
c. Opioids have a very good analgesic effect.
d. Opioids have antidiarrheal and cough suppressant effects

A

a. All three

219
Q

Which of the statements is TRUE for Monobactams? ______
a. Extremely resistant to Gram-negative beta-lactamases, but ineffective against
Gram positive bacteria.
b. All Three.
c. They are classified as AMEG “A”
d. Aztreonam can only be administered parenterally, tigemonam can be administered per os

A

b. All Three.

220
Q

Tulathromycin and gamithromycin are effective against anaerobic bacteria, making them suitable for the treatment of foot-end infections in ruminants.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

221
Q

Pair the active substances to their mechanisms of action!
Heparin, Protamine, Dalteparine, Vitamin K, Dicoumarol derivates, Cloprodogrel, Acetylselicylic Acid
a. → disturbances in synthesis of a few blood clotting factors
b. → antagonist of coumarin derivatives
c. → antithrombin activators
d. → ADP receptor inhibitors
e. → antidote for heparin
f. → antithrombin activators
g. → COX inhibitors

A

a. dicoumarol derivatives
→ disturbances in synthesis of a few blood clotting factors
b.** vitamin K**
→ antagonist of coumarin derivatives
c. dalteparine
→ antithrombin activators
d. clopidogrel
→ ADP receptor inhibitors
e. protamine
→ antidote for heparin
f. heparin
→ antithrombin activators
g. acetylsalicylic acid → COX inhibitors

222
Q

Pair the active substances to the appropriate description
Levothyroxine, Insulin, Trilostane, Methimazole, Fludrocortisone Acetate
a. It is used in feline hyperthyroidism →
b. It is used in hyperadrenocorticism →
c. It is used in Addison’s disease →
d. As side effects it may cause hypoglycaemia →
e. It is used in hypothyroidism →

A

a. It is used in feline hyperthyroidism → Methimazole
b. It is used in hyperadrenocorticism → Trilostane
c. It is used in Addison’s disease → Fludrocortisone acetate
d. As side effects it may cause hypoglycaemia → Insulin
e. It is used in hypothyroidism → Levothyroxine

223
Q

Lidocaine causes pronounced Vasodilation
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

224
Q

Which AMEG category do the 3-4th generation cephalosporins fall into?
a. “C”
b. “D”
c. “A”
d. “B”

A

d. “B”

225
Q

Pair the antimicrobial substances used in companion animals to their description
Cefovecin, Amoxicillin Clavulanic-acid, Doxycycline, Sulfamethoxazole Trimethoprim, Enrofloxacin
a. Given also in canine Isospora canis infection
→
b. Primary choice of drug in Borrelia burgdorferi infection
→
c. Primary choice of drug in canine bacterial prostatitis
→
d. The veterinary formulation of the substance is given PO, SC, IM for UTI and pyoderma cases. Covers anaerobic bacteria as well
→
e. Given SC for oral cavity infections with 10-14 days of duration of action
→

A

a. Given also in canine Isospora canis infection→
sulfamethoxazole trimethoprim
b. Primary choice of drug in Borrelia burgdorferi infection
→ doxycycline
c. Primary choice of drug in canine bacterial prostatitis
→ enrofloxacin
d. The veterinary formulation of the substance is given PO, SC, IM for UTI and pyoderma cases. Covers anaerobic bacteria as well
→ amoxicillin clavulanic-acid
e. Given SC for oral cavity infections with 10-14 days of duration of action
→ cefovecin

226
Q

Side effect of doxorubicin treatment can be cardiotoxicity
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

227
Q

Which of the following side effects are typical of phenicols?
a. Yellow discoloration of bones
b. Explicit kidney damage
c. Photosensitization
d. Anaemia, immunosuppression

A

d. Anaemia, immunosuppression

228
Q

Which statement is true about opioids? _____
a. They exert their powerful analgesic effect through the mu
receptors.
b. They cause bradycardia as a side effect via the delta receptors.
c. They cause obstipation as a side effect through kappa receptors via inhibition
of the myenteric plexus
d. A their antitussive effects are exerted through the kappa receptors.

A

a. They exert their powerful analgesic effect through the mu
receptors.

229
Q

Which drug would you use to treat anaplasmal infections in
dogs?
a. Neomycin
b. Amoxicillin
c. Doxicillin
d. Bacitracin

A

c. Doxicillin

230
Q

Pair the liquid dose forms with the descriptions of them
Suspension, Solution, Emulsion
a. its solute is only solid
→
b. heterogeneous disperse, its precipitate is solid
→
c. heterogeneous disperse, its precipitate is liquid
→
d. its solute is only liquid
→
e. homogeneous disperse, it has no precipitate
→
f. its solute can be solid/liquid/gas
→

A

Pair the liquid dose forms with the descriptions of them
a. its solute is only solid
→ suspension
b. heterogeneous disperse, its precipitate is solid
→ suspension
c. heterogeneous disperse, its precipitate is liquid
→ emulsion
d. its solute is only liquid
→ emulsion
e. homogeneous disperse, it has no precipitate
→ solution
f. its solute can be solid/liquid/gas → solution

231
Q

Which of the following aminoglycoside active substances is typically used as
an eye drop?
a. apramycin
b. paromomycin
c. spectinomycin
d. tobramycin

A

d. tobramycin

232
Q

Pair the active substance to the appropriate description
Xylazine, Midazolam, Detomidine, Azaperone, Atipamezole
a. Allosteric activator of GABA(A)
→
b. Alpha-2-antagonist
→
c. This tranquilizer is not appropriate for oral use
→
d. Potent alpha-2 agonist licensed also for equine use
→
e. Alpha-2-agonist sedative and also a potent emetic agent in cats →

A

a. Allosteric activator of GABA(A)
→ Midazolam
b. Alpha-2-antagonist
→ Atipamezole
c. This tranquilizer is not appropriate for oral use
→ Azaperone
d. Potent alpha-2 agonist licensed also for equine use
→ Detomidine
e. Alpha-2-agonist sedative and also a potent emetic agent in cats → Xylazine

233
Q

What are the side effects of polymyxins?
a. neurotoxicity via flaccid paralysis
b. nephrotoxicity
c. none of these
d. Both

A

d. Both

234
Q

Pair the active substances to their categories!
Sympathomimetics, Parasympatholytics, Glucocorticoids, Leukotriene Receptor antagonists, methylxanthine derivatives, Chromones
a. clenbuterole
→
b. aminophylline
→
c. zafirlukast
→
d. beclomethasone
→
e. zileuton
→
f. propentophylline
→
g. nedocromil
→
h. ipratropium
→
i. fluticasone
→
j. terbutaline
→

A

a. clenbuterole
→ sympathomimetics
b. aminophylline
→ methylxanthine derivatives
c. zafirlukast
→ leukotriene receptor antagonists
d. beclomethasone
→ glucocorticoids
e. zileuton
→ leukotriene synthesis inhibitor
f. propentophylline
→ methylxanthine derivatives
g. nedocromil
→ chromones
h. ipratropium
→ parasympatholytics
i. fluticasone
→ glucocorticoids
j. terbutaline
→ sympathomimetics

235
Q

Cross-resistance between macrolides and pleuromutilins is possible
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

236
Q

In the case of ointments, it is not necessary to write “Externally” on the
prescription, because it is never used internally
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

237
Q

Which statement is not true for tylosin?
a. can be used in dogs to treat antibiotic responsive enteropathy
b. its tablet form does not need to be coated
c. macrolide antibiotic
d. only extra label can be used in farm animals

A

d. only extra label can be used in farm animals

238
Q

Powder for internal use can be direct administered in capsule.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

239
Q

In the treatment of BRDC, penicillins and cefalosporins can be active against both fastidious Gram-negative bacteria and mycoplasmae.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

240
Q

Pair each drug group with the corresponding bacteria according to potency
→ Staphylococcus aureusStreptococcus uberis
→ Streptococcus, Fusobacterium, Bacteroides, E. coli, Pseudomonas aeruginosa
→ Bacillus, Clostridium, Streptococcus, Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae, P. multocida
→ Bacillus, Clostridium, Streptococcus, Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae, E. coli, Salmonella

a. penicillinase-stable penicillins
b. narrow spectrum penicillins
c. Anti-Pseudomonas penicillins
d. broad spectrum penicillins

A

Pair each drug group with the corresponding bacteria according to potency
a. penicillinase-stable penicillins
→ Staphylococcus aureusStreptococcus uberis
b. narrow spectrum penicillins
→ Bacillus, Clostridium, Streptococcus, Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae, P. multocida
c. Anti-Pseudomonas penicillins
→ Streptococcus, Fusobacterium, Bacteroides, E. coli, Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. broad spectrum penicillins
→ Bacillus, Clostridium, Streptococcus, Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae, E. coli, Salmonella

241
Q

Tetracycline antibiotics can be broken down into toxic anhydrotetracyclines a. True
b. False

A

a. True

242
Q

Clavulanic acid is a very stable compound, so intravenous preparations containing amoxicillin clavulanic acid can be used in their aqueous solution for 3-4 days
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

243
Q

When sulfonamides are administered to domestic rabbits and poultry,
vitamin K deficiency may occur, leading to bleeding
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

244
Q

Powder for external use is suitable for wound healing with talc filler.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

245
Q

Amide type local anaesthetics are largely degraded by hepatic inactivation
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

246
Q

Codeine and butorphanol are also used for cough suppression in dogs
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

247
Q

Which of the following aminoglycoside agents has specific antiprotozoal activity?
a. tobramycin
b. amikacin
c. gentamicin
d. paromomycin

A

d. paromomycin

248
Q

How can vancomycin be administered in each indication?
a. both
b. Clostridium-associated pseudomonal colitis per os
c. none of these
d. life-threatening MRSA-associated septicaemia IV

A

a. both

249
Q

Absorption and distribution of fluconazole are excellent, it enters CNS
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

250
Q

Opioids generally cause dysphoria in dogs and euphoria in cats
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

251
Q

Opioids generally cause dysphoria in dogs and euphoria in cats
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

252
Q

Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description.
Propoxur, Diazinon, Amitraz, Coumaphos, Permethrin, Flumethrine
a. Animals must be served with drinking water prior to bathing with this antiparasitic agent to avoid intoxicosis
→
b. Reversible inhibitor of acetylcholin aesterase mostly used in companion animals
→
c. Less safe antiparasitic agent againt scabies, demodicosis and ticks
→
d. As part of the “double defense” prevention for heart worm infestation
used in dogs
→
e. Pirethroid used also in cats in antiparasitic collars →
f. Organophosphate e!ective agains varroosis in honey bees →

A

a. Animals must be served with drinking water prior to bathing with this antiparasitic agent to avoid intoxicosis
→ diazinon
b. Reversible inhibitor of acetylcholin aesterase mostly used in companion animals
→ propoxur
c. Less safe antiparasitic agent againt scabies, demodicosis and ticks
→ amitraz
d. As part of the “double defense” prevention for heart worm infestation
used in dogs
→ permethrin
e. Pirethroid used also in cats in antiparasitic collars → flumethrin
f. Organophosphate e!ective agains varroosis in honey bees → coumaphos

253
Q

Pair the substances to the appropriate description.
Gentamicin, Colistin, Phenoxy-methyl Penicillin, Tiamulin, Procaine Penicillin-
a. An antibacterial agent used both orally and parenterally in pigs, one of the main indications is enteritis caused by Escherichia coli
→
b. A drug of the AMEG B category with very low absorption from the gastrointestinal tract, most commonly indicated for enteritis caused by Escherichia coli
→
c. An antibacterial agent used orally only in pigs and poultry species, to which the bacterial species Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae is almost always sensitive →
d. An antibacterial agent with excellent pharmacokinetic properties used for the treatment of infectious diseases of pigs and poultry species caused by mycoplasmas.
→
e. Substance used parenterally in pigs only, Streptococcus suis is sensitive to this substance in almost all cases
→

A

a. An antibacterial agent used both orally and parenterally in pigs, one of the main
indications is enteritis caused by Escherichia coli
→ Gentamicin
b. A drug of the AMEG B category with very low absorption from the gastrointestinal tract, most commonly indicated for enteritis caused by Escherichia coli
→ Colistin
c. An antibacterial agent used orally only in pigs and poultry species, to which the bacterial species Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae is almost always sensitive → Phenoxymethyl-penicillin
d. An antibacterial agent with excellent pharmacokinetic properties used for the treatment of infectious diseases of pigs and poultry species caused by mycoplasmas.
→ Tiamulin
e. Substance used parenterally in pigs only, Streptococcus suis is sensitive to this substance in almost all cases
→ Procaine penicillin

254
Q

Clindamycin may be used in the therapy of gastrointestinal infections of pigs caused by Lawsonia intracellularis and Brachyspira hyodysenteriae
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

255
Q

Amoxicillin can be used for the treatment of mastitis in cattle via intramammary
infusion, because it’s penetration through the blood- milk barrier is not enough when given parenterally
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

256
Q

Pair the active substances to their categories
Parasympatholytics, Parasympathomimetics, Enzyme reactivators
a. ipratropium
→
b. pralidoxime
→
c. atropine
→
d. neostigmine
→
e. glycopyrrolate
→
f. pyridostigmine
→
g. tropicamide
→
h. butyl-scopolamine
→
i. pilocarpine
→
j. betanechol
→

A

a. ipratropium
→ parasympatholytics
b. pralidoxime
→ enzyme reactivators
c. atropine
→ parasympatholytics
d. neostigmine
→ parasympathomimetics
e. glycopyrrolate
→ parasympatholytics
f. pyridostigmine
→ parasympathomimetics
g. tropicamide
→ parasympatholytics
h. butyl-scopolamine
→ parasympatholytics
i. pilocarpine
→ parasympathomimetics
j. betanechol
→ parasympathomimetics

257
Q

Mupirocin can be used to eliminate MRSA strains
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

258
Q

What is the indication for fourth generation fluoroquinolones?
a. UTIs and gastrointestinal tract infections.
b. Gingivitis, periodontitis, meningitis, meningoencephalitis.
c. Respiratory infections, pyoderma, osteomyelitis, prostatitis, eye infections.
d. All.

A

d. All.

259
Q

Which of the following can sulfonamides be used to treat?
a. Toxoplasma gondii
b. All of them
c. Listeria monocytogenes

A

b. All of them

260
Q

Which of the following can sulfonamides be used to treat?
a. Toxoplasma gondi
b. all of them
c. Listeria monocytogenes
d. Nocardia asteroides

A

b. all of them

261
Q

Cyclophosphamide, chlorambucil, lomustine can be applied orally.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

262
Q

Topically applied procaine has fast onset of action.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

263
Q

Pair liquid dose forms according to whether intravenous administration is
possible.
Administered IV or NOT?
a. Microemulsion
b. Aqueous solution:
c. Emulsion:
d. Microsuspension:
e. Oily solution:
f. Suspension:

A

a. Microemulsion: can be administered intravenously
b. Aqueous solution: can be administered intravenously
c. Emulsion: should not be administered intravenously
d. Microsuspension: can be administered intravenously
e. Oily solution: should not be administered intravenously
f. Suspension: should not be administered intravenously

264
Q

Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description.
Amitraz, Lotilaner, Moxidectin, Coumaphos, Indoxacarb, Delamethrin
a. Glu-mediated clorid ion channel and GABA antagonist antiparasitic agent given orally:
b. Glu-mediated clorid ion channel and GABA agonist antiparasitic agent given also topically:
c. Irreversible inhibitor of acetylcholine aesterase:
d. Monoamine-oxidase inhibitor antiparasitic agent:
e. Na-channel blocker antiparasitic agent effective only against fleas:
f. Contact poison antiparasitic agent with repellent effect:

A

a. Glu-mediated clorid ion channel and GABA antagonist antiparasitic agent given orally: lotilaner
b. Glu-mediated clorid ion channel and GABA agonist antiparasitic agent given also topically: moxidectin
c. Irreversible inhibitor of acetylcholine aesterase: coumaphos
d. Monoamine-oxidase inhibitor antiparasitic agent: amitraz
e. Na-channel blocker antiparasitic agent effective only against fleas: indoxacarb
f. Contact poison antiparasitic agent with repellent effect: delamethrin

265
Q

Capsules and tablets are generally used in farm animals due to their large size,
the use of powders is more common in small animal practise
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

266
Q

The main indications for penicillinase-stable penicillins include
a. Infection with Pseudomonas aeruginoss
b. Tuberculosis
c. Urinary tract infections, oral infections and bite wounds
d. All of these

A

b. Tuberculosis

267
Q

Pair the antibiotics to their typical indication in ruminants!
Colisitin, Oxacillin, Cefoperazone, Apramycin, Gamithromycin
a. Diarrhea in calves
b. Gram positive mastitis
c. Respiratory infections
d. Diarrhea in calves
e. Gram-positives and gram-negative mastitis

A

a. Apramycin: diarrhea in calves
b. Oxacillin: gram positive mastitis
c. Gamithromycin: Respiratory infections
d. Colisitin: diarrhea in calves
e. Cefoperazon: gram-positives and gram-negative mastitis

268
Q

Which agent would you use in the therapy of Bordetella
bronchiseptica-associated distortive rhinitis in pigs?
a. Chloramphenicol
b. Colistin
c. Oxytetracycline
d. Metronidazole

A

c. Oxytetracycline

269
Q

Pair the antimicrobial substances used in companion animals to their description.
Tylozin, Metronidazole, Chloramphenicol, Pradofloxacin, Sulfasalazine, Azithromycin
a. Antimicrobial agent used in canine Giardiosis:
b. Fluoroquinolone used orally also in anal sacculitis:
c. Antibacterial agent used mostly topically with the possibée side effect of aplastic anaemia:
d. Antibacterial agent used in canine antibiotic responzive diarrhea (ARD):
e. Antimicrobial agent used in canine chronic colitis with the possible decrease in tear production (KCS) as side effect:
f. Antibacterial agent used in canine Campylobacter enteritis:

A

a. Antimicrobial agent used in canine Giardiosis: metronidazole
b. Fluoroquinolone used orally also in anal sacculitis: pradofloxacin
c. Antibacterial agent used mostly topically with the possibée side effect of aplastic anaemia: chloramphenicol
d. Antibacterial agent used in canine antibiotic responzive diarrhea (ARD): tylozin
e. Antimicrobial agent used in canine chronic colitis with the possible decrease in tear production (KCS) as side effect: sulfasalazine
f. Antibacterial agent used in canine Campylobacter enteritis: azithromycin

270
Q

Among the premixes we can distinguish between medicated premix and feed supplements, and their fillers are feed-like, e.g. wheat bran.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

271
Q

Rifamycin is not effective against Gram-positive bacteria.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

272
Q

Valnemulin is a time-dependent bactericidal antibacterial agent.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

273
Q

Which of the following is true for the spectrum of nitroimidazoles?
a. None of them
b. They are also effective against protozoa
c. Are effective against anaerobic bacteria
d. Both

A

d. Both

274
Q

Diazinon breaks down into diazoxone, which is a safer and more effective
compound, so it is advisable to prepare anti-parasitic bath waters at least one day in advance.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

275
Q

Which is not part of GMP (good manufacturing practice)?
a. Self-control
b. Innovation
c. Quality control
d. Quality management

A

b. Innovation

276
Q

Local anaesthetics have decreased activity in inflamed or hypoxic tissues.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

277
Q

During the preparation of the suppositories, the suppositories must be formed
one by one from the heated mass by hand and then packaged and placed in a refrigerator.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

278
Q

Pair the active substances to their categories!
Alpha receptor agonist/antagonist, Beta Receptor Agonist/Antagonist

a. Romifidine:
b. Atenolole:
c. Xylazine:
d. Prazosine:
e. Tetrizoline:
f. Doxasozine:
g. Phenylpropanolamine:
h. Atipamezole:
i. Xylometazoline:
j. Metoprolole:

A

a. Romifidine: alpha receptor agonists
b. Atenolole: beta receptor antagonists
c. Xylazine: alpha receptor agonists
d. Prazosine:alpha receptor antagonists
e. Tetrizoline:alpha receptor agonists
f. Doxasozine:alpha receptor antagonists
g. Phenylpropanolamine:alpha receptor agonists
h. Atipamezole:alpha receptor antagonists
i. Xylometazoline:alpha receptor agonists
j. Metoprolole: beta receptor antagonists

279
Q

Pair the substances used for stomach ulcer prevention and treatment to their corresponding statements.
Famotidine, Misoprotol, Omeprazole, Aluminium-Hydroxide, Cimitidine
a. PGE-analogue used exclusively for the prevention of gastric ulcers induced by NSAID’s:

b. H2-antagonist used in cats long-term every other day (ADT):

c. Degraded by the stomach juice, bounds to the demaged mucosa of the stomach wall, less suitable for the treatment of gastric ulceration but rather suitable for binding phosporus:

d. Possible, but not effective antidote for acetaminophen(paracetamol) toxicosis, CYP enzyme inhibitor, not frequently used H2-antagonist:

e. If used for more than 3-4 weeks due to rebound effect administation must be dyscontinued gradually:

A

a. PGE-analogue used exclusively for the prevention of gastric ulcers induced by NSAID’s: misoprotol

b. H2-antagonist used in cats long-term every other day (ADT): famotidine

c. Degraded by the stomach juice, bounds to the demaged mucosa of the stomach wall, less suitable for the treatment of gastric ulceration but rather suitable for binding phosporus: aluminium-hydroxide

d. Possible, but not effective antidote for acetaminophen(paracetamol) toxicosis, CYP enzyme inhibitor, not frequently used H2-antagonist: cimitidine

e. If used for more than 3-4 weeks due to rebound effect administation must be dyscontinued gradually: omeprazole

280
Q

The eye drops are sterile, the original formulations are can be used for 28 days
after opening.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

281
Q

Pair each drug with its characteristic property.
a. Ceftiofur:
b. Ceftazidime:
c. Cefazolin:
d. Cefotaxime:
e. Cefalexin:
f. Cefovecin:

  • Used preoperatively to prevent wound infections
  • Companion animal agent with several weeks duration of action
  • Highly lipophilic, thus crossing the blood-brain barrier, which makes it suitable for the treatment of meningitis
  • Effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • Primary active ingredient in skin infections
  • 0 days on milk for WP
A

a. Ceftiofur: 0 days on milk for WP
b. Ceftazidime: effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Cefazolin: used preoperatively to prevent wound infections
d. Cefotaxime: highly lipophilic, thus crossing the blood-brain barrier, which
makes it suitable for the treatment of meningitis
e. Cefalexin: primary active ingredient in skin infections
f. Cefovecin:companion animal agent with several weeks duration of action

282
Q

Pair the active substance to the appropriate description.

Trilostane, Liothyronine, Ascarbose, Insulin, Thiamizole
a. It inhibits the alpha-glycosidase activity in the gastrointestinal tract:

b. Only indicated in hypothyroidism if the first-choice therapy has failed:

c. It is used in hyperthyroidism:

d. Can be used also in pituitary-dependent Cushing’s sydrome:

e. It can be used in ketosis and fatty liver treatment in cattle which are
non-responsive to glucose:

A

a. It inhibits the alpha-glycosidase activity in the gastrointestinal tract: Acarbose
b. Only indicated in hypothyroidism if the first-choice therapy has failed:
Liothyronine
c. It is used in hyperthyroidism: Thiamizole
d. Can be used also in pituitary-dependent Cushing’s sydrome: Trilostane
e. It can be used in ketosis and fatty liver treatment in cattle which are
non-responsive to glucose: Insulin

283
Q

Which of the following pathogens is florfenicol effective against?
a. None
b. Aeromonas salmonicida
c. Both
d. Vibrio anguillarum

A

c. Both

284
Q

Amfotericin B is used in life-threatening conditions due to its severe side effects.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

285
Q

Clindamycin can be used for the treatment of wounds caused by streptococci and staphylococci, oral cavity infections and sinusitis.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

286
Q

Tilvalosin is used only in the therapy of enteric infections.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

287
Q

Per os absorption of aminoglycosides is excellent, but their distribution is poor.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

288
Q

Gentamicin has anti-Pseudomonas aeruginosa activity.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

289
Q

AMEG Category A agents are
a. None of these
b. Penicillins against pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Non-broad spectrum penicillins
d. Narrow spectrum penicillins

A

b. Penicillins against pseudomonas aeruginosa

290
Q

Pair the active substances to their categories!
Antitussives, Expectorants, Mucolytics
a. Butorphanol:
b. Carbocysteine:
c. Codein:
d. Bromhexin:
e. Tramadol:
f. Guaifenesin:
g. N-acetylcysteine:
h. Dextrometorphan:
i. Dembrexine:
j. Hydrocodon:

A

a. Butorphanol: antitussives
b. Carbocysteine: mucolytics
c. Codein: antitussives
d. Bromhexin: expectorants
e. Tramadol: antitussives
f. Guaifenesin: expectorants
g. N-acetylcysteine:mucolytics
h. Dextrometorphan: antitussives
i. Dembrexine: expectorants
j. Hydrocodon: antitussives

291
Q

Pair the active ingredients to the appropriate description.
Florfenicol, Lincomycin, Amoxicillin, Apramycin, Doxycycline
a. An antibacterial agent used for the treatment of Escherichia coli in pigs and poultry species with low absorption from the gastrointestinal tract:
b. Broad-spectrum MEG C antibacterial agent with excellent absorption for pigs and poultry, indications include enteritis and colibacillosis caused by Escherichia coli, mycoplasma and Gram-negative nutritional pathogens:
c. An oral antibacterial agent for the treatment of enterococcosis in poultry:

d. An antibacterial agent of MEG category C with excellent pharmacokinetic properties for the treatment of staphylococcal disease in intestinal diseases:
e. An antibacterial agent for the treatment of diseases of pig and poultry species caused by pasteurella and mycoplasma:

A

a. An antibacterial agent used for the treatment of Escherichia coli in pigs and poultry species with low absorption from the gastrointestinal tract: apramycin
b. Broad-spectrum MEG C antibacterial agent with excellent absorption for pigs and poultry, indications include enteritis and colibacillosis caused by Escherichia coli, mycoplasma and Gram-negative nutritional pathogens: florfenicol
c. An oral antibacterial agent for the treatment of enterococcosis in poultry:
amoxicillin
d. An antibacterial agent of MEG category C with excellent pharmacokinetic properties for the treatment of staphylococcal disease in intestinal diseases: lincomycin
e. An antibacterial agent for the treatment of diseases of pig and poultry species caused by pasteurella and mycoplasma: doxycycline

292
Q

Acrolein-caused haemorrhagic cystitis can be alleviated by mesna.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

293
Q

Pair the drugs to the appropriate description.
Tramadol, Fentanyl, Buprenorphin, Morphine, Butorphanol
a. Long-acting partial agonist opioid that binds strongly to opioid receptors and may reduce the analgesic effect of full agonists when used in combination with them:

b. A potent full agonist opioid used in veterinary practice as a painkiller and cough suppressant:
c. Agonist-antagonist opioid with weak-to-moderate analgesic effect:

d. One of the most potent analgesic full agonist opioids, also used as a transdermal
patch in veterinary medicine:

e. A full agonist opioid with a potent analgesic effect, requiring 15-30 minutes from
administration for analgesia to develop, depending on the route of administration:

A

a. Long-acting partial agonist opioid that binds strongly to opioid receptors and may reduce the analgesic effect of full agonists when used in combination with them: buprenorphine
b. A potent full agonist opioid used in veterinary practice as a painkiller and cough suppressant: tramadol
c. Agonist-antagonist opioid with weak-to-moderate analgesic effect: butorphanol
d. One of the most potent analgesic full agonist opioids, also used as a transdermal
patch in veterinary medicine: fentanyl
e. A full agonist opioid with a potent analgesic effect, requiring 15-30 minutes from
administration for analgesia to develop, depending on the route of administration:
morphine

294
Q

For potential sulfonamides, what is the sulfonamide:diaminopyrimidine ratio
for our drugs?
a. 1:1
b. 5:1
c. 100:1
d. 20:1

A

b. 5:1

295
Q

Pair the active substances to their categories!
Na+ Channel blockers membrane stabilizers, Ca2+ Channel blockers
a. Quinidine:
b. Amlodipine:
c. Lidocaine:
d. Mexiletine:
e. Diltiazem:

A

a. Quinidine: Na+ channel blockers, membrane stabilizers
b. Amlodipine: Ca2+ channel blockers
c. Lidocaine: Na+ channel blockers, membrane stabilizers
d. Mexiletine: Na+ channel blockers, membrane stabilizers
e. Diltiazem: Ca2+ channel blockers

296
Q

The solutions can be administered by a wide variety of routes,
enterally,parenterally and topically too.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

297
Q

Phenoxymethyl-penicillin is used parenteral in pigs for the treatment of necrotizing enteritis caused by Clostridium perfringensC.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

298
Q

Which of the following agents has anti-endotoxin activity?
a. None
b. Flunixin meglumine
c. Both
d. Meloxicam

A

c. Both

299
Q

Which of the following agents has anti-endotoxin activity?
a. None
b. Flunixin meglumine
c. Both
d. Meloxicam

A

c. Both

300
Q

Which of the following agents has anti-endotoxin activity?
a. None
b. Flunixin meglumine
c. Both
d. Meloxicam

A

c. Both

301
Q

Give the order of disappearance of nervous function after local anesthetic administration.
a. Deep pressure:
b. Motor function:
c. Warmth:
d. Touch:
e. Pain:

A

a. Deep pressure: 4
b. Motor function: 5
c. Warmth: 2
d. Touch: 3
e. Pain: 1

302
Q

Which of the following drugs is characterized by a spasmolytic effect?
a. Metamizole
b. Flunixin-meglumine
c. All two
d. None

A

c. All two

303
Q

Which of the following is the pharmacological action of NSAIDs?
a. Anti-inflammatory
b. Analgesic
c. All three
d. Antipyretic

A

c. All three

304
Q

Mexiletine should be administered intravenously.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

305
Q

Disinfectants and antiseptic have more than one target, therefore pathogens
are not able to develop resistance against these compounds.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

306
Q

Glucocorticoids cause lymphocyte apoptosis.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

307
Q

Pair the quinolone carboxylic acid generations with the statement about them.

a. Generation 1:
b. Generation 2:
c. Generation 3:
d. Generation 4:

  • Their spectrum is narrow, they are effective against Gram-negative rods and coliforms
  • Anti-Streptococcus efficacy is shown
  • Anti-Pseudomonas activity appears
  • Anaerobic efficacy is shown
A

a. Generation 1: their spectrum is narrow, they are effective against Gram-negative rods and coliforms
b. Generation 2: anti-Pseudomonas activity appears
c. Generation 3: anti-Streptococcus efficacy is shown
d. Generation 4: anaerobic efficacy is shown

308
Q

Of the macrolide group, tulathromycin, gamithromycin, and tildipyrosin have
the worst tissue distribution.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

309
Q

Change in pH value influences the efficacy of strong acid disinfectants, but it does not change the effect of weak acid disinfectants.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

310
Q

Which of the following agents has excellent absorption after oral administration in pigs?
a. Gentamicin
b. Colistin
c. Amoxicillin
d. Florfenicol

A

d. Florfenicol

311
Q

Pair the active substances to the appropriate description
Azaperone, Xylazine, Phenobarbital, Chlorpromacine, Diazepam
a. In porcine patients optimal outside temperature should be provided to the animal when this drug is administered:

b. Generally safe agent, but rarely it may cause liver toxicity:

c. It can cause hyperglycaemia and it is contraindicated in late pregnancy:

d. Should be used cautiously
together with aminoglycosides:

e. Contraindicated to use in epileptic and pseudopregnant animals:

A

a. In porcine patients optimal outside temperature should be provided to the animal when this drug is administered: Azaperone
b. Generally safe agent, but rarely it may cause liver toxicity: Phenobarbital
c. It can cause hyperglycaemia and it is contraindicated in late pregnancy: Xylazine
d. Should be used cautiously together with aminoglycosides: Diazepam
e. Contraindicated to use in epileptic and pseudopregnant animals:
Chlorpromazine

312
Q

Which of the following agents is characterized by low absorption after oral
administration in pigs?
a. Florfenicol
b. Enrofloxacin
c. Colistin
d. Tiamulin

A

c. Colistin

313
Q

Olacitinib primarily inhibits the enzyme JAK-2.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

314
Q

Lidocaine can be administered orally for long term therapy
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

315
Q

Amoxicillin is used orally and parenterally in pigs.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

316
Q

Azathioprine is an immunosuppressive agent that belongs to the purine analogue group
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

317
Q

Olacitinib is very well absorbed after per os administration.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

318
Q

Pair the substances used in atopic dermatitis with the corresponding
statement.
Oclacitinib, Bedinvetmab, Lokivetmab, Cyclosporine, Prednisolone, Hydroxyzin
a. Not used for the treatment of atopic dermatitis:

b. Effective In acute and chronic cases, can be applied orally, locally and parenterally as well:

c. The least effective from the listed substances for the treatment of atopic dermatitis, however starting its administration prior to the allergv season might handle the symptoms:

d. Applied once parenterally provides long-acting effect:

e. Used only in chronic cases for long-term treatment due to the delayed onset of action:

f. Antinflammatory and in case of long-term application immunosuppressive agent
decreasing the levels of IL 2, 4, 6, 13, 31:

A

a. Not used for the treatment of atopic dermatitis: Bedinvetmab
b. Effective In acute and chronic cases, can be applied orally, locally and
parenterally as well: Prednisolone
c. The least effective from the listed substances for the treatment of atopic
dermatitis, however starting its administration prior to the allergv season might
handle the symptoms: Hydroxyzin
d. Applied once parenterally provides long-acting effect: Lokivetmab
e. Used only in chronic cases for long-term treatment due to the delayed onset of
action: cyclosporine
f. Antinflammatory and in case of long-term application immunosuppressive agent
decreasing the levels of IL 2, 4, 6, 13, 31: Oclactinib

319
Q

Biofilms can be formed only in inanimate objects.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

320
Q

Pair the active substances to their therapeutical indication(s)!
Dopamine, Adrenaline, Salmeterol, Phenylpropanolamine, Xylazine, Atipamezole, Salbutamol, Timolol, Propanolol
a. Maintenance therapy of RAO, feline asthma
b. Dose-dependent, low dose increases urine output, renal blood
flow, medium dose increases cardiac output and high dose can result in
pressor effects
c. Anaphylaxis, cardiac stop, local bleeding
d. Urinary incontinence due to poor muscle tone in the urethral sphincter
e. Emesis induction, pain reduction, for sedation
f. Antidote for toxicosis caused by alpha-2 receptor agonists
g. Arrhytmia, hypertension
h. Acute asthmatic attacks
i. Glaucoma, hypertension

A

a. Salmeterol: maintenance therapy of RAO, feline asthma
b. Dopamine: dose-dependent, low dose increases urine output, renal blood
flow, medium dose increases cardiac output and high dose can result in
pressor effects
c. Adrenaline: anaphylaxis, cardiac stop, local bleeding
d. Phenylpropanolamine: urinary incontinence due to poor muscle tone in the
urethral sphincter
e. Xylazine: emesis induction, pain reduction, for sedation
f. Atipamezole: antidote for toxicosis caused by alpha-2 receptor agonists
g. Propranolol: arrhytmia, hypertension
h. Salbutamol: acute asthmatic attacks
i. Timolol: glaucoma, hypertension

321
Q

Mycophenolate mofetil is an immunosuppressive agent that belongs to the
group of alkylating agents.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

322
Q

Pair the active ingredient to the appropriate description.
Albendazole, Ivermectin, Closantel, Levamisole, Triclabendazole
a. Antiparasitic agent effective only against nematodes:
b. Among nematodes this antiparasitic agent is active only against bloodsucking
worms:
c. Macrocyclic lactone, active against nematodes and ectoparasites:
d. is a broad spectrum antiparasitic agent, active against Nematoda, Cestoda and Trematoda:
e. Narrow spectrum antiparasitic active against all stages of liver
fluke.

A

a. Antiparasitic agent effective only against nematodes: Levamisole
b. Among nematodes this antiparasitic agent is active only against bloodsucking
worms: Closantel
c. Macrocyclic lactone, active against nematodes and ectoparasites: Ivermectin
d. is a broad spectrum antiparasitic agent, active against Nematoda, Cestoda and
Trematoda: Albendazole
e. Narrow spectrum antiparasitic active against all stages of liver
fluke.Triclabendazole

323
Q

Lipophilic solutions are recommended for intravenous administration due to
their short half-life.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

324
Q

Which is the first choice antibiotic for the treatment of Lawsonia intracellularis proliferative enteropathy in foals?
a. Tiamulin
b. enrofloxacin
c. amoxicillin
d. doxycycline

A

d. doxycycline

325
Q

Pair the anticonvulsant agents with their corresponding statement.
Imepitoin, Phenobarbital, KBr, Propofol, Pentobarbital
a. Antiepileptic agent for Iong term use, efficacy of it should be evaluated within 2-3 weeks after the initiation of the therapy:
b. Antiepileptic agent effective as phenobarbital, but with the possible side effect of 3rd eyelid prolapse:
c. Anticonvulsive anaesthetic agent given as IV bolus or continous rate infusion (CRI):
d. Anticonvulsive agent given in status epileptics or for performing euthanasia as well:
e. Antiepileptic agent for long term use,It can cause severe respiratory distress in cats:

A

a. Antiepileptic agent for Iong term use, efficacy of it should be evaluated within 2-3 weeks after the initiation of the therapy: Phenobarbital
b. Antiepileptic agent effective as phenobarbital, but with the possible side effect of 3rd eyelid prolapse: Imepitoin
c. Anticonvulsive anaesthetic agent given as IV bolus or continous rate infusion (CRI): Propofol
d. Anticonvulsive agent given in status epileptics or for performing euthanasia as well: Pentobarbital
e. Antiepileptic agent for long term use,It can cause severe respiratory distress in cats: KBr

326
Q

It is recommended to monitor monocyte, neutrophil and eosinophil
granulocyte counts during long-term oclacitinib therapy.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

327
Q

Cats generally tolerate glucocorticoid therapy better than dogs
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

328
Q

Which antibiotic group can be used in severe, life-threatening infection of
horses?
a. aminoglycosides
b. all of them
c. cephalosporins
d. fluoroquinolones

A

b. all of them

329
Q

Cyclophosphamide is an immunosuppressive agent belonging to the group of alkylating agents.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

330
Q

Gram-negative fastidious bacteria are generally more susceptible to tilymicosin than mycoplasmas.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

331
Q

Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description.
Lotilaner, Indoxacarb, Moxidectin, Deltamethrin, Amitraz, Coumaphos
a. Na-channel blocker antiparasitic agent effective only against fleas:
b. Glu-mediated Chlorid-ion channel and GABA-agonist antiparasitic agent given also topically:
c. Glu-mediated chlorid-ion channel and GABA-antagonist antiparasic agent given orally:
d. Monoamino-oxidase inhibitor antiparasitic agent:
e. Irreversible inhibitor of acetylcholin aesterase:
f. Contact poison antiparasitic agent with repellent effect:

A

a. Na-channel blocker antiparasitic agent effective only against fleas: Indoxacarb
b. Glu-mediated Chlorid-ion channel and GABA-agonist antiparasitic agent given
also topically: Moxidectin
c. Glu-mediated chlorid-ion channel and GABA-antagonist antiparasic agent given
orally: Lotilaner
d. Monoamino-oxidase inhibitor antiparasitic agent: Amitraz
e. Irreversible inhibitor of acetylcholin aesterase: Coumaphos
f. Contact poison antiparasitic agent with repellent effect: Deltamethrin

332
Q

Pair the following hormones and hormonal agents with the typical route of administration during veterinary practice.
**Oral, Injection, Sc Implant, **
a. Acarbose:
b. Altrenogest:
c. Deslorelin:
d. hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin):
e. Buzerelin:
f. Norgestomet:
g. Methimazole:
h. Glipizide:
i. Lente insulin:

A

a. Acarbose: orally
b. Altrenogest: orally
c. Deslorelin: subcutaneous implant
d. hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin): injection
e. Buzerelin: injection
f. Norgestomet: subcutaneous implant
g. Methimazole: orally
h. Glipizide: orally
i. Lente insulin: injection

333
Q

Pair the antimicrobial substances used in companion animals to their description.
Neomycin, Ronidazole, Florfenicol, Polymyxin-B, Doxycyline, Spiramicin
a. Aminoglicoside agent used primary topically or orally otherwise given is highy toxic:

b. Antimicrobial agent used In Feline Tritrichomonas infection possibly causing CNS signs as side effects:

c. Antibacterial agent used also for its immunmodulatory and antinflammatory effect:

d. Macrolid antibacterial agent used in combination with metronidazole in oral cavity infections:

e. Antibacterial agent used topicallv in P. aeruginosa otitis externa:

f. Primarv choice, topicallv used antibacterial agent in Gr+ otitis externa:

A

a. Aminoglicoside agent used primary topically or orally otherwise given is highy toxic: Neomycin
b. Antimicrobial agent used In Feline Tritrichomonas infection possibly causing CNS signs as side effects: Ronidazole
c. Antibacterial agent used also for its immunmodulatory and antinflammatory effect: Doxycycline
d. Macrolid antibacterial agent used in combination with metronidazole in oral cavity infections: Spiramicin
e. Antibacterial agent used topicallv in P. aeruginosa otitis externa: Polimixin-B
f. Primarv choice, topicallv used antibacterial agent in Gr+ otitis externa:
Florfenicol

334
Q

A typical side effect of glucocorticoid therapy is loss of appetite
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

335
Q

Tilvalosin may be used to treat gastrointestinal tract infections caused by
Escherichia coli and Salmonella.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

336
Q

Pair each agent with the route of administration.
IM/SC, PO, IV/IM/SC, Udder infusopm
a. Cloxacillin:
b. Phenoxymethylpenicillin:
c. Benzylpenicillin procaine/benzatin:
d. Benzylpenicillin Na/K:

A

a. Cloxacillin: mainly udder infusion
b. Phenoxymethylpenicillin: PO
c. Benzylpenicillin procaine/benzatin: IM/SC
d. Benzylpenicillin Na/K: IV/IM/SC

Veterinary Pharmacology (21 decks)

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