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Veterinary Pharmacology > Midterm 1 > Flashcards

Midterm 1 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following can occur at therapeutic dosage levels in healthy patients?
    a. All of the above can occur
    b. Allergic reactions
    c. Teratogenic effects
    d. Idiosyncratic reactions
A

a. All of the above can occur

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2
Q
  1. MRL is an acronym for:
    a. Minimum relevant level
    b. Maximum residue limit
    c. Medicine residue level
    d. Medicine registry list
A

b. Maximum residue limit

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3
Q
  1. Usually for mixing these types of real drugs into the medicated feedstuff, commercial feed compounders need to have a Prescription for Medicated Feedstuff (Veterinary Written Direction)
    a. POM-V
    b. Pharmacy medicines (P)
    c. Prescription only medicines (POM)
    d. AVM-GSL
A

a. POM-V

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4
Q
  1. Quantal dose-response curves are
    a. Obtainable from the study of intact subjects but not from isolated tissues
    b. Used for determining the maximal efficacy of a drug
    c. Used in determining the therapeutic index of a drug
    d. Invalid in the presence of inhibitors of the drug studied
A

c. Used in determining the therapeutic index of a drug

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5
Q
  1. The adhesive of the granules can be:
    a. Pyridine
    b. Saccharose
    c. Distilled water
    d. Lactose
A

c. Distilled water

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6
Q
  1. Which drugs have to be kept in a locked receptacle with the key in possession of the veterinarian?
    a. Schedule 2 and 3 drugs
    b. None of these
    c. Schedule 1 and 4 drugs
    d. Schedule 3 ad 4 drugs
A

a. Schedule 2 and 3 drugs

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7
Q
  1. What is the first pass effect?
    a. High plasma concentration occurs immediately after oral application
    b. Stomach accumulates the drug
    c. Liver decomposes the orally applied drug
    d. Kidneys excrete the orally applied drug
A

c. Liver decomposes the orally applied drug

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8
Q
  1. In which book can the indications, effects, and side effects of a given drug be found?
    a. U.S. Pharmacopoeia
    b. European Pharmacopoeia
    c. British Veterinary Formulary
    d. British Pharmecopoeia Veterinary
A

b. European Pharmacopoeia

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9
Q
  1. The capacity of a drug to cause a particular action
    a. Affinity
    b. Specificity
    c. Selectivity
    d. Efficacy
A

b. Specificity

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10
Q
  1. A drug that mediates the reversal of histamine bronchoconstriction (mediated at the histamine receptors) by acting at adrenoceptors (e.g. epinephrine).
    a. Partial agonist
    b. Noncompetitive antagonist
    c. Physiologic antagonist
    d. Pharmacologic antagonist
A

c. Physiologic antagonist

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11
Q
  1. Sublingual administration is useful for
    a. Drugs causing nausea or vomiting
    b. Drugs with high first pass metabolism
    c. Hydrophilic drugs
    d. Drugs that do not readily cross the blood brain barrier
A

b. Drugs with high first pass metabolism

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12
Q
  1. Which is the most informative name of drug about the majour ingredient?
    a. Approved name
    b. Proprietary name
    c. Chemical name
    d. Licensed name
A

a. Approved name

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13
Q
  1. Which effect facilitates the oral bioavailability of medicinal products?
    a. Large pKa value of the drug
    b. Increased motility of GI
    c. Acid sensitivity of the drug
    d. Rapid dissolution from the formulation
A

d. Rapid dissolution from the formulation

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14
Q
  1. According to the Misuse of Drug Regulations (UK) this drug is in Schedule 3:
    a. Pentobarbitone
    b. Low amount of codeine
    c. Morphine
    d. Ketamine
A

a. Pentobarbitone

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15
Q
  1. The maximal activity specific to a drug
    a. Specificity
    b. Potency
    c. Intrinsic activity
    d. Affinity
A

c. Intrinsic activity

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16
Q
  1. Records should be made within 48 hours of the transaction and kept for a period of at least 5 years
    a. Records of POM treatments
    b. Records on scheduled drug treatments
    c. Records on food-producing animal treatments
    d. Records on all treatments
A

c. Records on food-producing animal treatments

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17
Q
  1. Which technology is appropriate for achieving a pulsatile release of an active substance in a bolus?
    a. Insoluble matrix
    b. Chip controlled diaphragms
    c. Expanding matrix
    d. OROS
A

b. Chip controlled diaphragms

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18
Q
  1. Solid, single dose or multidose preparation for oral administration containing dry aggregates of powder particles
    a. Oral powder
    b. Premix
    c. Capsules
    d. Granules
A

d. Granules

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19
Q
  1. What is the proportion of ionized vs non ionized molecules of a weak basic drig (pKa=7.4) in stomach (PH=3.4)?
    a. 10:1
    b. 1:1
    c. 10,000:1
    d. 100:1
A

c. 10,000:1

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20
Q
  1. What “veterinary medicines regulation 2013” category can be supplied by pharmacists without prescription?
    a. POM-VPS and AVM-GSL
    b. POM-VPS, NFA-VPS
    c. NFA-VPS, AVM GSL
    d. Every “Veterinary medicines regulation 2013” category
A

c. NFA-VPS, AVM GSL

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21
Q
  1. This is the name given to a drug by manufacturers that produce the drug:
    a. Approved name
    b. Proprietary name
    c. None of these
    d. Chemical name
A

b. Proprietary name

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22
Q
  1. Most appropriate method for the extraction of water-soluble, heat-sensitive substances from medicinal herbs:
    a. Preparing an infusion
    b. Extraction with ether
    c. Making a decoction
    d. Preparing a tincture
A

b. Extraction with ether

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23
Q
  1. Which process can move drugs against a concentration gradient?
    a. Active transport
    b. Filtration through membrane pores
    c. Simple diffusion
    d. Facilitated diffusion
A

a. Active transport

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24
Q
  1. Two drugs have been examined in animal studies, Both have a therapeutic index of 2. It can be assumed that:
    a. The dose-response curves will be parallel
    b. None of these
    c. When given in ED50 does, the two drugs are equally safe
    d. When iv at ED50 does, no animals will be killed by the drugs
A

b. None of these

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25
Q
  1. Which ingredient is missing from the hard capsule?
    a. Sugar
    b. Glycerine
    c. Gelatine
    d. Water
A

b. Glycerine

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26
Q
  1. Frequently used vehicle in oral powders:
    a. Zinc oxide
    b. Lactose
    c. Talc
    d. Glucose
A

b. Lactose

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27
Q
  1. According to the Regulation fix MRL is established for some of these drugs:
    a. Both Table 1 and 2
    b. Drugs in Table 1
    c. Antibiotics
    d. Drugs in Table 2
A

b. Drugs in Table 1

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28
Q
  1. Which statement is NOT true for a first-order, one compartment open pharmacokinetic model?

a. A bioexponential curve is used to describe the decrease of the drug level in time
b. In the course of this process, the capacity of organs of metabolism and/or excretion is saturated
c. The drug is distributed among the tissues of the body evenly
d. After a single drug administration the drug is eliminated from the body continuously

A

b. In the course of this process the capacity of organs of metabolism and/or excretion is saturated

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29
Q
  1. At steady state the plasma concentration of a drug (Cpss) is 0.2 mg/L. The total maintenance dose if the drug is applied every 8 hours?
    a. 6 mg
    b. 48 mg
    c. 4.8 mg
    d. 0.6 mg
A

c. 4.8 mg

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30
Q
  1. In this kind of prescription traditionally the type of dosage form and the total amount of drug has to be given in subscription part:
    a. Prescription of a prepared (magistral) medicine
    b. Prescription of a human licensed medicine
    c. Prescription of a formulated official medicine
    d. Prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine
A

a. Prescription of a prepared (magistral) medicine

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31
Q
  1. In this type of prescription the proprietary name of a veterinary licensed medicine is given: a. Prescription of a prepared (magistral) medicine
    b. Prescription of a formulated official medicine
    c. Prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine
    d. Prescription of a human licensed medicine
A

c. Prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine

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32
Q
  1. Which one is correct? When the pKa of a drug euqals the pH of the surroundings
    a. 50% ionization occurs
    b. Number of ionized molecules is higher
    c. Number of non ionized is higher
    d. Number of inized and non ionized molecules is varying
A

a. 50% ionization occurs

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33
Q
  1. Rectal administration
    a. Is used when a local effect is desired
    b. Is used to minimize systemic effect
    c. Minimizes first pass metabolism
    d. Maximizes first pass metabolism
A

c. Minimizes first pass metabolism

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34
Q
  1. A drug that interacts directly with the agonist and not at all or onl incidentally with the receptor
    a. Physiologic agent
    b. Partial agonist
    c. Chemical antagonist
    d. Pharmacological antagonist
A

c. Chemical antagonist

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35
Q
  1. According to the theory that agonists and antagonists occupy the same receptor site, an effective antagonist should exhibit:
    A. High intrinsic activity and low affinity
    B. No intrinsic activity and high affinity
    C. Low intrinsic activity and low affinity
    D. High intrinsic activity and high affinity
A

B. No intrinsic activity and high affinity

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36
Q
  1. A drug that interacts directly with the agonist and not at all, or only incidentally with the receptor:
    A. Chemical antagonist
    B. Pharmacological antagonist
    C. Partial agonist
    D. Physiologic antagonist
A

A. Chemical antagonist

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37
Q

The largest effect a drug can produce, regardless of dose:
A. Quantal dose response curve
B. Graded dose response curve
C. Maximum efficacy
D. Therapeutic index

A

C. Maximum efficacy

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38
Q
  1. What is approximate percentage of a weak base (pka=8,4) in the non-ionized form in the plasma having a pH of 7.4?

A. 90%
B. 50%
C. 100%
D. 10%

A

D. 10%

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39
Q
  1. When supplying this drug, one copy of which of the following has to be kept by the registered feed compounder?
    A. Prescription
    B. Special prescription
    C. Prescription for medicated feedstuff (PMF)
    D. Legislation on requisition
A

C. Prescription for medicated feedstuff (PMF)

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40
Q
  1. Which of the following can occur at therapeutic dosage levels in healthy patients?
    A. Allergic reactions
    B. Teratogenic effects (Thalidomide)
    C. Idiosyncratic reactions
    D. All of the above can occur
A

D. All of the above can occur

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41
Q
  1. Examine the graph: what is the potency relationship between drug A and B?
    A. Conclusion cannot be drawn
    B. B is more potent
    C. They are of equal potency
    D. A is more potent
A

D. A is more potent

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42
Q
  1. A drug licensed for humans and included in Table 1, and MRL has to be established administered to dairy cattle should have a withdrawal period for milk:
    A. At most 7 days withdrawal period
    B. At most 28 days withdrawal period
    C. At least 28 days withdrawal period
    D. At least 7 days withdrawal period
A

D. At least 7 days withdrawal period

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43
Q
  1. According to this type of medicinal substance use both sick and healthy animals are treated with a mass (population) administration:
    A. Metaphylaxis
    B. Mass treatment
    C. Always
    D. Prophylaxis
A

A. Metaphylaxis

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44
Q
  1. What is the proportion of ionised and non-ionised molecules of a weak acidic drug (pKa= 4.4) in blood (pH = 7.4)!
    A. 1:1
    B. 100:1
    C. 10:1
    D. 1000:1
A

D. 1000:1

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45
Q
  1. How long do the withdrawal period usually last at minimum for meat, following application of a human licensed medicine?
    A. 7 days
    B. 500 degree days
    C. 28 days
    D. 0 days
A

C. 28 days

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46
Q
  1. How long do the withdrawal period usually last for fish at minimum, following application of a human licensed medicine?
    A. 28 days
    B. 500 degree days
    C. 0 days
    D. 7 days
A

B. 500 degree days

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47
Q
  1. The phenomenon in which two drugs produce opposite effects on a physiologic system but do not act at the same receptor site is:
    A. Chemical antagonism
    B. Physiologic antagonism
    C. Competitive antagonism
    D. Non-competitive antagonism
A

B. Physiologic antagonism

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48
Q
  1. Two drugs A and B, have the same mechanism of action. Drug A in a dose of 5 mg produces the same magnitude of effect as drug B in a dose of 500 mg:
    A. Drug B is less efficacious than drug A
    B. The toxicity of drug A is lower than that of drug B
    C. Drug A is 100 times more potent than drug B
    D. Drug A has a shorter duration of action
A

C. Drug A is 100 times more potent than drug B

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49
Q
  1. Which substance is a schedule 2 substance?
    A. Cannabis
    B. Fentanyl
    C. Diazepam
    D. Phenobarbital
A

B. Fentanyl

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50
Q
  1. Qualitative and quantitative determination of the medicinal substances is not introduced in:
    A. British Veterinary Formulary
    B. Hungarian Pharmacopeia
    C. European Pharmacopeia
    D. British Pharmacopeia
A

A. British Veterinary Formulary

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51
Q
  1. The LD50 of a drug is

A. 50% of the lethal dose in man
B. 50% of the lethal dose in an experimental animal
C. The dose (mg/kg) that kills 50% of the treated animals D. Half the dose that kills all of the treated animals

A

C. The dose (mg/kg) that kills 50% of the treated animals

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52
Q
  1. Among the environmental factors that may harm the medicines, this stimulates the oxidation or reduction processes:
    A. Fungi
    B. Humidity
    C. Light (UV)
    D. Heat
A

C. Light (UV)

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53
Q
  1. This category may play an important role in prevention of animal disease, but they are not real drugs:
    A. Prepared drugs
    B. Immunologicals
    C. Official drugs
    D. Biocides
A

D. Biocides

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54
Q
  1. How long do the withdrawal period usually last for eggs, following application of an official or prepared medicine?
    A. 500 degree days
    B. 0 days
    C. 28 days
    D. 7 days
A

D. 7 days

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55
Q
  1. Which temperature interval is valid if the drug has to be stored at a cool place?
    A. 15 – 25°C
    B. 2–8°C
    C. 8 – 15°C
    D. 10 – 14°C
A

C. 8 – 15°C

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56
Q
  1. What is written in the inscription in case of prepared preparations?
    A. The name and amount of the ingredients
    B. The name, dosage form, and the strength of the preparation
    C. The dosage form and the container
    D. The number of original packages
A

A. The name and amount of the ingredients

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57
Q
  1. What “Medicines order 2001 UK” category can be supplied by pharmacists without any prescription?
    A. P and PML
    B. GSL, P, PML
    C. GSL and P
    D. Every “medicines order 2001” category
A

B. GSL, P, PML

58
Q
  1. Quantal dose-response curves are
    A. Invalid in the presence of inhibitors of the drug studied
    B. Used for determining the maximal efficacy of a drug
    C. Obtainable from the study of intact subjects but not from isolated tissues
    D. Used in determining the therapeutic index of a drug
A

D. Used in determining the therapeutic index of a drug

59
Q
  1. This name of medicinal substances is given by the pharmacopeia commission to each compound:
    A. Chemical name
    B. Each drug name
    C. Proprietary name
    D. Approved name
A

D. Approved name

60
Q
  1. Which part of the prescription gives the farmer information on the withdrawal time?
    A. Subscription
    B. Signature
    C. Superscription
    D. Inscription
A

B. Signature

61
Q
  1. Which effect facilitates the oral bioavailability of medicinal products?
    A. Acid sensitivity of drug
    B. Increased motility of GI
    C. Large pKa value of drug
    D. Rapid dissolution from the formulation
A

D. Rapid dissolution from the formulation

62
Q
  1. Which is an example for substitution therapy?
    A. Administration of thyroxin for the treatment of hyperthyroidism
    B. Administration of a generic drug instead of original licensed product
    C. Administration of thyroxin for the treatment of hypothyroidism
    D. During antimicrobial treatment switching the antibiotic in case of resistant strain
    appearance
A

C. Administration of thyroxin for the treatment of hypothyroidism

63
Q
  1. Which statement is NOT true for a first order, one compartment open pharmacokinetic model?
    A. A bio exponential curve is used to describe the decrease of the drug level in time
    B. In the course of this process the capacity of organs of metabolism and
    or excretion is saturated
    C. After a single drug administration the drug is eliminated from the body continuously
    D. The drug is distributed among the tissues of the body evenly
A

B. In the course of this process the capacity of organs of metabolism and
or excretion is saturated

64
Q
  1. A drug that mediates the reversal of histamine bronchoconstriction (mediated at histamine receptors) by acting at adrenoceptors (e.g. epinephrine)
    A. Pharmacological antagonist
    B. Physiologic antagonist
    C. Non-competitive antagonist
    D. Partial agonist
A

B. Physiologic antagonist

65
Q
  1. What is characteristic for a drug molecule, which has been metabolised in the Phase II of biotransformation procedure?
    A. Losing of activity
    B. Active metabolite from an inactive pro-drug
    C. Metabolite with qualitatively different pharmacologic action
    D. Increased activity
A

A. Losing of activity

66
Q
  1. Drug allergies
    A. Can develop when the patient may or may not have been exposed to the
    drug previously
    B. Are more likely develop in a very young infant
    C. Can develop only when the patient has previously received the drug
    D. Are more likely to develop in a very old animal
A

A. Can develop when the patient may or may not have been exposed to the

67
Q
  1. When comparing drugs with respect to the intensity of response, the drug that produces the greatest maximum effect is the one with the highest
    A. Affinity
    B. Therapeutic index
    C. Efficacy
    D. Potency
A

C. Efficacy

68
Q
  1. The pharmacist can supply these drugs only if presented with a valid prescription from the practitioner:
    A. Pharmacy and merchant list medicines (PML) B. General sales list meds (GSL)
    C. Pharmacy medicines (P)
    D. Prescription only medicines (POM)
A

D. Prescription only medicines (POM)

69
Q
  1. The effect and side effects of drugs, as well as the contraindications of their uses, are NOT introduced well detailed in:
    A. British Veterinary Formulary
    B. European Pharmacopeia
    C. Vademecum
    D. Drug lexicon
A

B. European Pharmacopeia

70
Q
  1. The category drug like substances (non real drugs) includes:
    A. Official drugs
    B. Prepared drugs
    C. Immunologicals
    D. Biocides
A

D. Biocides

71
Q
  1. Which part of the prescription tells the pharmacist the name and formulation of the drug:
    A. Signature
    B. Superscription
    C. Inscription
    D. Subscription
A

C. Inscription

72
Q
  1. The oral AUC is the half that of the IV AUC value and for oral administration two fold higher dose was used. What is the bioavailability (F) value of the drug?
    A. 0.5
    B. 0.1
    C. 0.125
    D. 0.25
A

D. 0.25

73
Q
  1. The results shown in the graph were obtained in a comparison of positive inotropic agents

A. Drug A is most effective
B. Drug B is least potent

C. Drug A is more potent than drug B and more effective than drug C

D. Drug B is more potent than drug C and more effective than drug A

A

D. Drug B is more potent than drug C and more effective than drug A

74
Q
  1. Which of the following is an action of a non-competitive antagonist?

A. Alters the mechanism of action of an agonist

B. Alters the potency of an agonist

C. Decreases the maximum response to an agonist

D. Binds to the same site on the receptor as the agonist

A

C. Decreases the maximum response to an agonist

75
Q
  1. Drugs may harmfully interact with useful intestinal microbes. In which species is the effect the least significant?

A. Hamsters

B. Horses

C. Rabbits

D. Dogs

A

D. Dogs

76
Q
  1. If drug A has a greater efficacy than drug B, then drug A

A. Is more toxic than drug B

B. Has a greater affinity for the receptor than drug B

C. Is capable of producing a greater maximum effect than drug B

D. Has a greater margin of safety than drug B

A

C. Is capable of producing a greater maximum effect than drug B

77
Q
  1. A drug that blocks the action of epinephrine at its receptors by occupying those receptors without activating them

A. Chemical antagonist

B. Pharmacological antagonist

C. Partial agonist

D. Physiologic antagonist

A

B. Pharmacological antagonist

78
Q
  1. In this type of prescription the proprietary name of a vet- licensed medicine is given

A. Prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine

B. Prescription of a formulated official medicine

C. Prescription of a prepared (magistral) medicine

D. Prescription of a human licensed medicine

A

A. Prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine

79
Q
  1. Which one is incorrect? Factors maintaining drug allergy are:

A. Contamination of skin
B. Inhalation – contamination of airways
C. Preparation with rapid absorption after IM or SC

D. Administration Chronic disease, atrophy

A

C. Preparation with rapid absorption after IM or SC

80
Q
  1. The major part of the text must be in the veterinarian’s own handwriting:

A. Special preparation
B. Label
C. Prescription

D. Prescription for medicated feedstuff (PMF)

A

A. Special preparation

81
Q
  1. This name of medicinal substances is given by the manufacturers:

A. Each drug name
B. Approved name
C. Chemical name

D. Proprietary name

A

D. Proprietary name

82
Q
  1. The oral AUC is the 25% of that of the IV AUC value and for IV administration two fold higher dose was used. What is the bioavailability (F) value of the drug?

A. 0.75

B. 0.5

C. 0.25

D. 0.125

A

B. 0.5

83
Q
  1. Which part of the prescription gives the owner information about the dosages of an animal?

A. Signature

B. Inscription
C. Superscription

D. Subscription

A

A. Signature

84
Q
  1. Mark the reaction, which is not characteristic for Type I, immediate or anaphylactic drug allergy reaction:

A. Immune complex formation

B. Urticaria

C. Asthma like condition

D. Oedema

A

A. Immune complex formation

85
Q
  1. A drug licensed for humans and included in Annex I and III administered to dairy cattle should have a withdrawal period for milk:

A. At most 7 days withdrawal period

B. At most 28 days withdrawal period

C. At least 28 days withdrawal period

D. At least 7 days withdrawal period

A

D. At least 7 days withdrawal period

86
Q
  1. Vehicle in licking stones:

A. Light kaolin

B. Activated charcoal

C. Sodium chloride

D. Bismuth subgallate

A

C. Sodium chloride

87
Q
  1. How long do the withdrawal period usually last for fish at minimum, following application of an official or prepared medicine?

A. 7 days

B. 0 days

C. 500 degree days

D. 28 days

A

C. 500 degree days

88
Q
  1. For which category is not true, usually, it develops after repeated administration?

A. Drug tolerance

B. Idiosyncrasy

C. Drug allergy

D. Drug dependence

A

B. Idiosyncrasy

89
Q
  1. Which substance is a schedule 3 substance?

A. Phenolbarbital/phenobarbitone

B. LSD
C. Morphine
D. Fentanyl

A

A. Phenolbarbital/phenobarbitone

90
Q
  1. Which drug has to be kept in a locked receptacle with the key in the possession of the veterinarian?

A. Schedule 3 and 4 drugs

B. Schedule 1 and 4 drugs

C. None of these

D. Schedule 2 and 3

A

D. Schedule 2 and 3

91
Q
  1. A dosage from appropriate for the preparation of medicated feedstuff:

A. Premix

B. OROS

C. WSP

D. Oral solution

A

A. Premix

92
Q
  1. Specific receptor antagonists can best be described as having

A. Affinity but little or no efficacy for the receptor

B. Both efficacy and affinity for the receptor

C. Efficacy but little or no affinity for the receptor

D. None of the above

A

A. Affinity but little or no efficacy for the receptor

93
Q
  1. Antagonists are drugs that

A. Bound passively to the tissue receptor site

B. Reserve the effect of other drugs on tissue receptor sites

C. Activate tissue receptor sites

D. Block tissue receptor sites

A

D. Block tissue receptor sites

94
Q
  1. Defined as treatment of clinically diseased animals and prevention of spreading diseases in the herd:

A. Panphylaxis
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Prophylaxis
D. Metaphylaxis

A

D. Metaphylaxis

95
Q
  1. Which statement is not true for a first-order, open compartment open pharma … model?

A. A bio exponential curve is used to describe the decrease of the drug level in time

B. After a single drug administration the drug is eliminated from the body continuously

C. In the course of this process the capacity of organs of metabolism and or excretion is saturated

D. The drug is distributed among the tissues of the body evenly

A

C. In the course of this process the capacity of organs of metabolism and or excretion is saturated

96
Q
  1. Drugs can be used as non-divided powders:

A. Only drugs with broad therapeutic margin

B. Only drugs for the treatment of poultry

C. Only water insoluble drugs

D. Only water soluble drugs

A

A. Only drugs with broad therapeutic margin

97
Q
  1. These drugs are always POM medicines

A. Premixes

B. Controlled drugs

C. Official preparations

D. Non steroidal anti inflammatory drugs

A

B. Controlled drugs

98
Q
  1. Examine the graph: what is the efficacy relationship between drug A and C?

A. A is more efficious

B. Conclusion cannot be drawn

C. C is more efficacious

D. They are of equal efficacy

A

A. A is more efficious

99
Q
  1. Which technology is appropriate for achieving a pulsatile release of an active substance in a bolus?

A. OROS

B. Insoluble matrix

C. Chip controlled diaphragm

D. Expanding matrix

A

C. Chip controlled diaphragm

100
Q
  1. Which effect facilitates the oral bioavailability of medicinal products?

A. Rapid dissolution from the formulation

B. Increased motility of GI

C. Acid sensitivity of drug

D. Large pKa value of drug

A

A. Rapid dissolution from the formulation

101
Q
  1. Which ingredient is missing from the hard capsule?

A. Gelatine

B. Glycerine

C. Water
D. Sugar

A

B. Glycerine

102
Q
  1. These drugs are natural compounds of practically harmless substances, which do not require a withdrawal period

A. Drugs in Annex II

B. Drugs in Annex I

C. Drugs in Annex III

D. Drugs in Annex IV

A

A. Drugs in Annex II

103
Q
  1. When are written special prescriptions and written requisitions mandatory?

A. Schedule 3 and 4 drugs

B. Schedule 1 and 4 drugs

C. Schedule 2 and 3 drugs

D. None of them above

A

C. Schedule 2 and 3 drugs

104
Q
  1. At a steady state the plasma concentration of a drug (Cpss) is 1 mg/L. The total body clearance is (Cl2) 100 ml/min. What is the maintenance dose if the drug is applied in every 12 hour?

A, 7.2 mg

b. 72mg
c. 50mg
d. 100 mg

A

b. 72mg

105
Q
  1. A drug licensed for humans containing metronidazole

A. Has to have at least 28 WP for meat

B. Must not be used in food producing animals

C. Cannot penetrate into the milk thus no WP for milk has to be stated

D. Requires 0 days WP in food producing animals

A

B. Must not be used in food producing animals

106
Q
  1. A drug included in 2377/790EEC Annex II has a withdrawal period of:

A. 7 days

B. Must not be administrated to food producing animals

C. 0 days

d. 28 days

A

C. 0 days

107
Q
  1. Which drugs are normally not used in the veterinary practice?

A. Schedule 1 drugs

B. Schedule 2 drugs

C. Schedule 3 drugs

D. Schedule 4 drugs

A

A. Schedule 1 drugs

108
Q
  1. What information about any drug is included in the European Pharmacopeia’s?

A. Indication in veterinary medicine

B. Identification methods

C. Dosage of the drug in humans

D. Indications in human medicine

A

B. Identification methods

109
Q
  1. In this type of prescription the name and amount of ingredients (individual components) has to be given in the inscription part

A. Prescription of a human licensed medicine

B. Prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine

C. Prescription of a formulate official medicine

D. Prescription of a prepared (magistral) medicine

A

D. Prescription of a prepared (magistral) medicine

110
Q
  1. How long after the first use can drugs from multi dose injection bottles be used?

A. At most 14 days

B. At most 28 days

C. At most 7 days

D. No such requirement is official

A

B. At most 28 days

111
Q
  1. Which of the following is the licensed name of the drug

A. Amoxicillin

B. 7-amino-3,3-dimethyl-oxo-4-carboxylic acid

C. Betamox inj AUV
D. None of them above

A

C. Betamox inj AUV

112
Q
  1. The most frequent active ingredient of intraruminal boluses

A. NSAID
B. Anthelminthic
C. Growth promotor

D. Antibiotic

A

B. Anthelminthic

113
Q
  1. Which active substance is appropriate for analgesia (painkiller) as a transdermal patch?

A. Fentanyl

B. Naloxone
C. Metamizole

D. Butorphanol

A

A. Fentanyl

114
Q
  1. A drug licensed for humans and included in Annex I, administrated to dairy cattle’s should have a WP of at least

A. At most 28 days WP

B. At least 28 days WP

C. At most 7 days WP
D. At least 7 days WP

A

D. At least 7 days WP

115
Q
  1. In figure 1, three different doses of drug A are tested for activity.

In figure 2, three doses of are tested for activity in the same test system.

In figure 3, three doses of drug A are
in the presence of the high dose of drug B. based upon the responses seen, which of the following statements best describe drugs A and B?

A. Drug A is an antagonist; drug B is neither an agonist nor antagonist

B. Drug A is a partial agonist; drug B is an antagonist

C. Drug A is an antagonist; drug B is an agonist

D. Drug A is an agonist; drug B is a partial agonist

A

A. Drug A is an antagonist; drug B is neither an agonist nor antagonist

116
Q

1 According to the theory that agonists and antagonists occupy the same receptor site, an effective antagonist should exhibit:
A High intrinsic activity and low affinity
B no intrinsic activity and high affinity

C low intrinsic activity and low-affinity

D high intrinsic activity and high affinity

A

AHigh intrinsic activity and low affinity

117
Q

2 A drug that interacts directly with the agonist and not at all, or only incidently with the receptor:
A Chemical antagonist
B Pharmacological antagonist

C Partial agonist
D Physiologic antagonist

A

D Physiologic antagonist

118
Q

3 ___________ the largest effect a drug can produce, regardless of dose: A quantal dose response curve
B graded dose response curve
C maximum efficacy

D therapeutic index

A

C maximum efficacy

119
Q
  1. What is approximate percentage of a weak base (pKa = 8.4) in the non ionised form in the plasma having a pH of 7.4?
    A 90%
    B 50%

C 100%

D 10%

A

D 10%

120
Q

5 When supplying this drug, one copy of which of the following has to be kept by the registered feed compounder?
A prescription
B special prescription

C Prescription for medicated feedstuff (PMF)

D Legislation on requisition

A

C Prescription for medicated feedstuff (PMF)

121
Q

6 Which of the following can occur at therapeutic dosage levels in healthy patients?

A Allergic reactions
B teratogenic effects
C idiosyncratic reactions

D all of the above can occur

A

C idiosyncratic reactions

122
Q

11 How long does the withdrawal period usually last at minimum for meat, following the application of human licensed medicine?
A 7 days
B 500 degree days

C 28 days

D 0 days

A

C 28 days

123
Q

8 A drug licensed for humans and included in Table 1, and MRL has to be established administered to dairy cattle should have a withdrawal period for milk:
A At most 7 days withdrawal period
B at most 28 days withdrawal period

C at least 28 days withdrawal period

D at least 7 days withdrawal period

9 According to this type of medicinal substance use both sick and healthy animals are treated with a mass (population) administration:
A Metaphylaxis
B Mass treatment

C Always
D Prophylaxis

10 What is the proportion of ionised and non ionised molecules of a weak acidic drug (pKa = 4.4) in blood (pH = 7.4)!
A 1:1
B 100:1

C 10:1
D 1000:1

A

A At most 7 days withdrawal period

124
Q

13 The phenomenon in which two drugs produce opposite effects on a physiologic system but do not act at the same receptor site is:
A chemical antagonism
B physiologic antagonism

C competitve antagonism
D Noncompetitve antagonism

A

B physiologic antagonism

125
Q

18 Among the environmental factors that may harm the mediicnes this stimulates the oxidation or reduction processes:
A fungi
B Humidity

C Light (UV)

D Heat

A

C Light (UV)

126
Q

22 What is written in the inscription in case of prepared preperations?

A the name and amound of the ingredients
B the name , dosage form and the strengh of preperation
C The dosage form and the container

D the number of original packages

A

A the name and amound of the ingredients

127
Q

26 which part of the prescription gives the farmer information on the withdrawal time?

A subscription
B signature
C superscription

D inscription

A

B signature

128
Q

28 Which is an example for substitution therapy?

A Administration of thyroxin for the treatment of hyperthyroidism
B Administration of a generic drug instead of original licensed product
C Administration of thyroxin for the treatment of hypothyroidism
D During antimicrobial treatment switching the antibiotic in case of resistant strain appearance

A

C Administration of thyroxin for the treatment of hypothyroidism

129
Q

29 Which statement is NOT true for a first order, one compartment open pharmacokinetic model?

A a bioexponential curve is used to describe the decrease of the drug level in time

B in the course of this process the capacity of organs of metabolism and or excretion is satuated

C After a single drug administration the drug is eliminated from the body continuously

D the drug is distributed among the tissues of the body evenly

A

B in the course of this process the capacity of organs of metabolism and or excretion is satuated

130
Q

31 What is characteristic for a drug molecule which has been metabolised in the Phase II of biotransformation procedure?
A Losing of activity
B Active metabolite from an inactive prodrug

C Metabolite with qualitatively different pharmacologic action

D Increased activity

A

A Losing of activity

131
Q

32 Drug allergies
A can develop when the patient may or may not have been exposed to the drug previously

B are more likely develop in a very young infant

C can develop only when the patient has previously received the drug

D Are more likely to develop in a very old animal

A

A can develop when the patient may or may not have been exposed to the drug previously

132
Q

33 when comparing drugs with respect to intensity of response, the drug that produces the greatest maximum effect is the one with the highest
A affinity
B therapeutic index

C efficacy

D potency

A

C efficacy

133
Q

34 Specific receptor antagonists can best be described as having

A Affinity but little or no efficacy for the receptor
B none of the above
C both efficacy and affinity for the receptor

D efficacy but little or no affinity for the receptor

A

A Affinity but little or no efficacy for the receptor

134
Q

32 A dosage from appropriate for the preparation of medicated feed stuff:

A Premix
B OROS
C WSP

D Oral solution

A

A Premix

135
Q

These drugs are natural compounds or particullary harmless substances which not require a withdrawal period?

A

A drug in annex II

136
Q

when are written special prescriptions and written requisition mandatory

A

Scedule 2 and 3 drugs

137
Q

A drug licensed for humans containing metronidazole

A

Must not be used for food-producing animals

138
Q

A drug included in 2377/90EEC Annex II have a withdrawal period of how many days

A

0 days

139
Q

The LD50 of a drug is

A

The dose (mg/kg) that kills 50% of the treated animals

140
Q

Agonists are drugs that

A

bounds passively to the tissue receptor site

141
Q

What information about any drug is included in the European pharmacopoeias

A

dosage of drug in humans

142
Q

A drug that interacts directly with the agonist and not at all, or only incidentally with the receptor

A

Chemical antagonist ??

Veterinary Pharmacology (21 decks)

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