Past Q - PHARMA MIDTERM II Flashcards
1
Q
1. Tranquilizer sedative with mild analgesic action: A. Acepromazin B. Droperidol C. Diazepam D. Midazolam
A
D. Midazolam
2
Q
2. It can cause prolapse of the third eyelid in dogs, cats and horses: A. Acepromazine B. Detomidine C. Xylazine D. Diazepam
A
A. Acepromazine
3
Q
3. In the absence of special label instruction, the multi-dose injections can be used ...days after being opened for the first time: A. 21 B. Unlimited C. 28 D. 4
A
C. 28
4
Q
4. What is “GMP”? A. Good veterinary practice B. Good clinical practice C. Good manufacturing Practice D. Good laboratory Practice
A
C. Good manufacturing Practice
5
Q
5. Sedative drugs with no analgesic properties, but it potentiates the effect of analgesics: A. Xylazine B. Acepromazine C. Medetomidine D. Buprenorphine
A
B. Acepromazine
6
Q
6. Which animal species is most sensitive to Xylazine? A. Horse B. Cattle C. Dog D. Swine
A
B. Cattle
7
Q
7. Which type of alterations can be caused by the mutagens on the chromosomes? A. Numerical abnormalities B. Structural abnormalities C. None of them D. Both
A
D. Both
8
Q
- Which examinations are carried out according to the GCP rules?
A. Examination of drug manufacturing processes
B. Human and veterinary clinical drug examination
C. Kinetics and residual drug examinations
D. Toxicology examinations
A
B. Human and veterinary clinical drug examination
9
Q
9. Pre- and post narcotic excitation is the least frequently seen when using this inhalational anaesthetic A. Halothane B. Isoflurane C. Sevoflurane D. Methoxyflurane
A
C. Sevoflurane
10
Q
10. It can cause penile prolapse in male swine: A. Diazepam B. Azeperone C. Detomidine D. Xylazine
A
B. Azeperone
11
Q
11. When applying this anaesthetic, the animal shows signs of catalepsy; its muscles are usually rigid, hypertonic A. Methohexial B. Morphine C. Ketamine D. Propofol
A
C. Ketamine
12
Q
12. What is the physical state of the dispersed phase in the suspension? A. Liquid B. Solid C. None D. Both
A
B. Solid
13
Q
- What kind of examinations has to be conducted according to the rules and regulations of GLP?
A. Examination of drug manufacturing processes
B. Human clinical drug examination
C. Veterinary clinical drug examinations
D. Preclinical examinations: toxicology (?), Kinetics, and residual drug examination
A
D. Preclinical examinations: toxicology (?), Kinetics, and residual drug examination
14
Q
14. The injections have to be always: A. Sterile B. Isoionic C. Clear solution D. pH neutral
A
A. Sterile
15
Q
5. What is the extracting agent to prepare exact? A. None of them B. Watery C. Alcoholic D. Both
A
D. Both
16
Q
16. Which ointment is not washable with water? A. Cetomacrogol emulsifying ointment B. Hydrophilic ointment C. Paraffin ointment D. Emulsifying wax
A
C. Paraffin ointment
17
Q
17. Alpha-2 agonist, which is not used in horses: A. Detomidine B. Xylazine C. Medetomidine D. Romifidine
A
C. Medetomidine
18
Q
18. Sedative that decreases blood pressure, hence cannot be administered to dehydrated animals A. Ketamine B. Diazepam C. Acepromazine D. Butorphanol
A
C. Acepromazine
19
Q
19. Which drug causes cardiovascular depression? A. Propofol B. Both C. None of them D. Etomidate
A
A. Propofol
20
Q
20. Which matrices are investigated in a pharmacokinetic examination? A. Blood, urine, stool, milk, eggs B. Blood C. Edible tissues D. Urine
A
A. Blood, urine, stool, milk, eggs
21
Q
21. Their sedative effect is less related to the applied dose: A. Barbiturated B. Tranquilizers C. Alpha2-RC-agonists D. Benzodiazepines
A
B. Tranquilizers
22
Q
22. This sedative can increase the incidence of convulsion, hence not suitable for administration to patient with epilepsy: A. Acepromazine B. Phenobarbital C. Diazepam D. Xylazine
A
A. Acepromazine
23
Q
23. Which drug group has analgesic effect? A. Both B. None of them C. Alpha-2 agonists D. Benzodiazepines
A
C. Alpha-2 agonists
24
Q
24. This ultra short acting barbiturate can be re-administered within one day: A. Thiamilal B. Methohexital C. Pentobarbital D. Thiopental
A
B. Methohexital
25
Q
25. What is the formulation type of Cremor aqueous? A. Solution type B. Suspension type C. Water in oil (W/O) emulsion cream D. Oil in water (O/W) emulsion cream
A
D. Oil in water (O/W) emulsion cream
26
Q
- Which investigation does not belong to the toxicological studies?
A. Following pf the unwanted side effect after authorization
B. Mutagenicity study
C. Local tolerance study
D. Teratogenic investigation
A
A. Following pf the unwanted side effect after authorization
27
Q
27. Thiopental can be administered: A. IV/IM/SC B. IV/IM C. IM D. IV
A
D. IV
28
Q
28. The solid matter content of liquid extraction is: A. 50-70% B. 50% C. >94% D. >70%
A
B. 50%
29
Q
29. Which Butyrophenone (tranquilizer) is mainly used in lab rodents: A. Azaperone B. Acepromazine C. Fluanisone D. Tiethylperazine
A
C. Fluanisone
30
Q
- Which attribute of a new chemical is tested in the AMES test?
A. Environment toxicity
B. Dermal toxicity
C. Mutagenicity
D. Teratogenicity
A
C. Mutagenicity
31
Q
31. The extravascular administration of this anaesthetic drug causes strong tissue irritation. A. Tiletamine B. Ketamine C. Alphaxalone D. Thiamilal
A
D. Thiamilal
32
Q
- The micronucleus test:
A. Is an electron microscope method for determining teratogenicity
B. Is a light microscope method for determining mutagenicity
C. Is an electron microscope method for determining mutagenicity
D. Is a light microscope method for determining teratogenicity
A
B. Is a light microscope method for determining mutagenicity
33
Q
33. Which ingredient of ointment base belongs to the hydrocarbons? A. Wool wax B. Hard paraffin C. Methylcellulose D. Flax oil
A
B. Hard paraffin
34
Q
34. Which of the following is considered as a water-insoluble base? A. Hydroxyethyl cellulose B. Macrogol 400 C. Cocoa butter D. Gelatine
A
C. Cocoa butter
35
Q
35. Sedative drug with no analgesic properties: A. Butorphenol B. Xylazine C. Chlorpromazine D. Romifidine
A
C. Chlorpromazine
36
Q
36. Alpha-2 agonist NOT used in horses A. Medetomidine B. Romifidine C. Xylazine D. Detomidine
A
A. Medetomidine
37
Q
37. Serious tissue irritation is not characteristic for this anaesthetic, hence it can be applied IM: A. Ketamine B. Etomidate C. Metomidate D. Thiopental
A
A. Ketamine
38
Q
38. Which vehicle is useful for preparation of eye ointment? A. White vaseline B. Simple ointment C. Cocoa butter D. Paraffin ointment
A
A. White vaseline
39
Q
39. Generally, how often should inflammatory infusion be administered in lactating cows? A. Every 3 hours B. Only once C. Every 8-12 hours D. Every 6 hours
A
C. Every 8-12 hours
40
Q
- Which of the following cannot be an attribute of ointments?
A. Cocoa butter can be used as a vehicle base
B. Dissolves at BT
C. Homogenous
D. Does not contain solid particles
A
B. Dissolves at BT
41
Q
41. It increases the release of prolactin, hence not suitable for administration to pseudo-pregnant animal A. Xylazine B. Phenobarbital C. Diazepam D. Chlorpromazine
A
D. Chlorpromazine
42
Q
42. Which investigation belongs to the clinical phase? A. Pharmacological study B. Field trial C. Environmental toxicity study D. Food safety study
A
B. Field trial
43
Q
- Which statement is not true?
A. The sterility and pyrogen-free are not special requirements for injections
B. If the pH of the injection is too low or too high it is given slowly IV
C. Highly tissue irritative injections should be applied IV only
D. Oily solution and suspension, emulsion are generally contraindicated IV
A
A. The sterility and pyrogen-free are not special requirements for injections
44
Q
44. The teratogenicity studies have to be performed at least on: A. 3 animal species B. 1 animal species C. 4 animal species D. 2 animal species
A
D. 2 animal species
45
Q
45. Sedative that decreases BP, hence cannot be administrated to dehydrated animals: A. Butorphenol B. Acepromazine C. Diazepam D. Ketamine
A
B. Acepromazine
46
Q
46. What is a goal of pharmacological investigations in drug research? A. Repeated-dose toxicity studies B. Determination of mechanism .. C. Bioequivalence studies D. Target-animal tolerance investigation
A
B. Determination of mechanism ..
47
Q
47. In the case of Fentanyl overdose, which of the following substances can ...? A. Naloxone B. Flumazenile C. Atipamezole D. Yohimbine
A
A. Naloxone
48
Q
48. Sedative drug with pronounced antiemetic action A. Xylazine B. Acepromazine C. Pheobarbital D. Diazepam
A
B. Acepromazine
49
Q
49. What is the formulation type of Suspensio terpini? A. Emulsion B. Aquous suspension C. Solution D. Oily suspension
A
B. Aquous suspension
50
Q
50.This base ointment is applicable of O/W type of ointments: A. Hydrophilic ointment B. Vaseline C. Paraffin ointment D. Simple ointment
A
A. Hydrophilic ointment
51
Q
51. Butyrophenone, mainly used in swine for stress reduction: A. Fentanyl B. Azeperone C. Azepromazine D. Droperidol
A
B. Azeperone
52
Q
52. Which drug group has analgesic effect? A. None of them B. Alpha-2-agonists C. Both D. Benzodiazepines
A
B. Alpha-2-agonists
53
Q
53. Which effect is characteristic for Medetomidine? A. Anti-inflammatory properties B. Serious respiratory depression C. Muscle relaxant activity D. Causing general anaesthesia
A
C. Muscle relaxant activity
54
Q
54. In the course of registration of licensed medicines, which documentation...(?) the data of clinical trials according to EUDRALEX requirements? A. Part 1 B. Part 2 C. Part 4 D. Part 3
A
C. Part 4
55
Q
55. Their sedative effect is well related to the applied dose: A. Tranquilizers B. Fenothiazines C. Alpha-2-RC-agonists D. Butyrophenones
A
C. Alpha-2-RC-agonists
56
Q
56. This dosage form is the alcoholic extract of medicinal plants: A. Solution B. Tincture C. Suspension D. Emulsion
A
B. Tincture
57
Q
57. Which matrices are examined in a residue analysis? A. Milk, egg, honey B. Edible tissue C. Blood, urine D. Edible tissue, milk, egg, honey
A
D. Edible tissue, milk, egg, honey
58
Q
58. The Extravascular administration of this anesthetic drug causes strong tissue irritation: A. Metomidate B. Tiletamine C. Ketamine D. Alphaxalone
A
A. Metomidate
59
Q
59. Which ointment is washable with water? A. Hydrous ointment B. Simple ointment C. Hydrophilic ointment D. Paraffin ointment
A
C. Hydrophilic ointment
60
Q
- What is the regular process of applying the intra-mammary infusion?
A. Udder-disinfection, udder wash, milking out, administration of infusing
B. Udder wash, disinfection, milking out, administration
C. Milking, wash, administration, disinfection,
D. Wash, milking, administration, disinfection
A
B. Udder wash, disinfection, milking out, administration
61
Q
61. Partial agonist opiate, it is frequently combined with medetomidine: A. Fentanyl B. Ketamine C. Diazepam D. Butorphenol
A
D. Butorphenol
62
Q
- Which statement is not true?
A. Fluanison is useful for neuroleptanalgesia of laboratory animals in combination with fentanyl
B. Butyrophenones cause hypnosis in high dose
C. Azaperon is useful for sedation of pigs and reducing of stress
D. Butyrophenones have slight analgesic effect
A
B. Butyrophenones cause hypnosis in high dose
63
Q
63. What may be the property of the dispersed phase in the emulsion? A. None B. Hydrophilic C. Lipophilic D. Both
A
D. Both
64
Q
- Which statement is true?
A. Phenobarbital has CYP450-enzyme inductor effect
B. Swine is the most sensitive to Xylazine
C. The effect of benzodiazepines can be suspended with Atipamezole
D. Diazepam has pronounced emetic (?) effect in cat
A
A. Phenobarbital has CYP450-enzyme inductor effect
65
Q
65. Important side effects are bradycardia, pronounced respiratory depression, and hypotension: A. Butorphanol B. Ketamine: C. Atropine D. Fentanyl
A
D. Fentanyl
66
Q
66. Injectable anaesthetic, its re-administration is prohibited: A. Thiopental B. Propofol C. Ketamine D. Methohexital
A
A. Thiopental
67
Q
- The sympathetic nervous system (SNS) and parasympathetic nervous system are divisions of which of the following?
A. Somatic nervous system division of peripheral nervous system
B. Somatic nervous system division of central nervous system
C. Autonomic nervous system division of peripheral nervous system
D. Autonomic nervous system division of central nervous system
A
C. Autonomic nervous system division of peripheral nervous system
68
Q
68. Preganglionic sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers release \_\_\_\_, postganglionic parasympathetic fibers release \_\_\_\_ (for muscarinic cholinergic receptors), and postganglionic sympathetic fibers release \_\_\_\_ (for adrenergic receptors). A. ACh; ACh; NE B. ACh; NE; Ach C. NE; ACh; NE D. NE; NE; Ach
A
A. ACh; ACh; NE
69
Q
69. Which of the following adrenergic receptors is most commonly found pre-synaptic? A. alpha-1 B. alpha-2 C. beta-1 D. beta-2
A
B. alpha-2
70
Q
- Which of the following describes the result of adrenal medulla stimulation?
A. Mass parasympathetic discharge, 85:15 ratio of epi:norepi
B. Mass parasympathetic discharge, 15:85 ratio of epi:norepi
C. Mass sympathetic discharge, 85:15 ratio of epi:norepi
D. Mass sympathetic discharge, 15:85 ratio of epi:norepi
A
C. Mass sympathetic discharge, 85:15 ratio of epi:norepi
71
Q
- Match the sympathetic response with the receptor:
A. Increased lipid breakdown ! beta-3
B. Peripheral vasoconstriction ! alpha-1
C. Increased heart rate and blood pressure ! beta-1
D. Bronchial dilation, coronary dilation, glucose conversion ! beta-2
A
….
72
Q
72. What amino acids are converted into catecholamine’s (NE, Epi, Dopamine)? A. Alanine B. Proline C. Lysine D. Tyrosine E. Valine
A
D. Tyrosine
73
Q
73. Which of the following is transported into vesicles via the vesicular monoamine transporter (VMAT), uptake 2, and a proton antiporter: A. Epinephrine B. Norepinephrine C. Dopamine D. Adrenalin
A
C. Dopamine
74
Q
74. Which of the following is co-stored and co-released with ATP? A. Epinephrine B. Norepinephrine C. Dopamine D. Adrenalin
A
B. Norepinephrine
75
Q
75. Which of the following form varicosities or en passant synapses, with the arrival of an action potential leading to Ca2+ influx and exocytosis? A. Presynaptic sympathetic B. Presynaptic parasympathetic C. Postsynaptic sympathetic D. Postsynaptic parasympathetic
A
C. Postsynaptic sympathetic
76
Q
- Which of the following methods of terminating axon response is NOT a target for drug action?
A. Reuptake via NE transporter (NET): Uptake 1
B. Metabolism of NE of inactive metabolite
C. NE diffusion away from synaptic cleft
A
C. NE diffusion away from synaptic cleft
77
Q
77. NET is a symporter of what ion? A. K+ B. Ca2+ C. Cl- D. Na+ E. Mg2+
A
D. Na+
78
Q
78. Which of the following is recycled via VMAT into vesicles after response termination? A. NE B. L-DOPA C. NET D. EPI E. DOPGAL
A
A. NE
79
Q
- Which of the following is broken down by MAO-B (monoamine oxidase) more than the others?
A. Serotonin (5-HT)
B. Norepinepherine (NE)
C. Dopamine (DA)
A
C. Dopamine (DA)
80
Q
80. Where is the cytosolic catecholamine metabolizing enzyme catechol-O-methyl transferase (COMT) primarily found? A. Liver B. GI tract C. Placenta D. Blood platelets
A
A. Liver
81
Q
81. Which of the following receptor subtypes relaxes smooth muscle and causes liver glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis? A. alpha-1 (Gq/Gi/Go) B. alpha-2 (Gi/Go) C. beta-1 (Gs) D. beta-2 (Gs) E. beta-3 (Gs)
A
D. beta-2 (Gs)
82
Q
82. Which of the following receptor subtypes causes vascular smooth muscle contraction and genitourinary smooth muscle contraction? A. alpha-1 (Gq/Gi/Go) B. alpha-2 (Gi/Go) C. beta-1 (Gs) D. beta-2 (Gs) E. beta-3 (Gs)
A
A. alpha-1 (Gq/Gi/Go)
83
Q
83. Which of the following receptor subtypes increases cardiac chronotropy (rate) and inotropy (contractility), increases AV-node conduction velocity, and increases rennin secretion in renal juxtaglomerular cells? A. alpha-1 (Gq/Gi/Go) B. alpha-2 (Gi/Go) C. beta-1 (Gs) D. beta-2 (Gs) E. beta-3 (Gs)
A
C. beta-1 (Gs)
84
Q
84. Which of the following receptor subtypes decreases insulin secretion from pancreatic b-cells, decreases nerve cell norepinephrine release, and contracts vascular smooth muscle? A. alpha-1 (Gq/Gi/Go) B. alpha-2 (Gi/Go) C. beta-1 (Gs) D. beta-2 (Gs) E. beta-3 (Gs)
A
B. alpha-2 (Gi/Go)
85
Q
85. What type(s) of second messenger(s) interact with adenylyl cyclase? A. alpha-1 B. alpha-2 C. beta D. beta and alpha-1 E. beta and alpha-2
A
E. beta and alpha-2
86
Q
86. What type(s) of second messenger(s) are associated with phospholipase C (PLC)? A. alpha-1 B. alpha-2 C. beta D. beta and alpha-1 E. beta and alpha-2
A
A. alpha-1
87
Q
- Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with ephedrine, amphetamine, and tyramine?
A. Direct binding to the receptor
B. Promoting release of norepinephrine
C. Inhibiting reuptake of norepinephrine
D. Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrine
A
B. Promoting release of norepinephrine
88
Q
- Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with MAO inhibitors?
A. Direct binding to the receptor
B. Promoting release of norepinephrine
C. Inhibiting reuptake of norepinephrine
D. Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrine
A
D. Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrine
89
Q
- Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with tricyclic antidepressants and cocaine?
A. Direct binding to the receptor
B. Promoting release of norepinephrine
C. Inhibiting reuptake of norepinephrine
D. Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrine
A
C. Inhibiting reuptake of norepinephrine
90
Q
90. Which of the following is NOT true of catecholamines? A. Non-polar B. Cannot cross the blood-brain barrier C. Cannot be used as an oral drug D. Have brief duration E. MAO and COMT act rapidly
A
A. Non-polar
91
Q
- Match the catecholamine with the receptor(s):
- Isoproterenol ! beta
- Dobutamine ! beta-1
- Norepinepherine ! alpha and beta
- Dopamine ! delta-1 and delta-2
- Epinepherine ! alpha and beta
A
…
92
Q
92. The basic structure of a catecholamine involves a catechol ring and which of the following types of amines? A. Methyl amine B. Ethyl amine C. Butyl amine D. Tert-butyl amine E. Propyl amine
A
B. Ethyl amine
93
Q
- Match the noncatecholamines with the receptor agonist:
A. Clonidine ! alpha-2-agonist
B. Metaproterenol, terbutaline, ritodine ! beta-2-agonist
C. Phenylephrine ! alpha-1-agonist
A
….
94
Q
94. Which of the following are a long-acting (oral) a1-agonist and not a short-acting (nasal spray, ophthalmic drops) a1-agonist? A. Phenylephrine B. Oxymetazoline C. Tetrahydrazaline D. Pseudoephedrine
A
D. Pseudoephedrine
95
Q
95. Which of the following would NOT be used as a topical vasoconstrictor for a patient with epistaxis (nasal pack soaked in drug)? A. Phenylephrine B. Epinepherine C. Oymetazoline D. Isoproterenol
A
D. Isoproterenol
96
Q
- Alpha-1 drugs can be given with local anesthetics to vasoconstrictor and decrease blood flow to the side of administration. Which of the following should not be given above the web space?
A. Phenylephrine
B. Epinephrine
C. Methoxamine
A
B. Epinephrine
97
Q
97. Which of the following is the a1 drug of choice (DOC) for retinal exams and surgery, giving mydiasis (dilation of iris)? A. Ephedrine B. Epinepherine C. Oymetazoline D. Isoproterenol E. Phenylephrine
A
E. Phenylephrine
98
Q
98. Alpha-2-agonists are only approved for hypertension and work by decreasing sympathetic tone and increasing vagal tone. Which of the following is NOT a a2-agonist? A. Clonidine B. Methyldopa C. Guanabenz D. Guanfacine E. Epinephrine
A
E. Epinephrine
99
Q
99. At the adrenergic synapse, what does alpha-2 do? A. Stimulates NE release B. Inhibits NE release C. Stimulates ACh release D. Inhibits ACh release
A
B. Inhibits NE release
100
Q
100. Which of the following agonists would be used for asthma patients or to delay premature labor? A. alpha-2-agonist B. alpha-1-agonist C. beta-2-agonist D. beta-1-agonist
A
C. beta-2-agonist
101
Q
101. Which of the following agonists would be used for cardiogenic shock, cardiac arrest, heart block, or heart failure? A. alpha-1-agonist B. alpha-2-agonist C. beta-1-agonist D. beta-2-agonist
A
C. beta-1-agonist
102
Q
102. Which of the following is NOT a beta-2-agonist? A. Terbutaline B. Ritodrine C. Metaproterenol D. Albuterol E. Phenylepherine
A
E. Phenylepherine
103
Q
103. Beta-2 stimulation leads to an increase in the cellular uptake of what ion, and thus a decrease in plasma concentration of that ion? A. K+ B. Ca2+ C. Cl- D. Na+ E. Mg2+
A
A. K+
104
Q
104. Dopamine receptor activation (D1) dilates renal blood vessels at low dose. At higher doses (treatment for shock), which of the following receptor is activated? A. alpha-1 B. alpha-2 C. beta-1 D. beta-2
A
A. alpha-1
105
Q
- Which of the following responses to sympathetic stimulation would prevent receptors from being couples with G-proteins?
A. Sequestration
B. Down-regulation
C. Phosphorylation
A
C. Phosphorylation
106
Q
106. Which of the following is the action of the indirect-acting sympathomimetic drug cocaine? A. Stimulator of NET (uptake 1) B. Inhibitor of NET (uptake 1) C. Stimulator of VMAT (uptake 2) D. Inhibitor of VMAT (uptake 2)
A
B. Inhibitor of NET (uptake 1)
107
Q
107. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) have a great deal of side effects. Which of the following is the action of TCAs? A. Stimulator of NET (uptake 1) B. Inhibitor of NET (uptake 1) C. Stimulator of VMAT (uptake 2) D. Inhibitor of VMAT (uptake 2)
A
B. Inhibitor of NET (uptake 1)
108
Q
108. Which of the following is NOT a mixed sympathomimetic? A. Amphetamine B. Methamphetamine C. Phenylepherine D. Pseudoephedrine
A
C. Phenylepherine
109
Q
109. Prior to an operation to remove a pheochromocytoma (neuroendocrine tumor of the medulla of the adrenal glands), which of the following should be given to the patient? A. alpha-agonist B. alpha-blocker C. beta-agonist D. beta-blocker
A
B. alpha-blocker
110
Q
110. Which of the following is NOT an indication for b-blocker therapy? A. Hypotension B. Angina pectoris C. Arrhythmias D. Myocardial infarction
A
A. Hypotension
111
Q
111. Which of the following b-blockers is used for decreasing aqueous humor secretions from the ciliary body? A. Propranolol B. Nadolol C. Timolol D. Metoprolol
A
D. Metoprolol
112
Q
- Which of the following is NOT considered cardio selective? A. Metoprolol
B. Atenolol
C. Esmolol
D. Carvedilol
A
D. Carvedilol
113
Q
113. Blocking a2 presynaptic receptors will do which of the following? A. Stimulate NE release B. Inhibit NE release C. Stimulate DA release D. Inhibit DA release
A
A. Stimulate NE release
114
Q
114. Which of the following drugs irreversibly damages VMAT? A. Tyramine B. Guanethidine C. Reserpine D. Propranolol
A
D. Propranolol
115
Q
115. Which of the following is the most likely to occur with parenteral administration of a alpha-1-agonist drug? A. Hypotension B. Hypertension C. Tissue necrosis D. Vasodilation
A
B. Hypertension
116
Q
116. Which of the following agonists can have dose-related withdrawal syndrome if the drug is withdrawn too quickly, leading to rebound hypertension? A. alpha-1-agonist B. alpha-2-agonist C. beta-1-agonist D. beta-2-agonist
A
B. alpha-2-agonist
117
Q
117. Which of the following agonists can have sedation and xerostomia (dry mouth) in 50% of patients starting therapy, sexual dysfunction in males, nauseas, dizziness, and sleep disturbances? A. alpha-1-agonist B. alpha-2-agonist C. beta-1-agonist D. beta-2-agonist
A
B. alpha-2-agonist
118
Q
118. Which of the following agonists can cause hyperglycemia in diabetics? A. alpha-2-agonist B. alpha-1-agonist C. beta-3-agonist D. beta-2-agonist
A
A. alpha-2-agonist
119
Q
119. Angina pectoris, tachycardia, and arrhythmias are possible adverse effects of which of the following agonists? A. alpha-2-agonist B. alpha-1-agonist C. beta-2-agonist D. beta-1-agonist
A
D. beta-1-agonist
120
Q
120. If a patient is taking MAO inhibitors and ingests tyramine (red wine, aged cheese), which of the following acute responses is most likely? (Sympathomimetic) A. Stimulation of NE release B. Inhibition of NE release C. Stimulation of ACh release D. Inhibition of ACh release
A
A. Stimulation of NE release
121
Q
121. Which of the following occurs acutely, leading to a false neurotransmitter, with increased guanethidine? (Sympathomimetic) A. Stimulation of NE release B. Inhibition of NE release C. Stimulation of ACh release D. Inhibition of ACh release
A
A. Stimulation of NE release
122
Q
122. Major adverse affects of the a1 blockade include reflex tachycardia and which of the following? A. Orthostatic tachycardia B. Orthostatic bradycardia C. Orthostatic hypertension D. Orthostatic hypotension
A
D. Orthostatic hypotension
123
Q
123. Which of the following effects would be intensified with the a2 blockade? A. Reflex tachycardia B. Reflex bradycardia C. Orthostatic hypertension D. Orthostatic hypotension
A
A. Reflex tachycardia
124
Q
124. Which of the following is NOT an adverse affect of the b1 blockade? A. Bradycardia B. Decreased cardiac output C. AV node block D. Increased arrhythmias
A
D. Increased arrhythmias
125
Q
125. Which of the following is the most severe adverse effect that has been associated with sudden termination of b1-blockers? A. Atrial fibrillation B. Syncope (fainting) C. Angina D. Sudden death
A
D. Sudden death
126
Q
126. Which of the following groups of patients is most at risk for adverse effect seen in b2-blockers? A. Asthmatics B. Congestive heart failure patients C. Trauma patients D. Diabetics
A
A. Asthmatics
127
Q
127. Which of the following can be detrimental in diabetics and also can lead to masking of tachycardia, which is indicative of hypoglycemia? A. alpha-1-blocker B. alpha-2-blocker C. beta-1-blocker D. beta-2-blocker
A
D. beta-2-blocker
128
Q
- Which of the following is NOT true regarding the parasympathetic nervous system?
A. Is considered cranio-sacral
B. Involves rest and digestion functions
C. Has nicotinic receptors on cell bodies of all postganglionic neurons
D. Target organs have muscarinic receptors for ACh
E. Innervation of vascular smooth muscle
A
E. Innervation of vascular smooth muscle
129
Q
129. Where is acetyl CoA synthesized (pre-synthesis for ACh)? A. Synaptic cleft B. Cytosol C. Mitochondria D. Extracellular matrix E. Lysosomes
A
C. Mitochondria
130
Q
130. Which of the following locations contains choline from phosphatidylcholine? A. Milk B. Liver C. Eggs D. Peanuts E. Blood plasma
A
E. Blood plasma
131
Q
131. What part of the cholinergic synapse is affected by botulinum toxin? A. ACh increased B. ACh decreased C. Muscarinic ACh receptor modified D. Nicotinic ACh receptor modified E. AChE inhibited
A
B. ACh decreased
132
Q
132. ACh is packaged into vesicles via what ACh ion antiporter? A. K+ B. Ca2+ C. Cl- D. Na+ E. H+
A
E. H+
133
Q
133. Influx of what ion causes ACh release into the synaptic cleft, prior to ACh being terminated by acetylcholinesterase (AChE)? A. K+ B. Ca2+ C. Cl- D. Na+ E. H+
A
B. Ca2+
134
Q
134. Nicotinic N2 receptors are the \_\_\_\_ subtype and nicotinic N1 receptors are the \_\_\_\_subtype. A. Neuronal; Muscular B. Muscular; Neuronal C. Nodal; Neuronal D. Neuronal; Nodal E. Sympathetic; Parasympathetic
A
A. Neuronal; Muscular
135
Q
135. Which of the following best description of the drug nicotine? A. Muscular subtype nicotinic agonist B. Muscular subtype nicotinic antagonist C. Neuronal subtype nicotinic agonist D. Neuronal subtype nicotinic antagonist
A
C. Neuronal subtype nicotinic agonist
136
Q
- Amanita muscaria (fly Amanita) is a fungal muscarinic agonist, which is most often associated with which side effect?
A. Tachycardia B. Bradycardia C. Euphoria
D. Sedation
E. Hallucinations
A
E. Hallucinations
137
Q
137. Which of the following G-protein is associated with smooth muscle and glandular tissue, muscarinic receptor M3, mobilizing internal Ca2+ and the DAG cascade? A. Gs B. Gi C. Gq D. Go
A
C. Gq
138
Q
138. Which of the following G-protein is associated with heart and intestines, muscarinic receptor M2, decreasing adenylyl cyclase activity. A. Gs B. Gi C. Gq D. Go
A
B. Gi
139
Q
139. The drugs bethanechol and pilocarpine are: A. Acetylcholine agonists B. Acetylcholine antagonists C. Muscarinic agonists D. Muscarinic antagonists E. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
A
C. Muscarinic agonists
140
Q
- Which of the following is NOT a primary effect of stimulating muscarinic M receptors?
A. Release of nitric oxide (vasodilation)
B. Iris contraction (miosis)
C. Ciliary muscle contraction and accommodation of the lens (near vision)
D. Bronchi dilation and decreased bronchiole secretions
E. Salivary/lacrimal thin and watery secretions
A
D. Bronchi dilation and decreased bronchiole secretions
141
Q
- Which of the following is NOT a primary effect of stimulating muscarinic M receptors?
A. Tachycardia, increased conduction velocity
B. Increased GI tract tone and secretions
C. Diaphoresis from sweat glands
D. Penile erection
E. Contraction of urinary detrusor muscle and relaxation of urinary sphincter
A
A. Tachycardia, increased conduction velocity
142
Q
- What is bethanechol most commonly used for?
A. For decreasing heart rate
B. To decrease blood pressure (vasodilation)
C. For urinary retention
D. Decreasing intraocular pressure
E. For erectile dysfunction
A
C. For urinary retention
143
Q
- What is pilocarpine most commonly used for?
A. For decreasing heart rate
B. To decrease blood pressure (vasodilation)
C. For urinary retention
D. Decreasing intraocular pressure
E. For erectile dysfunction
A
D. Decreasing intraocular pressure
144
Q
144. Which of the following is NOT a result of excessive cholinergic stimulation, as would be seen with a nerve agent or organophosphate poisoning? A. Diarrhea B. Diaphoresis C. Mydriasis D. Nausea E. Urinary urgency
A
C. Mydriasis
145
Q
145. What type of drugs are atropine, scopolamine, and pirenzepine? A. Acetylcholine agonists B. Acetylcholine antagonists C. Muscarinic agonists D. Muscarinic antagonists E. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
A
D. Muscarinic antagonists
146
Q
146. What drug is a natural alkaloid found in Solanaceae plants (deadly nightshade)? A. Bethanechol B. Pilocarpine C. Pirenzepine D. Scopolamine E. Atropine
A
E. Atropine
147
Q
- What two clinical results of atropine facilitate opthalmoscopic examination?
A. Mydriasis (iris dilation) and increased lacrimation
B. Cycloplegia (ciliary paralysis) and miosis (iris constriction)
C. Miosis and increased lacrimation
D. Mydriasis and cycloplegia
E. Xerophthalmia (dry eyes) and mydriasis
A
D. Mydriasis and cycloplegia
148
Q
148. Which of the following is an adverse affect of atropine? A. Increased salivation B. Blurred vision C. Bradycardia D. Diaphoresis E. Decreased intraocular pressure
A
B. Blurred vision
149
Q
149. Which of the following is NOT a major symptom of atropine toxicity? A. Blind as a bat B. Red as a beet C. Mad as a hatter D. Hot as a hare E. Wet as a towel
A
E. Wet as a towel
150
Q
150. Which of the following topical ophthalmic drugs is also used for motion sickness? (injection, oral, or transdermal patch) A. Atropine B. Scopolamine C. Homatropine D. Tropicamide
A
B. Scopolamine
151
Q
151. Of the following mydriatics/cycloplegics, \_\_\_\_ last 7-10 days (longest) and \_\_\_\_ last 6 hours (shortest). A. Atropine; Scopolamine B. Scopolamine; Homatropine C. Homatropine; Tropicamide D. Tropicamide; Atropine E. Atropine; Tropicamide
A
E. Atropine; Tropicamide
152
Q
152. Butyrylcholinesterase (BuChE) is a nonspecific pseudocholinesterase located in glia, plasma, liver, and other organs. What type of local anesthetics are metabolized by BuChE (e.g. procaine), along with succinylcholine (paralytic)? A. Ester B. Ether C. Amine D. Alkane E. Alcohol
A
A. Ester
153
Q
153. Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for atropine intoxication? A. Neostigmine B. Physostigmine C. Endrophonium D. Donepezil E. Pyridostigmine
A
B. Physostigmine
154
Q
154. Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for anesthesia? A. Neostigmine B. Physostigmine C. Endrophonium D. Donepezil E. Pyridostigmine
A
A. Neostigmine
155
Q
155. Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for Alzheimer disease? A. Neostigmine B. Physostigmine C. Endrophonium D. Donepezil E. Pyridostigmine
A
D. Donepezil
156
Q
156. Which of the following cholinesterase inhibitors is NOT used for Myasthenia Gravis (MG)? A. Neostigmine B. Physostigmine C. Endrophonium D. Pyridostigmine
A
B. Physostigmine
157
Q
157. Which of the following is NOT an irreversible cholinesterase inhibitor (organophosphate AChE inhibitors)? A. Tacrine B. Echothiophate C. Sarin, toban, soman D. Malathion, parathion E. Isoflurophate
A
A. Tacrine
158
Q
158. By what mechanism do irreversible ACHE inhibitors permanently bind to the esteratic site enzyme? A. Hydroxylation B. Hydrolysis C. Phosphorylation D. Peptide E. Methylation
A
C. Phosphorylation
159
Q
- A MARK-1 auto injection kit is given to certain medical and military personnel who may be exposed to nerve agents or organophosphate pesticides. The kit has two drugs, an acetylcholine esterase inhibitor and a cholinesterase re-activator (antidote). What two drugs would you expect to be in this kit?
A. Pralidoxime (2-PAM) and echothiophate
B. Parathion and adenosine
C. Scopolamine and tropicamide
D. Mecamylamine and pralidoxime (2-PAM)
E. Atropine and pralidoxime (2-PAM)
A
E. Atropine and pralidoxime (2-PAM)
160
Q
160. Some organophosphate AChE inhibitor insecticides have a 40-hour half-life. What is the approximate half-life of soman? A. 6 seconds B. 6 minutes C. 1 hour D. 6 hours E. 60 hours
A
B. 6 minutes
161
Q
161. What is currently the only ganglion blocker (shuts down entire ANS) still available in the United States? A. Mecamylamine B. Scopolamine C. Echothiophate D. Pralidoxime E. Parathion
A
A. Mecamylamine
162
Q
162. Which of the following is NOT an effect of autonomic ganglion blocking? A. Anhidrosis and xerostomia B. Mydriasis C. Tachycardia D. Hypertension E. Cycloplegia
A
D. Hypertension
163
Q
163. Which neuromuscular blocking drug can be reversed by the cholinesterase inhibitor Neostigmine A. Succinylcholine B. Suxamethonium C. Atracurium D. Endrophonium
A
A. Succinylcholine
164
Q
- How does neuromuscular blocking drugs work?
A. Decreased blood pressure – due to histamine release
B. Stimulate opening or closing of nicotinic Ach receptor channel and produce or
prevent depolarization of the cell membrane
C. Unusual mechanism
D. Combine reversibly with the esteratic site of the acetylcholineesterase enzyme rendering it
inactive for about 30 minutes
A
B. Stimulate opening or closing of nicotinic Ach receptor channel and produce or
prevent depolarization of the cell membrane
165
Q
165. What are the adverse effects of anticholinesterases? A. Tachycardia B. Bradycardia C. Hypokalemia D. Hyperkalemia E. Arrhythmia
A
B. Bradycardia
166
Q
166. Prior to an operation to remove a pheochromocytoma (neuroendocrine tumor of the medulla of the adrenal glands), which of the following should be given to the patient? A. Alpha-agonist B. Alpha-blocker C. Beta-agonist D. Beta-blocker
A
B. Alpha-blocker
167
Q
167. Blocking alpha-2 presynaptic receptors will do which of the following? A. Stimulate NE release B. Inhibit NE release C. Stimulate DA release D. Inhibit DA release
A
A. Stimulate NE release
168
Q
168. In cats it is a useful emetic drug: A. Xylazine B. Clonidine C. Medetomidine D. Dexmedetomidine
A
A. Xylazine
169
Q
169. Not allowed in pseudo-pregnant females A. Acepromazine B. Detomidine C. Ketamine D. Propofol
A
A. Acepromazine
170
Q
170. Only effective according to IV application A. Detomidine B. Acepromazine C. Ketamine D. Propofol
A
D. Propofol
171
Q
171. Of these four injectable anesthetics which one is effective after IM administration? A. Ketamine B. Propofol C. Thiopental D. Metomediate
A
A. Ketamine
172
Q
172. In dogs the primarily chosen drug in status epileptics A. Sodium valproate B. Diazepam C. Phenobarbital D. Sodium bromide
A
B. Diazepam
173
Q
73. Contraindicated in epileptic patients: A. Morphine B. Acepromazine C. Metohexital D. Ketamine
A
B. Acepromazine
174
Q
174. In medicine they can be orally applied antitussive (cough suppressing) opioid agent as well A. Fentanyl B. Codeine C. Butorphanol D. Tramadol
A
C. Butorphanol
175
Q
175. Which agents are antidotes of sedative drugs? A. Dexamedetomidin B. Phenycyclidine C. Antipamezole D. Flumazenil
A
D. Flumazenil
176
Q
176. “Slower to act” transmitters in CNS A. Dopamine B. Endorphins C. Enkephalins D. Serotonine (5-HT)
A
C. Enkephalins
177
Q
177. Ultra-short acting barbiturates A. Pentobarbital B. Thiopental C. Butobarbital D. Venobarbital
A
B. Thiopental
178
Q
- Apply the letter code of the drug preparation type to the drug products below:
A. O/W emulsion
B. W/O emulsion
C. Oil suspension
D. Real solution
Burow solution – aluminum aceticum tartaricum Ungumentum hydrophilicum nonionicum Suspensio zinici oleosa
Ungumentum aluminii acetici tartarici
A
………
179
Q
- Which one cannot be an attribute of ointments?
A. Homogenous
B. Does dissolve on body temperature
C. Cocoa-butter can be used as vehicle base
D. Does not contain solid particles
A
B. Does dissolve on body temperature
180
Q
180. How frequent should be the intra-mammary infusions re-applied in case of lactating cows? A. Every 3 hours B. Every 6 hours C. Every 12 hours D. Only once
A
C. Every 12 hours
181
Q
181. It is a GSH-category? A. Nutagenic B. Nou toxic for fish c. Unknown mechanism of effect d. Highly toxic
A
d. Highly toxic
182
Q
182. What does “hypnotic” effect of a substance mean? A. Pain killing effect B. Causes sleeping C. Causes hallucinations D. Causes catalepsy
A
B. Causes sleeping
183
Q
- Less soluble liquid active ingredient is dispersed in the liquid vehicle:
A. Solution
B. Emulsion
C. Suspension
A
B. Emulsion
184
Q
184. Sedative drug with no analgesic properties: A. Chlorpromazine B. Promethazine C. Acepromazine D. Thiethylperazine
A
A. Chlorpromazine
185
Q
- Can be combined with carcinogenicity studies:
A. Acute toxicity studies
B. Repeated-dose toxicity studies
C. Teratogenicity studies
D. Preclinical and pharmalogical investigations
A
B. Repeated-dose toxicity studies
186
Q
186. Inhalational anesthetics. It is potentially hepatotoxic, teratogenic and immunotoxic effect, lead to its being banned in EU: A. Halothane B. Desflurane C. Isoflurane D. Seuoflurane
A
A. Halothane
187
Q
187. Sedative that can cause Paradoxical in horses: A. Romifidine B. Detomidine C. Nidazolam D. Acepromazine
A
D. Acepromazine
188
Q
188. This sedative can increase the incidence of convulsions, hence not suitable for administration to patients with epilepsy. A. Diazepam B. Acepromazine C. Xylazine D. Phenobarbital
A
B. Acepromazine
189
Q
189. Gels are dosage form with the following attribute: A. High water content B. Its vehicle is gel of other origins C. Only oral application D. None of these
A
B. Its vehicle is gel of other origins
190
Q
190. Duration of action of thiopental: A. 5-10 minutes B. 30 minutes C. 1 hour D. 10-20 minutes
A
A. 5-10 minutes
191
Q
191. Because of its anxiolytic effect, this substance can be used in stress-related diseases (e.g stress- related colitis). A. Diazepam B. Ketoprofen C. Xylazine D. Acepromazine
A
A. Diazepam
192
Q
192. Sedative that decreases blood pressure hence cannot be administrated to seriously dehydrated animals. A. Azepromazine B. Diazepam C. Chlorpromazine D. Ketamine
A
A. Azepromazine
193
Q
193. Which drug can be used as a premedication to reverse the cardiovascular actions of Xylazine? A. Natoxone B. Flumazenil C. Xylometazoline D. Glycopirrholate
A
B. Flumazenil
194
Q
194. Duration of action of propofol: A. 5-8 minutes B. 10 minutes C. 15 minutes D. 30 minutes
A
A. 5-8 minutes
195
Q
195. How long is the tested substance applied to expiration duration in chronic toxicity studies? A. 2 years B. 3 years C. 5 years D. 10 years
A
A. 2 years
196
Q
196. A drug with potent visceral analgesic properties: A. Xylazine B. Butorphanol C. Ketamine D. Propofol
A
B. Butorphanol
197
Q
197. In which animal species are the local tolerance studies performed most frequently? A. Rat B. Rabbit C. Beagle D. Mouse
A
B. Rabbit
198
Q
198. Most important side effects of ultra-short acting barbiturates: A. Respiratory depression B. Vomiting C. Paralysis D. Blindness
A
A. Respiratory depression
199
Q
199. Which of the following administrations of Diazepam would you recommend in a case of status epilepticus: A. Rectal B. Subcutaneous C. Oral D. Intramuscular
A
A. Rectal
200
Q
- Effect characteristics for medetomidine:
A. Muscle relaxant activity
A
A. Muscle relaxant activity
201
Q
Which of the following are non-water soluble bases? A. Both of them B. Sunflower oil C. Wool fat D. Neither
A
A. Both of them
202
Q
Reliable anaesthetics in cats A. Acepromacine B. Ketamine C. Xylacine D. Detomidine
A
C. Xylacine
203
Q
Which drug has pronounced hepatotoxic effect A. Sevoflurane B. Propofol C. Isoflurane D. Halothane
A
C. Isoflurane
204
Q
Which drug has NOT got a muscle relaxant effect? A. Ketamin B. Etomidate C. Propofol D. Thiopentan
A
B. Etomidate
205
Q
Which of the following is non-soluble vehicles? A. Hydrophilic ointment base B. Both of them C. Neither of these D. Hydro....
A
C. Neither of these
206
Q
Its cardiovascular side effects are negligible A. Xylacine B. Propofol C. Diazepam D. Medetomidine
A
C. Diazepam
207
Q
Which drug has a pronounced analgesic effect? A. Ketamin B. Etomidate C. Propofol D. Pentobarbital
A
C. Propofol
208
Q
Which is a lipophilic suppository base? A. Hard fat B. Talc C. Macrogol mixture D. Castor oil
A
A. Hard fat
209
Q
The dept of their sedative effect is well related to the applied dose? A. Tranquilizers B. Butyrophenones C. Fenothiazines D. Alpha-2-receptor agonists
A
D. Alpha-2-receptor agonists
210
Q
Which is NOT characteristics of Xylacine? A. Sedation B. Causing general anesthesia C. Muscle Relaxants D. Analgesia
A
B. Causing general anesthesia
211
Q
Is a butyrophenone, tranquilizer used mainly in laboratory rodents? A. Fluanizone B. Azaperone C. Tiethylperazine D. Acepromacine
A
A. Fluanizone
212
Q
This general anesthetic drug can cause pronounced dose dependent reversible respiratory inhibition? A. Alphaxalone B. Ketamine C. Etomidate D. Thiamilal
A
?
213
Q
Appropriate as an antidote for Xylacine and Medetomidine? A. Atipamizole B. Samazenile C. Fluanisone D. Flumazenile
A
D. Flumazenile
214
Q
Which drug formulation belongs to the coherent colloidal system? A. Ointment B. Cream C. Gel D. Paste
A
D. Paste
215
Q
Inhalation anaesthetic, its potentially hepatotoxic ..... effects led to its being banned in the European union A. Halothane B. Desiflurane C. Isoflurane D. Sevoflurane
A
A. Halothane
216
Q
Which of the following is considered to be water soluble base? A. Soft Parafin B. Hydroxyethylcellulose C. Cocoa butter D. Vaseline
A
B. Hydroxyethylcellulose
217
Q
Which statement is not true?
A. Local tolerance study examines the alterations of the site of the exposure
B. Teratological studies investigate abnormalities of the embryo.
C. Mutagenic study investigates the structural and numerical changes of the chromosomes
D. Pharmacological studies investigate the movement of a drug in the body
A
D. Pharmacological studies investigate the movement of a drug in the body
218
Q
The duration of action of propofol in dogs A. 15-20min B. 20-45min C. 20-30 sec D. 6-8 min
A
D. 5-8 min
219
Q
If the aim of these investigations is to determine the stability of the drug product in medicated drinking water, What are the appropriate conditions? A. Room temperature 0-3 months B. Room temperature 0-4 weeks C. 40 degrees, 75% RH, 0-6 months D. Room temp 0-24 hours
A
D. Room temp 0-24 hours
220
Q
Which is an emulsifying agent? A. Cocoa butter B. Purified water C. Preservative solution D. Polysorbate 20
A
D. Polysorbate 20
221
Q
Which alpha-2 agonist is usefull in swine A. Medetomidine B. Detomidine C. Non of them D. Both
A
C. Non of them
222
Q
In the course of registration of licenced medicine which term of safety documentation according to EDURALEX requirements A. Part 4 B. Part 3 C. Part 1 D. Part 2
A
D. Part 2
223
Q
Which of the following is a characteristics of pastes? A. Each of them B. High lipid content C. High dry matter content D. High water content
A
C. High dry matter content
224
Q
Which parameter has to be determined during an acute oral toxicity A. GHS classification B. TD50 C. ED50 D. Bioequivanence
A
B. TD50
225
Q
What kind of effect can be expected when using ointments? A. Local effect B. Neither of them C. Both local and systemic effect D. Systemic effect
A
C. Both local and systemic effect
226
Q
What kind of examinations has to be conducted according to the rules and regulations of GLP
A. Preclinical examination, topological, Kinetics and residual drug examinations.
B. Examination of drug manufacturing processes.
C. Human clinical drug examinations
D. Veterinary clinical drug examinations
A
A. Preclinical examination, topological, Kinetics and residual drug examinations.
227
Q
What kind of bases can be used as eye ointment? A. Soft parafin B. White vaselin C. Castor oil D. all kinds of these ingredients
A
D. all kinds of these ingredients
228
Q
Which drug accumulate in fat tissues? A. Ketamin B. Etomidate C. Thiopental D. Althesin
A
C. Thiopental
229
Q
Amoung the listed inhalational anaesthetic drugs, this one has the most pronounced excitatory action? A. Sevoflurane B. Isoflurane C. Halothane D. Desiflurane
A
C. Halothane
230
Q
Which of the following are non-water soluble vehicles? A. Hydrous ointment base B. Both of them C. Neither of these D. Hydrophilus oitmentbase
A
A. Hydrous ointment base
231
Q
This general anaesthetic drug can cause pronounced dose dependent and reversible respiratory inhibition. A. Etomidate B. Ketamin C. Alphaxalone D. Thiamilal
A
D. Thiamilal
232
Q
Which phenothiazine has pronounced antiemetic effect? A. Proprionil promazine B. Fluanisone C. Thiethylperazine D. Promethazine
A
C. Thiethylperazine
233
Q
Which of the following has the longest duration of action A. Thiopental B. Ketamin C. Methohexital D. Propofol
A
B. Ketamin
234
Q
Which effect is characteristic to phenothiazine tranquelizers? A. They have analgesic effect B. They increase fertillity rate C. They have sedative effect D. They induce hypnosis
A
C. They have sedative effect
235
Q
Which statement is true?
A. Phenothiazines are rapidly excreted from the body, thus they can be appplied directly before slaughtering
B. Phenothiazines decrease the secretion of prolactin
C. Phenothiazines can be useful in the treatment of Pseudopregnancy.
D. Chloropromazine can cause severe tissue irritation given IM
A
D. Chloropromazine can cause severe tissue irritation given IM
236
Q
Which alpha 2 agonist is usefull in horses? A. Detomidine B. Xylasine C. Both D. Non
A
C. Both
237
Q
Which of the following is characteristic for creams? A. Non of these B. Higher dry material content C. Higher water content D. Higher lipid content
A
C. Higher water content
238
Q
It is a GHS-category A. Mutagenic B. Non-toxic for fish C. Unknown mechanism of action D. Highly toxic
A
A. Mutagenic
239
Q
Less soluble fine powder active ingredients is dispersed in liquid vehicle A. Emulsion B. Solution C. Suspension D. Tincture
A
D. Tincture
240
Q
This base ointment is applicable for O/W type of ointment A. Vaseline B. Hydrophillic ointment C. Simple ointment D. Parafin ointment
A
B. Hydrophillic ointment
241
Q
Which drug has pronounced analgesic effect? A. Propofol B. Pentobarbital C. Ketamin D. Etomidate
A
C. Ketamin
242
Q
Which term is abriviated as MRL? A. Maximal metabolite concentration B. Minimal concentration of the residual drug C. Maximal residual drug concentration D. Minimal metabolite concentration
A
C. Maximal residual drug concentration
243
Q
Can cause the prolaps of the penis in some stallions A. Diazepam/Midazolam B. Detomidine/Romifidine C. Azepromazine/Propionilpromazine D. Morphine/Etorphine
A
C. Azepromazine/Propionilpromazine
244
Q
Sedative that can cause paradoxical reacions in horses A. Acepromazine B. Romifidine C. Midazolam D. Detomidine
A
A. Acepromazine
245
Q
Which of the following is not a prerequisite of anesthesia? A. Somatic and visceral analgesia B. Muscle relaxation C. Is not determined D. Total unconciousness
A
C. Is not determined
246
Q
The optimal PH value for a injection is A. 8-10 B. 5-7 C. Is not determined D. 3-4
A
B. 5-7
