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Veterinary Pharmacology > Past Q - PHARMA MIDTERM II > Flashcards

Past Q - PHARMA MIDTERM II Flashcards

1
Q 
1. Tranquilizer sedative with mild analgesic action: 
A. Acepromazin
B. Droperidol
C. Diazepam
D. Midazolam
A

D. Midazolam

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2
Q 
2. It can cause prolapse of the third eyelid in dogs, cats and horses: 
A. Acepromazine
B. Detomidine
C. Xylazine
D. Diazepam
A

A. Acepromazine

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3
Q 
3. In the absence of special label instruction, the multi-dose injections can be used ...days after being opened for the first time:
A. 21 
B. Unlimited 
C. 28
D. 4
A

C. 28

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4
Q 
4. What is “GMP”?
A. Good veterinary practice
B. Good clinical practice
C. Good manufacturing Practice 
D. Good laboratory Practice
A

C. Good manufacturing Practice

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5
Q 
5. Sedative drugs with no analgesic properties, but it potentiates the effect of analgesics: 
A. Xylazine
B. Acepromazine 
C. Medetomidine
D. Buprenorphine
A

B. Acepromazine

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6
Q 
6. Which animal species is most sensitive to Xylazine? 
A. Horse
B. Cattle 
C. Dog
D. Swine
A

B. Cattle

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7
Q 
7. Which type of alterations can be caused by the mutagens on the chromosomes?
A. Numerical abnormalities
B. Structural abnormalities
C. None of them
D. Both
A

D. Both

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8
Q
  1. Which examinations are carried out according to the GCP rules?
    A. Examination of drug manufacturing processes
    B. Human and veterinary clinical drug examination
    C. Kinetics and residual drug examinations
    D. Toxicology examinations
A

B. Human and veterinary clinical drug examination

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9
Q 
9. Pre- and post narcotic excitation is the least frequently seen when using this inhalational anaesthetic 
A. Halothane
B. Isoflurane
C. Sevoflurane 
D. Methoxyflurane
A

C. Sevoflurane

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10
Q 
10. It can cause penile prolapse in male swine: 
A. Diazepam
B. Azeperone 
C. Detomidine 
D. Xylazine
A

B. Azeperone

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11
Q 
11. When applying this anaesthetic, the animal shows signs of catalepsy; its muscles are usually rigid, hypertonic
A. Methohexial 
B. Morphine
C. Ketamine 
D. Propofol
A

C. Ketamine

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12
Q 
12. What is the physical state of the dispersed phase in the suspension? 
A. Liquid
B. Solid 
C. None
 D. Both
A

B. Solid

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13
Q
  1. What kind of examinations has to be conducted according to the rules and regulations of GLP?
    A. Examination of drug manufacturing processes
    B. Human clinical drug examination
    C. Veterinary clinical drug examinations
    D. Preclinical examinations: toxicology (?), Kinetics, and residual drug examination
A

D. Preclinical examinations: toxicology (?), Kinetics, and residual drug examination

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14
Q 
14. The injections have to be always: 
A. Sterile
B. Isoionic
C. Clear solution
D. pH neutral
A

A. Sterile

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15
Q 
5. What is the extracting agent to prepare exact?
A. None of them
B. Watery
C. Alcoholic
D. Both
A

D. Both

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16
Q 
16. Which ointment is not washable with water?
A. Cetomacrogol emulsifying ointment
B. Hydrophilic ointment
C. Paraffin ointment
D. Emulsifying wax
A

C. Paraffin ointment

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17
Q 
17. Alpha-2 agonist, which is not used in horses: 
A. Detomidine
B. Xylazine
C. Medetomidine 
D. Romifidine
A

C. Medetomidine

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18
Q 
18. Sedative that decreases blood pressure, hence cannot be administered to dehydrated animals 
A. Ketamine
B. Diazepam
C. Acepromazine 
D. Butorphanol
A

C. Acepromazine

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19
Q 
19. Which drug causes cardiovascular depression?
A. Propofol
B. Both
C. None of them
D. Etomidate
A

A. Propofol

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20
Q 
20. Which matrices are investigated in a pharmacokinetic examination?
A. Blood, urine, stool, milk, eggs
B. Blood
C. Edible tissues
D. Urine
A

A. Blood, urine, stool, milk, eggs

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21
Q 
21. Their sedative effect is less related to the applied dose: 
A. Barbiturated
B. Tranquilizers
C. Alpha2-RC-agonists 
D. Benzodiazepines
A

B. Tranquilizers

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22
Q 
22. This sedative can increase the incidence of convulsion, hence not suitable for administration to patient with epilepsy:
A. Acepromazine 
B. Phenobarbital
C. Diazepam
D. Xylazine
A

A. Acepromazine

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23
Q 
23. Which drug group has analgesic effect?
A. Both
B. None of them
C. Alpha-2 agonists
D. Benzodiazepines
A

C. Alpha-2 agonists

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24
Q 
24. This ultra short acting barbiturate can be re-administered within one day:
A. Thiamilal
B. Methohexital
C. Pentobarbital
D. Thiopental
A

B. Methohexital

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25
Q 
25. What is the formulation type of Cremor aqueous?
A. Solution type
B. Suspension type
C. Water in oil (W/O) emulsion cream
D. Oil in water (O/W) emulsion cream
A

D. Oil in water (O/W) emulsion cream

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26
Q
  1. Which investigation does not belong to the toxicological studies?
    A. Following pf the unwanted side effect after authorization
    B. Mutagenicity study
    C. Local tolerance study
    D. Teratogenic investigation
A

A. Following pf the unwanted side effect after authorization

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27
Q 
27. Thiopental can be administered: 
A. IV/IM/SC
B. IV/IM 
C. IM
D. IV
A

D. IV

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28
Q 
28. The solid matter content of liquid extraction is: 
A. 50-70%
B. 50% 
C. >94% 
D. >70%
A

B. 50%

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29
Q 
29. Which Butyrophenone (tranquilizer) is mainly used in lab rodents: 
A. Azaperone
B. Acepromazine 
C. Fluanisone
D. Tiethylperazine
A

C. Fluanisone

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30
Q
  1. Which attribute of a new chemical is tested in the AMES test?

A. Environment toxicity
B. Dermal toxicity
C. Mutagenicity
D. Teratogenicity

A

C. Mutagenicity

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31
Q 
31. The extravascular administration of this anaesthetic drug causes strong tissue irritation.
A. Tiletamine
B. Ketamine
C. Alphaxalone
D. Thiamilal
A

D. Thiamilal

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32
Q
  1. The micronucleus test:
    A. Is an electron microscope method for determining teratogenicity
    B. Is a light microscope method for determining mutagenicity
    C. Is an electron microscope method for determining mutagenicity
    D. Is a light microscope method for determining teratogenicity
A

B. Is a light microscope method for determining mutagenicity

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33
Q 
33. Which ingredient of ointment base belongs to the hydrocarbons?
A. Wool wax
B. Hard paraffin
C. Methylcellulose
D. Flax oil
A

B. Hard paraffin

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34
Q 
34. Which of the following is considered as a water-insoluble base?
A. Hydroxyethyl cellulose
B. Macrogol 400
C. Cocoa butter
D. Gelatine
A

C. Cocoa butter

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35
Q 
35. Sedative drug with no analgesic properties: 
A. Butorphenol
B. Xylazine
C. Chlorpromazine 
D. Romifidine
A

C. Chlorpromazine

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36
Q 
36. Alpha-2 agonist NOT used in horses 
A. Medetomidine
B. Romifidine
C. Xylazine
D. Detomidine
A

A. Medetomidine

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37
Q 
37. Serious tissue irritation is not characteristic for this anaesthetic, hence it can be applied IM:
A. Ketamine
B. Etomidate 
C. Metomidate 
D. Thiopental
A

A. Ketamine

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38
Q 
38. Which vehicle is useful for preparation of eye ointment?
A. White vaseline
B. Simple ointment
C. Cocoa butter
D. Paraffin ointment
A

A. White vaseline

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39
Q 
39. Generally, how often should inflammatory infusion be administered in lactating cows?
A. Every 3 hours
B. Only once
C. Every 8-12 hours
D. Every 6 hours
A

C. Every 8-12 hours

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40
Q
  1. Which of the following cannot be an attribute of ointments?
    A. Cocoa butter can be used as a vehicle base
    B. Dissolves at BT
    C. Homogenous
    D. Does not contain solid particles
A

B. Dissolves at BT

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41
Q 
41. It increases the release of prolactin, hence not suitable for administration to pseudo-pregnant animal 
A. Xylazine
B. Phenobarbital
C. Diazepam
D. Chlorpromazine
A

D. Chlorpromazine

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42
Q 
42. Which investigation belongs to the clinical phase?
A. Pharmacological study
B. Field trial
C. Environmental toxicity study
D. Food safety study
A

B. Field trial

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43
Q
  1. Which statement is not true?
    A. The sterility and pyrogen-free are not special requirements for injections
    B. If the pH of the injection is too low or too high it is given slowly IV
    C. Highly tissue irritative injections should be applied IV only
    D. Oily solution and suspension, emulsion are generally contraindicated IV
A

A. The sterility and pyrogen-free are not special requirements for injections

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44
Q 
44. The teratogenicity studies have to be performed at least on: 
A. 3 animal species
B. 1 animal species
C. 4 animal species
D. 2 animal species
A

D. 2 animal species

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45
Q 
45. Sedative that decreases BP, hence cannot be administrated to dehydrated animals: 
A. Butorphenol
B. Acepromazine 
C. Diazepam
D. Ketamine
A

B. Acepromazine

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46
Q 
46. What is a goal of pharmacological investigations in drug research?
A. Repeated-dose toxicity studies
B. Determination of mechanism ..
C. Bioequivalence studies
D. Target-animal tolerance investigation
A

B. Determination of mechanism ..

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47
Q 
47. In the case of Fentanyl overdose, which of the following substances can ...? 
A. Naloxone
B. Flumazenile 
C. Atipamezole 
D. Yohimbine
A

A. Naloxone

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48
Q 
48. Sedative drug with pronounced antiemetic action 
A. Xylazine
B. Acepromazine 
C. Pheobarbital
D. Diazepam
A

B. Acepromazine

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49
Q 
49. What is the formulation type of Suspensio terpini?
A. Emulsion
B. Aquous suspension
C. Solution
D. Oily suspension
A

B. Aquous suspension

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50
Q 
50.This base ointment is applicable of O/W type of ointments:
A. Hydrophilic ointment
B. Vaseline
C. Paraffin ointment
D. Simple ointment
A

A. Hydrophilic ointment

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51
Q 
51. Butyrophenone, mainly used in swine for stress reduction: 
A. Fentanyl
B. Azeperone 
C. Azepromazine 
D. Droperidol
A

B. Azeperone

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52
Q 
52. Which drug group has analgesic effect?
A. None of them
B. Alpha-2-agonists
C. Both
D. Benzodiazepines
A

B. Alpha-2-agonists

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53
Q 
53. Which effect is characteristic for Medetomidine?
A. Anti-inflammatory properties
B. Serious respiratory depression
C. Muscle relaxant activity
D. Causing general anaesthesia
A

C. Muscle relaxant activity

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54
Q 
54. In the course of registration of licensed medicines, which documentation...(?) the data of clinical trials according to EUDRALEX requirements?
A. Part 1
B. Part 2
C. Part 4
D. Part 3
A

C. Part 4

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55
Q 
55. Their sedative effect is well related to the applied dose: 
A. Tranquilizers
B. Fenothiazines
C. Alpha-2-RC-agonists
D. Butyrophenones
A

C. Alpha-2-RC-agonists

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56
Q 
56. This dosage form is the alcoholic extract of medicinal plants: 
A. Solution
B. Tincture 
C. Suspension 
D. Emulsion
A

B. Tincture

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57
Q 
57. Which matrices are examined in a residue analysis?
A. Milk, egg, honey
B. Edible tissue
C. Blood, urine
D. Edible tissue, milk, egg, honey
A

D. Edible tissue, milk, egg, honey

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58
Q 
58. The Extravascular administration of this anesthetic drug causes strong tissue irritation: 
A. Metomidate
B. Tiletamine
C. Ketamine
D. Alphaxalone
A

A. Metomidate

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59
Q 
59. Which ointment is washable with water?
A. Hydrous ointment
B. Simple ointment
C. Hydrophilic ointment
D. Paraffin ointment
A

C. Hydrophilic ointment

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60
Q
  1. What is the regular process of applying the intra-mammary infusion?
    A. Udder-disinfection, udder wash, milking out, administration of infusing
    B. Udder wash, disinfection, milking out, administration
    C. Milking, wash, administration, disinfection,
    D. Wash, milking, administration, disinfection
A

B. Udder wash, disinfection, milking out, administration

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61
Q 
61. Partial agonist opiate, it is frequently combined with medetomidine: 
A. Fentanyl
B. Ketamine
C. Diazepam
D. Butorphenol
A

D. Butorphenol

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62
Q
  1. Which statement is not true?
    A. Fluanison is useful for neuroleptanalgesia of laboratory animals in combination with fentanyl
    B. Butyrophenones cause hypnosis in high dose
    C. Azaperon is useful for sedation of pigs and reducing of stress
    D. Butyrophenones have slight analgesic effect
A

B. Butyrophenones cause hypnosis in high dose

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63
Q 
63. What may be the property of the dispersed phase in the emulsion? 
A. None
B. Hydrophilic 
C. Lipophilic 
D. Both
A

D. Both

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64
Q
  1. Which statement is true?
    A. Phenobarbital has CYP450-enzyme inductor effect
    B. Swine is the most sensitive to Xylazine
    C. The effect of benzodiazepines can be suspended with Atipamezole
    D. Diazepam has pronounced emetic (?) effect in cat
A

A. Phenobarbital has CYP450-enzyme inductor effect

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65
Q 
65. Important side effects are bradycardia, pronounced respiratory depression, and hypotension: 
A. Butorphanol
B. Ketamine:
C. Atropine
D. Fentanyl
A

D. Fentanyl

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66
Q 
66. Injectable anaesthetic, its re-administration is prohibited: 
A. Thiopental
B. Propofol
C. Ketamine
D. Methohexital
A

A. Thiopental

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67
Q
  1. The sympathetic nervous system (SNS) and parasympathetic nervous system are divisions of which of the following?
    A. Somatic nervous system division of peripheral nervous system
    B. Somatic nervous system division of central nervous system
    C. Autonomic nervous system division of peripheral nervous system
    D. Autonomic nervous system division of central nervous system
A

C. Autonomic nervous system division of peripheral nervous system

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68
Q 
68. Preganglionic sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers release \_\_\_\_, postganglionic parasympathetic fibers release \_\_\_\_ (for muscarinic cholinergic receptors), and postganglionic sympathetic fibers release \_\_\_\_ (for adrenergic receptors).
A. ACh; ACh; NE
B. ACh; NE; Ach
C. NE; ACh; NE
D. NE; NE; Ach
A

A. ACh; ACh; NE

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69
Q 
69. Which of the following adrenergic receptors is most commonly found pre-synaptic? 
A. alpha-1
B. alpha-2 
C. beta-1 
D. beta-2
A

B. alpha-2

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70
Q
  1. Which of the following describes the result of adrenal medulla stimulation?
    A. Mass parasympathetic discharge, 85:15 ratio of epi:norepi
    B. Mass parasympathetic discharge, 15:85 ratio of epi:norepi
    C. Mass sympathetic discharge, 85:15 ratio of epi:norepi
    D. Mass sympathetic discharge, 15:85 ratio of epi:norepi
A

C. Mass sympathetic discharge, 85:15 ratio of epi:norepi

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71
Q
  1. Match the sympathetic response with the receptor:
    A. Increased lipid breakdown ! beta-3
    B. Peripheral vasoconstriction ! alpha-1
    C. Increased heart rate and blood pressure ! beta-1
    D. Bronchial dilation, coronary dilation, glucose conversion ! beta-2
A

….

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72
Q 
72. What amino acids are converted into catecholamine’s (NE, Epi, Dopamine)? 
A. Alanine
B. Proline
C. Lysine
D. Tyrosine 
E. Valine
A

D. Tyrosine

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73
Q 
73. Which of the following is transported into vesicles via the vesicular monoamine transporter (VMAT), uptake 2, and a proton antiporter:
A. Epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine 
C. Dopamine
D. Adrenalin
A

C. Dopamine

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74
Q 
74. Which of the following is co-stored and co-released with ATP? 
A. Epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine 
C. Dopamine
D. Adrenalin
A

B. Norepinephrine

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75
Q 
75. Which of the following form varicosities or en passant synapses, with the arrival of an action potential leading to Ca2+ influx and exocytosis?
A. Presynaptic sympathetic
B. Presynaptic parasympathetic
C. Postsynaptic sympathetic
D. Postsynaptic parasympathetic
A

C. Postsynaptic sympathetic

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76
Q
  1. Which of the following methods of terminating axon response is NOT a target for drug action?
    A. Reuptake via NE transporter (NET): Uptake 1
    B. Metabolism of NE of inactive metabolite
    C. NE diffusion away from synaptic cleft
A

C. NE diffusion away from synaptic cleft

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77
Q 
77. NET is a symporter of what ion?
A. K+
B. Ca2+
C. Cl-
D. Na+
E. Mg2+
A

D. Na+

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78
Q 
78. Which of the following is recycled via VMAT into vesicles after response termination? 
A. NE
B. L-DOPA 
C. NET
D. EPI
E. DOPGAL
A

A. NE

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79
Q
  1. Which of the following is broken down by MAO-B (monoamine oxidase) more than the others?
    A. Serotonin (5-HT)
    B. Norepinepherine (NE)
    C. Dopamine (DA)
A

C. Dopamine (DA)

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80
Q 
80. Where is the cytosolic catecholamine metabolizing enzyme catechol-O-methyl transferase (COMT) primarily found?
A. Liver
B. GI tract
C. Placenta
D. Blood platelets
A

A. Liver

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81
Q 
81. Which of the following receptor subtypes relaxes smooth muscle and causes liver glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis?
A. alpha-1 (Gq/Gi/Go)
B. alpha-2 (Gi/Go)
C. beta-1 (Gs)
D. beta-2 (Gs)
E. beta-3 (Gs)
A

D. beta-2 (Gs)

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82
Q 
82. Which of the following receptor subtypes causes vascular smooth muscle contraction and genitourinary smooth muscle contraction?
A. alpha-1 (Gq/Gi/Go)
B. alpha-2 (Gi/Go)
C. beta-1 (Gs)
D. beta-2 (Gs)
E. beta-3 (Gs)
A

A. alpha-1 (Gq/Gi/Go)

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83
Q 
83. Which of the following receptor subtypes increases cardiac chronotropy (rate) and inotropy (contractility), increases AV-node conduction velocity, and increases rennin secretion in renal juxtaglomerular cells?
A. alpha-1 (Gq/Gi/Go)
B. alpha-2 (Gi/Go)
C. beta-1 (Gs)
D. beta-2 (Gs)
E. beta-3 (Gs)
A

C. beta-1 (Gs)

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84
Q 
84. Which of the following receptor subtypes decreases insulin secretion from pancreatic b-cells, decreases nerve cell norepinephrine release, and contracts vascular smooth muscle?
A. alpha-1 (Gq/Gi/Go)
B. alpha-2 (Gi/Go)
C. beta-1 (Gs)
D. beta-2 (Gs)
E. beta-3 (Gs)
A

B. alpha-2 (Gi/Go)

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85
Q 
85. What type(s) of second messenger(s) interact with adenylyl cyclase?
A. alpha-1
B. alpha-2
C. beta
D. beta and alpha-1
E. beta and alpha-2
A

E. beta and alpha-2

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86
Q 
86. What type(s) of second messenger(s) are associated with phospholipase C (PLC)?
A. alpha-1
B. alpha-2
C. beta
D. beta and alpha-1
E. beta and alpha-2
A

A. alpha-1

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87
Q
  1. Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with ephedrine, amphetamine, and tyramine?
    A. Direct binding to the receptor
    B. Promoting release of norepinephrine
    C. Inhibiting reuptake of norepinephrine
    D. Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrine
A

B. Promoting release of norepinephrine

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88
Q
  1. Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with MAO inhibitors?
    A. Direct binding to the receptor
    B. Promoting release of norepinephrine
    C. Inhibiting reuptake of norepinephrine
    D. Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrine
A

D. Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrine

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89
Q
  1. Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with tricyclic antidepressants and cocaine?
    A. Direct binding to the receptor
    B. Promoting release of norepinephrine
    C. Inhibiting reuptake of norepinephrine
    D. Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrine
A

C. Inhibiting reuptake of norepinephrine

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90
Q 
90. Which of the following is NOT true of catecholamines?
A. Non-polar
B. Cannot cross the blood-brain barrier
C. Cannot be used as an oral drug
D. Have brief duration
E. MAO and COMT act rapidly
A

A. Non-polar

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91
Q
  1. Match the catecholamine with the receptor(s):
    - Isoproterenol ! beta
    - Dobutamine ! beta-1
    - Norepinepherine ! alpha and beta
    - Dopamine ! delta-1 and delta-2
    - Epinepherine ! alpha and beta
A

…

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92
Q 
92. The basic structure of a catecholamine involves a catechol ring and which of the following types of amines?
A. Methyl amine
B. Ethyl amine
C. Butyl amine
D. Tert-butyl amine
E. Propyl amine
A

B. Ethyl amine

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93
Q
  1. Match the noncatecholamines with the receptor agonist:
    A. Clonidine ! alpha-2-agonist
    B. Metaproterenol, terbutaline, ritodine ! beta-2-agonist
    C. Phenylephrine ! alpha-1-agonist
A

….

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94
Q 
94. Which of the following are a long-acting (oral) a1-agonist and not a short-acting (nasal spray, ophthalmic drops) a1-agonist?
A. Phenylephrine
B. Oxymetazoline
C. Tetrahydrazaline
D. Pseudoephedrine
A

D. Pseudoephedrine

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95
Q 
95. Which of the following would NOT be used as a topical vasoconstrictor for a patient with epistaxis (nasal pack soaked in drug)?
A. Phenylephrine 
B. Epinepherine
C. Oymetazoline 
D. Isoproterenol
A

D. Isoproterenol

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96
Q
  1. Alpha-1 drugs can be given with local anesthetics to vasoconstrictor and decrease blood flow to the side of administration. Which of the following should not be given above the web space?
    A. Phenylephrine
    B. Epinephrine
    C. Methoxamine
A

B. Epinephrine

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97
Q 
97. Which of the following is the a1 drug of choice (DOC) for retinal exams and surgery, giving mydiasis (dilation of iris)?
A. Ephedrine
B. Epinepherine
C. Oymetazoline 
D. Isoproterenol
E. Phenylephrine
A

E. Phenylephrine

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98
Q 
98. Alpha-2-agonists are only approved for hypertension and work by decreasing sympathetic tone and increasing vagal tone. Which of the following is NOT a a2-agonist?
A. Clonidine
B. Methyldopa
C. Guanabenz
D. Guanfacine
E. Epinephrine
A

E. Epinephrine

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99
Q 
99. At the adrenergic synapse, what does alpha-2 do?
A. Stimulates NE release
B. Inhibits NE release
C. Stimulates ACh release
D. Inhibits ACh release
A

B. Inhibits NE release

100
Q 
100. Which of the following agonists would be used for asthma patients or to delay premature labor? 
A. alpha-2-agonist
B. alpha-1-agonist
C. beta-2-agonist
D. beta-1-agonist
A

C. beta-2-agonist

101
Q 
101. Which of the following agonists would be used for cardiogenic shock, cardiac arrest, heart block, or heart failure?
A. alpha-1-agonist 
B. alpha-2-agonist 
C. beta-1-agonist 
D. beta-2-agonist
A

C. beta-1-agonist

102
Q 
102. Which of the following is NOT a beta-2-agonist? A. Terbutaline
B. Ritodrine
C. Metaproterenol 
D. Albuterol
E. Phenylepherine
A

E. Phenylepherine

103
Q 
103. Beta-2 stimulation leads to an increase in the cellular uptake of what ion, and thus a decrease in plasma concentration of that ion?
A. K+ 
B. Ca2+ 
C. Cl-
D. Na+ 
E. Mg2+
A

A. K+

104
Q 
104. Dopamine receptor activation (D1) dilates renal blood vessels at low dose. At higher doses (treatment for shock), which of the following receptor is activated?
A. alpha-1 
B. alpha-2 
C. beta-1 
D. beta-2
A

A. alpha-1

105
Q
  1. Which of the following responses to sympathetic stimulation would prevent receptors from being couples with G-proteins?
    A. Sequestration
    B. Down-regulation
    C. Phosphorylation
A

C. Phosphorylation

106
Q 
106. Which of the following is the action of the indirect-acting sympathomimetic drug cocaine?
A. Stimulator of NET (uptake 1)
B. Inhibitor of NET (uptake 1)
C. Stimulator of VMAT (uptake 2)
D. Inhibitor of VMAT (uptake 2)
A

B. Inhibitor of NET (uptake 1)

107
Q 
107. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) have a great deal of side effects. Which of the following is the action of TCAs?
A. Stimulator of NET (uptake 1)
B. Inhibitor of NET (uptake 1)
C. Stimulator of VMAT (uptake 2)
D. Inhibitor of VMAT (uptake 2)
A

B. Inhibitor of NET (uptake 1)

108
Q 
108. Which of the following is NOT a mixed sympathomimetic? 
A. Amphetamine
B. Methamphetamine
C. Phenylepherine
D. Pseudoephedrine
A

C. Phenylepherine

109
Q 
109. Prior to an operation to remove a pheochromocytoma (neuroendocrine tumor of the medulla of the adrenal glands), which of the following should be given to the patient?
A. alpha-agonist 
B. alpha-blocker 
C. beta-agonist
D. beta-blocker
A

B. alpha-blocker

110
Q 
110. Which of the following is NOT an indication for b-blocker therapy?
A. Hypotension
B. Angina pectoris
C. Arrhythmias
D. Myocardial infarction
A

A. Hypotension

111
Q 
111. Which of the following b-blockers is used for decreasing aqueous humor secretions from the ciliary body?
A. Propranolol
B. Nadolol
C. Timolol
D. Metoprolol
A

D. Metoprolol

112
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT considered cardio selective? A. Metoprolol
    B. Atenolol
    C. Esmolol
    D. Carvedilol
A

D. Carvedilol

113
Q 
113. Blocking a2 presynaptic receptors will do which of the following?
A. Stimulate NE release
B. Inhibit NE release
C. Stimulate DA release
D. Inhibit DA release
A

A. Stimulate NE release

114
Q 
114. Which of the following drugs irreversibly damages VMAT? 
A. Tyramine
B. Guanethidine 
C. Reserpine
D. Propranolol
A

D. Propranolol

115
Q 
115. Which of the following is the most likely to occur with parenteral administration of a alpha-1-agonist drug?
A. Hypotension
B. Hypertension
C. Tissue necrosis
D. Vasodilation
A

B. Hypertension

116
Q 
116. Which of the following agonists can have dose-related withdrawal syndrome if the drug is withdrawn too quickly, leading to rebound hypertension?
A. alpha-1-agonist
B. alpha-2-agonist 
C. beta-1-agonist
D. beta-2-agonist
A

B. alpha-2-agonist

117
Q 
117. Which of the following agonists can have sedation and xerostomia (dry mouth) in 50% of patients starting therapy, sexual dysfunction in males, nauseas, dizziness, and sleep disturbances?
A. alpha-1-agonist
B. alpha-2-agonist 
C. beta-1-agonist
D. beta-2-agonist
A

B. alpha-2-agonist

118
Q 
118. Which of the following agonists can cause hyperglycemia in diabetics? 
A. alpha-2-agonist
B. alpha-1-agonist
C. beta-3-agonist
D. beta-2-agonist
A

A. alpha-2-agonist

119
Q 
119. Angina pectoris, tachycardia, and arrhythmias are possible adverse effects of which of the following agonists?
A. alpha-2-agonist 
B. alpha-1-agonist
C. beta-2-agonist
D. beta-1-agonist
A

D. beta-1-agonist

120
Q 
120. If a patient is taking MAO inhibitors and ingests tyramine (red wine, aged cheese), which of the following acute responses is most likely? (Sympathomimetic)
A. Stimulation of NE release
B. Inhibition of NE release
C. Stimulation of ACh release
D. Inhibition of ACh release
A

A. Stimulation of NE release

121
Q 
121. Which of the following occurs acutely, leading to a false neurotransmitter, with increased guanethidine? (Sympathomimetic)
A. Stimulation of NE release
B. Inhibition of NE release
C. Stimulation of ACh release
D. Inhibition of ACh release
A

A. Stimulation of NE release

122
Q 
122. Major adverse affects of the a1 blockade include reflex tachycardia and which of the following?
A. Orthostatic tachycardia
B. Orthostatic bradycardia
C. Orthostatic hypertension
D. Orthostatic hypotension
A

D. Orthostatic hypotension

123
Q 
123. Which of the following effects would be intensified with the a2 blockade?
A. Reflex tachycardia
B. Reflex bradycardia
C. Orthostatic hypertension
D. Orthostatic hypotension
A

A. Reflex tachycardia

124
Q 
124. Which of the following is NOT an adverse affect of the b1 blockade?
A. Bradycardia
B. Decreased cardiac output
C. AV node block
D. Increased arrhythmias
A

D. Increased arrhythmias

125
Q 
125. Which of the following is the most severe adverse effect that has been associated with sudden termination of b1-blockers?
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Syncope (fainting)
C. Angina
D. Sudden death
A

D. Sudden death

126
Q 
126. Which of the following groups of patients is most at risk for adverse effect seen in b2-blockers?
A. Asthmatics
B. Congestive heart failure patients
C. Trauma patients
D. Diabetics
A

A. Asthmatics

127
Q 
127. Which of the following can be detrimental in diabetics and also can lead to masking of tachycardia, which is indicative of hypoglycemia?
A. alpha-1-blocker 
B. alpha-2-blocker 
C. beta-1-blocker
D. beta-2-blocker
A

D. beta-2-blocker

128
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the parasympathetic nervous system?
    A. Is considered cranio-sacral
    B. Involves rest and digestion functions
    C. Has nicotinic receptors on cell bodies of all postganglionic neurons
    D. Target organs have muscarinic receptors for ACh
    E. Innervation of vascular smooth muscle
A

E. Innervation of vascular smooth muscle

129
Q 
129. Where is acetyl CoA synthesized (pre-synthesis for ACh)?
A. Synaptic cleft
B. Cytosol
C. Mitochondria
D. Extracellular matrix
E. Lysosomes
A

C. Mitochondria

130
Q 
130. Which of the following locations contains choline from phosphatidylcholine? A. Milk
B. Liver
C. Eggs
D. Peanuts
E. Blood plasma
A

E. Blood plasma

131
Q 
131. What part of the cholinergic synapse is affected by botulinum toxin?
A. ACh increased
B. ACh decreased
C. Muscarinic ACh receptor modified
D. Nicotinic ACh receptor modified
E. AChE inhibited
A

B. ACh decreased

132
Q 
132. ACh is packaged into vesicles via what ACh ion antiporter? 
A. K+
B. Ca2+ 
C. Cl- 
D. Na+ 
E. H+
A

E. H+

133
Q 
133. Influx of what ion causes ACh release into the synaptic cleft, prior to ACh being terminated by acetylcholinesterase (AChE)?
A. K+
B. Ca2+ 
C. Cl-
D. Na+ 
E. H+
A

B. Ca2+

134
Q 
134. Nicotinic N2 receptors are the \_\_\_\_ subtype and nicotinic N1 receptors are the \_\_\_\_subtype.
A. Neuronal; Muscular
B. Muscular; Neuronal
C. Nodal; Neuronal
D. Neuronal; Nodal
E. Sympathetic; Parasympathetic
A

A. Neuronal; Muscular

135
Q 
135. Which of the following best description of the drug nicotine?
A. Muscular subtype nicotinic agonist
B. Muscular subtype nicotinic antagonist
C. Neuronal subtype nicotinic agonist
D. Neuronal subtype nicotinic antagonist
A

C. Neuronal subtype nicotinic agonist

136
Q
  1. Amanita muscaria (fly Amanita) is a fungal muscarinic agonist, which is most often associated with which side effect?
    A. Tachycardia B. Bradycardia C. Euphoria
    D. Sedation
    E. Hallucinations
A

E. Hallucinations

137
Q 
137. Which of the following G-protein is associated with smooth muscle and glandular tissue, muscarinic receptor M3, mobilizing internal Ca2+ and the DAG cascade?
A. Gs 
B. Gi 
C. Gq 
D. Go
A

C. Gq

138
Q 
138. Which of the following G-protein is associated with heart and intestines, muscarinic receptor M2, decreasing adenylyl cyclase activity.
A. Gs 
B. Gi 
C. Gq 
D. Go
A

B. Gi

139
Q 
139. The drugs bethanechol and pilocarpine are:
A. Acetylcholine agonists
B. Acetylcholine antagonists
C. Muscarinic agonists
D. Muscarinic antagonists
E. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
A

C. Muscarinic agonists

140
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a primary effect of stimulating muscarinic M receptors?
    A. Release of nitric oxide (vasodilation)
    B. Iris contraction (miosis)
    C. Ciliary muscle contraction and accommodation of the lens (near vision)
    D. Bronchi dilation and decreased bronchiole secretions
    E. Salivary/lacrimal thin and watery secretions
A

D. Bronchi dilation and decreased bronchiole secretions

141
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a primary effect of stimulating muscarinic M receptors?
    A. Tachycardia, increased conduction velocity
    B. Increased GI tract tone and secretions
    C. Diaphoresis from sweat glands
    D. Penile erection
    E. Contraction of urinary detrusor muscle and relaxation of urinary sphincter
A

A. Tachycardia, increased conduction velocity

142
Q
  1. What is bethanechol most commonly used for?
    A. For decreasing heart rate
    B. To decrease blood pressure (vasodilation)
    C. For urinary retention
    D. Decreasing intraocular pressure
    E. For erectile dysfunction
A

C. For urinary retention

143
Q
  1. What is pilocarpine most commonly used for?
    A. For decreasing heart rate
    B. To decrease blood pressure (vasodilation)
    C. For urinary retention
    D. Decreasing intraocular pressure
    E. For erectile dysfunction
A

D. Decreasing intraocular pressure

144
Q 
144. Which of the following is NOT a result of excessive cholinergic stimulation, as would be seen with a nerve agent or organophosphate poisoning?
A. Diarrhea
B. Diaphoresis
C. Mydriasis
D. Nausea
E. Urinary urgency
A

C. Mydriasis

145
Q 
145. What type of drugs are atropine, scopolamine, and pirenzepine?
A. Acetylcholine agonists
B. Acetylcholine antagonists
C. Muscarinic agonists
D. Muscarinic antagonists
E. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
A

D. Muscarinic antagonists

146
Q 
146. What drug is a natural alkaloid found in Solanaceae plants (deadly nightshade)? 
A. Bethanechol
B. Pilocarpine 
C. Pirenzepine 
D. Scopolamine
E. Atropine
A

E. Atropine

147
Q
  1. What two clinical results of atropine facilitate opthalmoscopic examination?
    A. Mydriasis (iris dilation) and increased lacrimation
    B. Cycloplegia (ciliary paralysis) and miosis (iris constriction)
    C. Miosis and increased lacrimation
    D. Mydriasis and cycloplegia
    E. Xerophthalmia (dry eyes) and mydriasis
A

D. Mydriasis and cycloplegia

148
Q 
148. Which of the following is an adverse affect of atropine?
A. Increased salivation
B. Blurred vision
C. Bradycardia
D. Diaphoresis
E. Decreased intraocular pressure
A

B. Blurred vision

149
Q 
149. Which of the following is NOT a major symptom of atropine toxicity?
A. Blind as a bat
B. Red as a beet
C. Mad as a hatter
D. Hot as a hare
E. Wet as a towel
A

E. Wet as a towel

150
Q 
150. Which of the following topical ophthalmic drugs is also used for motion sickness? (injection, oral, or transdermal patch)
A. Atropine
B. Scopolamine 
C. Homatropine 
D. Tropicamide
A

B. Scopolamine

151
Q 
151. Of the following mydriatics/cycloplegics, \_\_\_\_ last 7-10 days (longest) and \_\_\_\_ last 6 hours (shortest).
A. Atropine; Scopolamine
B. Scopolamine; Homatropine
C. Homatropine; Tropicamide
D. Tropicamide; Atropine
E. Atropine; Tropicamide
A

E. Atropine; Tropicamide

152
Q 
152. Butyrylcholinesterase (BuChE) is a nonspecific pseudocholinesterase located in glia, plasma, liver, and other organs. What type of local anesthetics are metabolized by BuChE (e.g. procaine), along with succinylcholine (paralytic)?
A. Ester 
B. Ether 
C. Amine 
D. Alkane 
E. Alcohol
A

A. Ester

153
Q 
153. Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for atropine intoxication? 
A. Neostigmine
B. Physostigmine 
C. Endrophonium
D. Donepezil
E. Pyridostigmine
A

B. Physostigmine

154
Q 
154. Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for anesthesia? 
A. Neostigmine
B. Physostigmine
C. Endrophonium
D. Donepezil
E. Pyridostigmine
A

A. Neostigmine

155
Q 
155. Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for Alzheimer disease? A. Neostigmine
B. Physostigmine 
C. Endrophonium
D. Donepezil
E. Pyridostigmine
A

D. Donepezil

156
Q 
156. Which of the following cholinesterase inhibitors is NOT used for Myasthenia Gravis (MG)? 
A. Neostigmine
B. Physostigmine 
C. Endrophonium
D. Pyridostigmine
A

B. Physostigmine

157
Q 
157. Which of the following is NOT an irreversible cholinesterase inhibitor (organophosphate AChE inhibitors)?
A. Tacrine
B. Echothiophate
C. Sarin, toban, soman
D. Malathion, parathion
E. Isoflurophate
A

A. Tacrine

158
Q 
158. By what mechanism do irreversible ACHE inhibitors permanently bind to the esteratic site enzyme? 
A. Hydroxylation
B. Hydrolysis
C. Phosphorylation
D. Peptide
E. Methylation
A

C. Phosphorylation

159
Q
  1. A MARK-1 auto injection kit is given to certain medical and military personnel who may be exposed to nerve agents or organophosphate pesticides. The kit has two drugs, an acetylcholine esterase inhibitor and a cholinesterase re-activator (antidote). What two drugs would you expect to be in this kit?
    A. Pralidoxime (2-PAM) and echothiophate
    B. Parathion and adenosine
    C. Scopolamine and tropicamide
    D. Mecamylamine and pralidoxime (2-PAM)
    E. Atropine and pralidoxime (2-PAM)
A

E. Atropine and pralidoxime (2-PAM)

160
Q 
160. Some organophosphate AChE inhibitor insecticides have a 40-hour half-life. What is the approximate half-life of soman?
A. 6 seconds
B. 6 minutes
C. 1 hour
D. 6 hours
E. 60 hours
A

B. 6 minutes

161
Q 
161. What is currently the only ganglion blocker (shuts down entire ANS) still available in the United States?
A. Mecamylamine 
B. Scopolamine
C. Echothiophate
D. Pralidoxime
E. Parathion
A

A. Mecamylamine

162
Q 
162. Which of the following is NOT an effect of autonomic ganglion blocking?
A. Anhidrosis and xerostomia
B. Mydriasis
C. Tachycardia
D. Hypertension
E. Cycloplegia
A

D. Hypertension

163
Q 
163. Which neuromuscular blocking drug can be reversed by the cholinesterase inhibitor Neostigmine 
A. Succinylcholine
B. Suxamethonium
C. Atracurium
D. Endrophonium
A

A. Succinylcholine

164
Q
  1. How does neuromuscular blocking drugs work?
    A. Decreased blood pressure – due to histamine release
    B. Stimulate opening or closing of nicotinic Ach receptor channel and produce or
    prevent depolarization of the cell membrane
    C. Unusual mechanism
    D. Combine reversibly with the esteratic site of the acetylcholineesterase enzyme rendering it
    inactive for about 30 minutes
A

B. Stimulate opening or closing of nicotinic Ach receptor channel and produce or
prevent depolarization of the cell membrane

165
Q 
165. What are the adverse effects of anticholinesterases? A. Tachycardia
B. Bradycardia 
C. Hypokalemia 
D. Hyperkalemia 
E. Arrhythmia
A

B. Bradycardia

166
Q 
166. Prior to an operation to remove a pheochromocytoma (neuroendocrine tumor of the medulla of the adrenal glands), which of the following should be given to the patient?
A. Alpha-agonist 
B. Alpha-blocker 
C. Beta-agonist
D. Beta-blocker
A

B. Alpha-blocker

167
Q 
167. Blocking alpha-2 presynaptic receptors will do which of the following? 
A. Stimulate NE release
B. Inhibit NE release
C. Stimulate DA release
D. Inhibit DA release
A

A. Stimulate NE release

168
Q 
168. In cats it is a useful emetic drug:
A. Xylazine
B. Clonidine
C. Medetomidine
D. Dexmedetomidine
A

A. Xylazine

169
Q 
169. Not allowed in pseudo-pregnant females 
A. Acepromazine
B. Detomidine
C. Ketamine
D. Propofol
A

A. Acepromazine

170
Q 
170. Only effective according to IV application 
A. Detomidine
B. Acepromazine 
C. Ketamine
D. Propofol
A

D. Propofol

171
Q 
171. Of these four injectable anesthetics which one is effective after IM administration? 
A. Ketamine
B. Propofol
C. Thiopental 
D. Metomediate
A

A. Ketamine

172
Q 
172. In dogs the primarily chosen drug in status epileptics
A. Sodium valproate
B. Diazepam
C. Phenobarbital
D. Sodium bromide
A

B. Diazepam

173
Q 
73. Contraindicated in epileptic patients: 
A. Morphine
B. Acepromazine 
C. Metohexital
D. Ketamine
A

B. Acepromazine

174
Q 
174. In medicine they can be orally applied antitussive (cough suppressing) opioid agent as well 
A. Fentanyl
B. Codeine
C. Butorphanol 
D. Tramadol
A

C. Butorphanol

175
Q 
175. Which agents are antidotes of sedative drugs? 
A. Dexamedetomidin
B. Phenycyclidine
C. Antipamezole
D. Flumazenil
A

D. Flumazenil

176
Q 
176. “Slower to act” transmitters in CNS
A. Dopamine
B. Endorphins
C. Enkephalins
D. Serotonine (5-HT)
A

C. Enkephalins

177
Q 
177. Ultra-short acting barbiturates 
A. Pentobarbital
B. Thiopental
C. Butobarbital
D. Venobarbital
A

B. Thiopental

178
Q
  1. Apply the letter code of the drug preparation type to the drug products below:
    A. O/W emulsion
    B. W/O emulsion
    C. Oil suspension
    D. Real solution
    Burow solution – aluminum aceticum tartaricum Ungumentum hydrophilicum nonionicum Suspensio zinici oleosa
    Ungumentum aluminii acetici tartarici
A

………

179
Q
  1. Which one cannot be an attribute of ointments?
    A. Homogenous
    B. Does dissolve on body temperature
    C. Cocoa-butter can be used as vehicle base
    D. Does not contain solid particles
A

B. Does dissolve on body temperature

180
Q 
180. How frequent should be the intra-mammary infusions re-applied in case of lactating cows?
A. Every 3 hours 
B. Every 6 hours 
C. Every 12 hours 
D. Only once
A

C. Every 12 hours

181
Q 
181. It is a GSH-category?
A. Nutagenic
B. Nou toxic for fish
c. Unknown mechanism of effect 
d. Highly toxic
A

d. Highly toxic

182
Q 
182. What does “hypnotic” effect of a substance mean?
A. Pain killing effect
B. Causes sleeping
C. Causes hallucinations
D. Causes catalepsy
A

B. Causes sleeping

183
Q
  1. Less soluble liquid active ingredient is dispersed in the liquid vehicle:
    A. Solution
    B. Emulsion
    C. Suspension
A

B. Emulsion

184
Q 
184. Sedative drug with no analgesic properties: 
A. Chlorpromazine
B. Promethazine
C. Acepromazine
D. Thiethylperazine
A

A. Chlorpromazine

185
Q
  1. Can be combined with carcinogenicity studies:
    A. Acute toxicity studies
    B. Repeated-dose toxicity studies
    C. Teratogenicity studies
    D. Preclinical and pharmalogical investigations
A

B. Repeated-dose toxicity studies

186
Q 
186. Inhalational anesthetics. It is potentially hepatotoxic, teratogenic and immunotoxic effect, lead to its being banned in EU:
A. Halothane 
B. Desflurane 
C. Isoflurane 
D. Seuoflurane
A

A. Halothane

187
Q 
187. Sedative that can cause Paradoxical in horses: 
A. Romifidine
B. Detomidine
C. Nidazolam
D. Acepromazine
A

D. Acepromazine

188
Q 
188. This sedative can increase the incidence of convulsions, hence not suitable for administration to patients with epilepsy.
A. Diazepam
B. Acepromazine 
C. Xylazine
D. Phenobarbital
A

B. Acepromazine

189
Q 
189. Gels are dosage form with the following attribute: 
A. High water content
B. Its vehicle is gel of other origins
C. Only oral application
D. None of these
A

B. Its vehicle is gel of other origins

190
Q 
190. Duration of action of thiopental: 
A. 5-10 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 1 hour
D. 10-20 minutes
A

A. 5-10 minutes

191
Q 
191. Because of its anxiolytic effect, this substance can be used in stress-related diseases (e.g stress- related colitis).
A. Diazepam
B. Ketoprofen
C. Xylazine
D. Acepromazine
A

A. Diazepam

192
Q 
192. Sedative that decreases blood pressure hence cannot be administrated to seriously dehydrated animals.
A. Azepromazine 
B. Diazepam
C. Chlorpromazine 
D. Ketamine
A

A. Azepromazine

193
Q 
193. Which drug can be used as a premedication to reverse the cardiovascular actions of Xylazine? 
A. Natoxone
B. Flumazenil
C. Xylometazoline 
D. Glycopirrholate
A

B. Flumazenil

194
Q 
194. Duration of action of propofol: 
A. 5-8 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 30 minutes
A

A. 5-8 minutes

195
Q 
195. How long is the tested substance applied to expiration duration in chronic toxicity studies?
A. 2 years 
B. 3 years 
C. 5 years 
D. 10 years
A

A. 2 years

196
Q 
196. A drug with potent visceral analgesic properties: 
A. Xylazine
B. Butorphanol
C. Ketamine
D. Propofol
A

B. Butorphanol

197
Q 
197. In which animal species are the local tolerance studies performed most frequently? 
A. Rat
B. Rabbit 
C. Beagle 
D. Mouse
A

B. Rabbit

198
Q 
198. Most important side effects of ultra-short acting barbiturates: 
A. Respiratory depression
B. Vomiting
C. Paralysis
D. Blindness
A

A. Respiratory depression

199
Q 
199. Which of the following administrations of Diazepam would you recommend in a case of status epilepticus:
A. Rectal
B. Subcutaneous 
C. Oral
D. Intramuscular
A

A. Rectal

200
Q
  1. Effect characteristics for medetomidine:

A. Muscle relaxant activity

A

A. Muscle relaxant activity

201
Q 
Which of the following are non-water soluble bases?
A. Both of them
B. Sunflower oil
C. Wool fat
D. Neither
A

A. Both of them

202
Q 
Reliable anaesthetics in cats
A. Acepromacine
B. Ketamine
C. Xylacine
D. Detomidine
A

C. Xylacine

203
Q 
Which drug has pronounced hepatotoxic effect
A. Sevoflurane
B. Propofol
C. Isoflurane
D. Halothane
A

C. Isoflurane

204
Q 
Which drug has NOT got a muscle relaxant effect?
A. Ketamin
B. Etomidate
C. Propofol
D. Thiopentan
A

B. Etomidate

205
Q 
Which of the following is non-soluble vehicles?
A. Hydrophilic ointment base
B. Both of them
C. Neither of these
D. Hydro....
A

C. Neither of these

206
Q 
Its cardiovascular side effects are negligible 
A. Xylacine
B. Propofol
C. Diazepam
D. Medetomidine
A

C. Diazepam

207
Q 
Which drug has a pronounced analgesic effect?
A. Ketamin
B. Etomidate
C. Propofol
D. Pentobarbital
A

C. Propofol

208
Q 
Which is a lipophilic suppository base?
A. Hard fat
B. Talc
C. Macrogol mixture
D. Castor oil
A

A. Hard fat

209
Q 
The dept of their sedative effect is well related to the applied dose?
A. Tranquilizers
B. Butyrophenones
C. Fenothiazines
D. Alpha-2-receptor agonists
A

D. Alpha-2-receptor agonists

210
Q 
Which is NOT characteristics of Xylacine?
A. Sedation
B. Causing general anesthesia
C. Muscle Relaxants
D. Analgesia
A

B. Causing general anesthesia

211
Q 
Is a butyrophenone, tranquilizer used mainly in laboratory rodents?
A. Fluanizone
B. Azaperone
C. Tiethylperazine
D. Acepromacine
A

A. Fluanizone

212
Q 
This general anesthetic drug can cause pronounced dose dependent reversible respiratory inhibition?
A. Alphaxalone
B. Ketamine
C. Etomidate
D. Thiamilal
A

?

213
Q 
Appropriate as an antidote for Xylacine and Medetomidine?
A. Atipamizole
B. Samazenile
C. Fluanisone
D. Flumazenile
A

D. Flumazenile

214
Q 
Which drug formulation belongs to the coherent colloidal system?
A. Ointment
B. Cream
C. Gel
D. Paste
A

D. Paste

215
Q 
Inhalation anaesthetic, its potentially hepatotoxic ..... effects led to its being banned in the European union
A. Halothane
B. Desiflurane
C. Isoflurane
D. Sevoflurane
A

A. Halothane

216
Q 
Which of the following is considered to be water soluble base?
A. Soft Parafin
B. Hydroxyethylcellulose
C. Cocoa butter
D. Vaseline
A

B. Hydroxyethylcellulose

217
Q

Which statement is not true?
A. Local tolerance study examines the alterations of the site of the exposure

B. Teratological studies investigate abnormalities of the embryo.

C. Mutagenic study investigates the structural and numerical changes of the chromosomes

D. Pharmacological studies investigate the movement of a drug in the body

A

D. Pharmacological studies investigate the movement of a drug in the body

218
Q 
The duration of action of propofol in dogs
A. 15-20min
B. 20-45min
C. 20-30 sec
D. 6-8 min
A

D. 5-8 min

219
Q 
If the aim of these investigations is to determine the stability of the drug product in medicated drinking water, What are the appropriate conditions?
A. Room temperature 0-3 months
B. Room temperature 0-4 weeks
C. 40 degrees, 75% RH, 0-6 months
D. Room temp 0-24 hours
A

D. Room temp 0-24 hours

220
Q 
Which is an emulsifying agent?
A. Cocoa butter
B. Purified water
C. Preservative solution
D. Polysorbate 20
A

D. Polysorbate 20

221
Q 
Which alpha-2 agonist is usefull in swine
A. Medetomidine
B. Detomidine
C. Non of them
D. Both
A

C. Non of them

222
Q 
In the course of registration of licenced medicine which term of safety documentation according to EDURALEX requirements
A. Part 4
B. Part 3
C. Part 1
D. Part 2
A

D. Part 2

223
Q 
Which of the following is a characteristics of pastes?
A. Each of them
B. High lipid content
C. High dry matter content
D. High water content
A

C. High dry matter content

224
Q 
Which parameter has to be determined during an acute oral toxicity
A. GHS classification 
B. TD50
C. ED50
D. Bioequivanence
A

B. TD50

225
Q 
What kind of effect can be expected when using ointments?
A. Local effect
B. Neither of them
C. Both local and systemic effect
D. Systemic effect
A

C. Both local and systemic effect

226
Q

What kind of examinations has to be conducted according to the rules and regulations of GLP
A. Preclinical examination, topological, Kinetics and residual drug examinations.
B. Examination of drug manufacturing processes.
C. Human clinical drug examinations
D. Veterinary clinical drug examinations

A

A. Preclinical examination, topological, Kinetics and residual drug examinations.

227
Q 
What kind of bases can be used as eye ointment?
A. Soft parafin
B. White vaselin
C. Castor oil
D. all kinds of these ingredients
A

D. all kinds of these ingredients

228
Q 
Which drug accumulate in fat tissues?
A. Ketamin
B. Etomidate
C. Thiopental
D. Althesin
A

C. Thiopental

229
Q 
Amoung the listed inhalational anaesthetic drugs, this one has the most pronounced excitatory action?
A. Sevoflurane
B. Isoflurane
C. Halothane
D. Desiflurane
A

C. Halothane

230
Q 
Which of the following are non-water soluble vehicles?
A. Hydrous ointment base
B. Both of them
C. Neither of these
D. Hydrophilus oitmentbase
A

A. Hydrous ointment base

231
Q 
This general anaesthetic drug can cause pronounced dose dependent and reversible respiratory inhibition.
A. Etomidate
B. Ketamin
C. Alphaxalone
D. Thiamilal
A

D. Thiamilal

232
Q 
Which phenothiazine has pronounced antiemetic effect?
A. Proprionil promazine
B. Fluanisone
C. Thiethylperazine
D. Promethazine
A

C. Thiethylperazine

233
Q 
Which of the following has the longest duration of action
A. Thiopental
B. Ketamin
C. Methohexital
D. Propofol
A

B. Ketamin

234
Q 
Which effect is characteristic to phenothiazine tranquelizers?
A. They have analgesic effect
B. They increase fertillity rate
C. They have sedative effect
D. They induce hypnosis
A

C. They have sedative effect

235
Q

Which statement is true?
A. Phenothiazines are rapidly excreted from the body, thus they can be appplied directly before slaughtering

B. Phenothiazines decrease the secretion of prolactin

C. Phenothiazines can be useful in the treatment of Pseudopregnancy.

D. Chloropromazine can cause severe tissue irritation given IM

A

D. Chloropromazine can cause severe tissue irritation given IM

236
Q 
Which alpha 2 agonist is usefull in horses?
A. Detomidine
B. Xylasine
C. Both
D. Non
A

C. Both

237
Q 
Which of the following is characteristic for creams?
A. Non of these
B. Higher dry material content
C. Higher water content
D. Higher lipid content
A

C. Higher water content

238
Q 
It is a GHS-category
A. Mutagenic
B. Non-toxic for fish
C. Unknown mechanism of action
D. Highly toxic
A

A. Mutagenic

239
Q 
Less soluble fine powder active ingredients is dispersed in liquid vehicle
A. Emulsion
B. Solution
C. Suspension
D. Tincture
A

D. Tincture

240
Q 
This base ointment is applicable for O/W type of ointment
A. Vaseline
B. Hydrophillic ointment
C. Simple ointment
D. Parafin ointment
A

B. Hydrophillic ointment

241
Q 
Which drug has pronounced analgesic effect?
A. Propofol
B. Pentobarbital
C. Ketamin
D. Etomidate
A

C. Ketamin

242
Q 
Which term is abriviated as MRL?
A. Maximal metabolite concentration
B. Minimal concentration of the residual drug
C. Maximal residual drug concentration
D. Minimal metabolite concentration
A

C. Maximal residual drug concentration

243
Q 
Can cause the prolaps of the penis in some stallions
A. Diazepam/Midazolam
B. Detomidine/Romifidine
C. Azepromazine/Propionilpromazine
D. Morphine/Etorphine
A

C. Azepromazine/Propionilpromazine

244
Q 
Sedative that can cause paradoxical reacions in horses
A. Acepromazine
B. Romifidine
C. Midazolam
D. Detomidine
A

A. Acepromazine

245
Q 
Which of the following is not a prerequisite of anesthesia?
A. Somatic and visceral analgesia
B. Muscle relaxation
C. Is not determined
D. Total unconciousness
A

C. Is not determined

246
Q 
The optimal PH value for a injection is
A. 8-10
B. 5-7
C. Is not determined
D. 3-4
A

B. 5-7

Veterinary Pharmacology (21 decks)

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