Pharma - Diabetes Flashcards

1
Q

What is Metformin’s primary mechanism of action?

A

→ metformin activates AMPK in hepatocyte mitochondria
→ this inhibits ATP production
→ blocks gluconeogenesis + subsequent glucose output
→ also blocks adenylate cyclase which promotes fat oxidation
→ both help to restore insulin sensitivity

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2
Q

What is Metformin’s drug target?

A

→ 5′-AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK)

→ in the hepatocyte mitochondria

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3
Q

What are the main side effects of Metformin?

A

→ GI side effects (20-30% of patients)
→ e.g. Abdominal pain, decreased appetite, diarrhoea, vomiting)
→ Particularly evident when very high doses are given
→ A slow increase in dose may improve tolerability

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4
Q

Why does Metformin cause side effects in the GI tract?

A

→ highly polar and requires organic cation transporter-1 (OCT-1) to access tissues
→ explains why it can accumulate in the liver (therapeutic effect) + in GI tract (side effects)

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5
Q

When is Metformin most effective?

A

→ most effective in the presence of endogenous insulin

→ so is most effective with some residual functioning pancreatic islet cells

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6
Q

What is an example of a Dipeptidyl-peptidase 4 (DPP-4) inhibitors?



A

Sitagliptin

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7
Q

What is the primary mechanism of action of DDP-4 inhibitors?

A

→ Work by inhibiting the action of DPP-4

→ enzyme is present in vascular endothelium and can metabolise incretins in the plasma

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8
Q

What is the purpose of incretins?

A

→ Incretins (e.g. GLP-1) are secreted by enteroendocrine cells + help stimulate the production of insulin when it is needed (e.g. after eating) + reduce the production of glucagon by the liver when it is not needed (e.g. during digestion)
→ Incretins also slow down digestion and decrease appetite

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9
Q

What is the site of action + drug target for a DDP-4 inhibitor?

A

→ DDP-4 = drug target

→ vascular endothelium

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10
Q

What are the main side effects of DDP-4 inhibitors?

A

→ Upper respiratory tract infections (5% of patients)
→ Flu-like symptoms e.g. headache, runny nose, sore throat
→ Serious allergic reactions (less common)
→ avoid in patients with pancreatitis

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11
Q

What side effects don’t arise as a result of DDP-4 inhibitors?

A

weight gain

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12
Q

When are DDP-4’s most effective?

A

→ when there are some residual pancreatic cell activity present
→ because they mainly cause increased insulin secretion

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13
Q

What is an example of a sulphonylurea?

A

Gliclazide

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14
Q

What is the main mechanism of action of sulphonylurea?

A

→ Inhibit the ATP-sensitive potassium (KATP) channel on the pancreatic beta cell. → channel controls beta cell membrane potential.
→ Inhibition causes depolarisation which stimulates Ca2+ influx and subsequent insulin vesicle exocytosis.

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15
Q

What is the drug target and site of action of sulphonylurea?

A

→ ATP-sensitive potassium channel

→ primary site of SUs inhibitor action = pancreatic beta cell

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16
Q

What are the main side effects of sulphonylurea?

A

→ weight gain is a likely side effect

→ hypoglycaemia is 2nd most common

17
Q

When is sulphonylurea most effective? Why?

A

act mainly by augmenting insulin secretion and consequently are effective only when some residual pancreatic beta-cell activity is present

18
Q

How is weight gain mitigated when using sulphonylureas?

A

concurrent administration of metformin

19
Q

What is an example of a SGLT2 inhibitor?

A

Dapaglifozin

20
Q

What is an SGLT2 inhibitor?

A

sodium-glucose co-transporter inhibitor

21
Q

What is the primary mechanism of action for SGLT2 inhibitors?

A

→ inhibits sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 in the renal proximal convoluted tubule
→ reduces glucose reabsorption + increases urinary glucose excretion.

22
Q

What is the drug target + site of action for SGLT2 inhibitors?

A

→ SGLT2 (sodium glucose co-transporter 2)

→ in the proximal convoluted tube

23
Q

What are the side effects of SGLT2 inhibitors?

A

→ Uro-genital infections due to increased glucose load (5% of patients)
→ Slight decrease in bone formation
→ Can worsen diabetic ketoacidosis (stop immediately)

24
Q

What are the additional positives of SGLT2 inhibitors?

A

can cause weight loss + reduction in BP

25
Q

When are SGLT2 inhibitors the least effective?

A

→ less effective in patients with renal impairment

→ depends on normal renal function

26
Q

A 72 year old woman, Mrs Wallace, attends a GP routine health check.

BMI = 31
BP = 144/92
Mother died of diabetes
no polyuria, polydipsia or weight loss
HbA1c = 65 mmol/mol
LDLs = 5.18 mmol/L
HDLs = 0.8 mmol/L
triglycerides = 6.53 mmol/L.  Urinalysis = glycosuria but no ketones

What is the patient’s problem?

A

→ High Hb1ac

→ High Blood pressure

→ dyslipidemia

→ obesity

→ Possible metabolic syndrome?

27
Q

A 72 year old woman, Mrs Wallace, attends a GP routine health check.

BMI = 31
BP = 144/92
Mother died of diabetes
no polyuria, polydipsia or weight loss
HbA1c = 65 mmol/mol
LDLs = 5.18 mmol/L
HDLs = 0.8 mmol/L
triglycerides = 6.53 mmol/L.  Urinalysis = glycosuria but no ketones

What is the therapeutic objective for this patient?

A

→ Lose weight – reduces insulin resistance and reduces cardiovascular disease.
→ Reduce blood pressure – reduces cardiovascular disease.
→ Improve lipid profile – reduces cardiovascular disease.
→ Reduce blood glucose – reduces microvascular and macrovascular complications of diabetes.

28
Q

A 72 year old woman, Mrs Wallace, attends a GP routine health check.

BMI = 31
BP = 144/92
Mother died of diabetes
no polyuria, polydipsia or weight loss
HbA1c = 65 mmol/mol
LDLs = 5.18 mmol/L
HDLs = 0.8 mmol/L
triglycerides = 6.53 mmol/L.  Urinalysis = glycosuria but no ketones

Derived from the NICE guidance for treatment, what would you prescribe for Mrs Wallace?

A

→ 500 mg/day, oral metformin

→ give her advice on lifestyle changes, e.g. dietary changes and exercise

29
Q

Consider the molecular structure of metformin. How do you think the molecular structure of metformin would influence it’s absorption into the blood and distribution to body tissues?

A

→ charged ion, can’t penetrate the phospholipid membrane so it’s poorly absorbed and can’t be distributed to a lot of body tissues
→ uses an organic cation transporter 1 (OCT1), can only penetrate the body tissues with that transporter

30
Q

The expression of the organic cation transporter 1 (OCT-1) is highest in the following tissues: Liver hepatocytes (highest expression), the small intestinal enterocytes and the renal proximal tubules. Why do you think this is relevant to the pharmacokinetics of orally administered metformin?

A

→ Small Bowel OCT-1 = allows metformin to be absorbed orally
→ Hepatocyte OCT-1 allows it to be distributed to the site of action
→ Proximal Tubule OCT-1 = helps withe the excretion of metformin

31
Q

Mrs Wallace is provided with lifestyle advice and several months later is started on standard release metformin (500mg/day;oral). Despite this treatment approach, 6 months later Mrs Wallace is attending a regular GP appointment and her HBA1c has only fallen to 62mmol/mol. She has a recurrent 2-year history of UTIs. What would you do next?

A

→ consider dual therapy, metformin + another drug
→ no SGLT2 inhibitors due to the side effect of urogenital infections + recurrent history
→ no sulphonylurea due to risk of weight gain when she’s already trying to lose weight
→ DPP-4 inhibitors vs. pioglitazone
→ pioglitazone is cheaper

32
Q

What are the main side effects of pioglitazone?

A

→ weight gain
→ pedal oedema
→ bone loss
→ precipitation of congestive heart failure

33
Q

What is pioglitazone?

A

→ Thiazolidinediones
→ synthetic ligands for peroxisome proliferator-activated receptors (PPARs)
→ alter the transcription of genes influencing carbohydrate + lipid metabolism
→ results in changed amounts of protein synthesis + metabolic changes

34
Q

What is the primary mechanism of action of pioglitazone?

A

→ improving insulin sensitivity through its action at PPAR gamma 1 and PPAR gamma 2, and affects lipid metabolism through action at PPAR alpha
→ increases in glucose transporters 1 and 4, lowered free fatty acids, enhanced insulin signalling, reduced tumour necrosis factor alpha (TNF alpha) and remodelling of adipose tissue

35
Q

Mrs Wallace has a stabilized Hb1Ac of 57 mmol/mol. Her drug treatment for her diabetes remains unchanged – metformin and pioglitazone. However, during this time, Mrs Wallace has developed chronic kidney disease.
Mrs Wallace’s most recent serum creatinine estimated her GFR at 37. The table describes how metformin administration should be changed based on underlying kidney function (eGFR).
How should you change the treatment strategy for Mrs Wallace and why do you think renal impairment could cause problems for diabetic patients on metformin?

A

→ GFR between 30-45 = if already taking metformin, consider 50% dose decrease