Peds 6 Flashcards

1
Q

Treating group A strep early will prevent X but not X

(rheumatic fever vs. PSGN)

A

Treating early will treat RF but not PSGN

Recall that PSGN is a Type III hypersensitivity (antigen-antibody complexes will form even if treated early)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Causes of proteinuria that do not include renal disease

A
  • Benign orthostatic proteinuria = just standing; gravity

- Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe diff in edema in nephritic vs. nephrotic syndrome

A
  • In nephritic, there is increase in actual volume (too much volume everywhere - increase in both intravascular and extravascular) due to damaged kidneys not allowing urine output
  • In nephrotic, there is decreased oncotic pressure, so volume leaves from intravascular space into extravascular space (so fluid is in wrong place, but there is no increase in total volume)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How do you treat edema is nephritic vs. nephrotic syndrome

A
  • Nephritic = treat with diuretics (need to reduce total volume)
  • Nephrotic = treat with albumin (need to increase oncotic pressure)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where is erythropoeitin made and what does it do

A

Made in the kidney

Stimulates bone marrow to make more RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe antalgic limp

A

Spending less time on painful side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Foot drop is caused by what

A

Damage to common peroneal nerve or other neuro disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where is Toddler’s fx

A

spiral fx of distal tibia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

A

Ischemic necrosis, collapse, and subsequent repair of the femoral head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What part is affected in Osgood Schlatter

A

Reaction of patellar tendon insertion into distal tibia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Tx of developmental dysplasia of hip in different aged infants

A

< 6 months = harness
6-18 mo = closed reduction
> 18 mo = open reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How can septic arthritis lead to avascular necrosis

A

increased intracapsular pressure causes tamponade that can interfere with venous return from the femoral head, resulting in AVN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

MOA of Chloramphenicol

A

Inhibition of 50S ribosome subunit – bacteriostatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Uses of Chloramphenicol

A
  • Meningitis (Strep Pneumo, H. Flu, Neisseria Menigitidis)
    • Used as empiric treatment for meningitis in developing countries
  • Rocky Mountain Spotted fever
    • Especially important in pregnancy when Doxycycline is contraindicated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Adverse effects of Chloamphenicol

A

♣ Anemia – Causes dose-related reversible suppression of RBC production
♣ Aplastic anemia – due to irreversible bone marrow suppresion
♣ Grey Baby Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

MOA of Linezolid

A

♣ Inhibits 50S ribosome subunit – bacteriostatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Uses of Linezolid

A

♣ Gram positive organisms such as Staph, Step, and Enterococcus
♣ MRSA (Treat with Vancomycin, Daptomycin, and Linezolid)
• Useful for nosocomial MRSA infections (e.g. hospital acquired pneumonia)
♣ Vancomycin resistant Enterococcus, VRE (nosocomial UTI and endocarditis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Adverse effects of Linezolid

A

♣ Thrombocytopenia (decreased platelets)
♣ Optic neuropathy with prolonged treatment
♣ Peripheral neuropathy (glove and stocking sensory impairment)
♣ Serotonin Syndrome
• Linezolid is an inhibitor of monoamine oxidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

MOA of Aminoglycosides

A

♣ Acts on the bacterial ribosome, halting translation

♣ Bind IRREVERSIBLY to the 30S subunit – BACTERICIDAL

20
Q

Example of Aminoglycoside drug names

A

Neomycin, Gentamicin, Streptomycin, Tobramycin, Amikacin, Paramycin

21
Q

Uses of Aminoglycosides

A

♣ Aerobic, gram-negative bacilli
• In order to get past the cell wall they are coupled with cell wall active drugs (e.g. beta-lactams or vancomycin)
• Are transported into bacteria via an oxygen dependent process (hence the activity against aerobic bacteria)
♣ Enterococcus (UTI and endocarditis)

22
Q

Use of Neomycin

A

• When taken orally, remains active in GI tract until excreted in feces– useful in bowel prep before colorectal surgery

23
Q

use of Paramycin

A

• Luminal agent against intestinal parasites such as Entomoeba histolytica

24
Q

Use of Streptomycin

A
  • Treat Tularemia caused by Francisella

* Treats plague caused by Yersinia pestis

25
Q

Use of Gentamicin

A
  • Treats resistant gram negative infections (e.g. Enterobacter, Serratia, Klebsiella)
  • Pseudomonas
26
Q

Use of Tobramycin

A

• Similar spectrum to Gentamicin

o Both treat pseudomonas

27
Q

Use of Amikacin

A
  • Resistant to many of the enzymes that inactivate other aminoglycosides in resistant bacteria
  • Treatment against pseudomonas
28
Q

Describe resistance to Aminoglycosides

A

♣ Enterococcus create resistance by inactivating Aminoglycoside via acetylation enzyme

29
Q

Adverse effects of Aminoglycosides

A
  • Ototoxicity
  • Nephrotoxicity (due to acute tubular necrosis)
  • Neuromuscular blockade (contraindicated in MG)
  • Teratogenic (deafness onn the newborn)
30
Q

Treatment of acute chest syndrome

A

Supplemental O2 and antibiotics

31
Q

What monitoring should be performed in kids with sickle cell in order to prevent stroke

A

Transcranial ultrasound

Should be initially performed at 2 year, and if normal then be repeated annually until 16 y/o

32
Q

Next step in management of sickle cell kid with abnormal transcranial US

A

Transfusion therapy to reduce percentage of sickled cells

33
Q

What is empyema

A

Purulent infection in the pleural space; usually seen with bacterial pneumonia or pulmonary abscess

34
Q

Bacterial causes of pneumonia to consider in a neonate

A

Enterobacteriaceae, Group B strep, Staph aureus, Strep pneumo, Listeria, Chlamydia

35
Q

Viral causes of pneumonia to consider in a neonate

A

HSV, RSV, enterovirus, influenza

36
Q

Common viral causes of pneumonia in infants

A

RSV, adenovirus, rhinovirus, influenza, parainfluenza

37
Q

Most common bacterial cause of pneumonia in pediatric patient > 5 years

A

Mycoplasma

38
Q

Tx of Mycoplasma pneumonia

A

Macrolides (e.g. Azithromycin)

39
Q

3 most common bacterial causes of acute otitis media

A

Strep pneumo, H. flu, Moraxella

40
Q

What is the usual antibiotic used to treat AOM

A

Amoxicillin

41
Q

What do you use to treat if Amoxicillin is not working on AOM

A

Amoxicillin-Clavulanate or Cephalosporin

Tympanocentesis and culture of middle ear fluid if several abx regimen are failed

42
Q

Management of suspected mastoiditis as a result of AOM

A

Myringotomy (TM incision), fluid culture, and parenteral abx

43
Q

Name 3 things that reduce risk of acute otitis media

A

♣ Administration of Pneumococcal and Influenza vaccines
♣ Tobacco smoke avoidance
♣ Increase breast-feeding

44
Q

What is cerebral palsy

A

o Disorder of nonprogressive motor dysfunction that results from an insult to or anomaly of the developing CNS

45
Q

In terms of cerebral palsy, differentiate between:

  • Hemiplegia
  • Diplegia
  • Quadriplegia
A

Hemiplegia = involvement of a single lateral side of the body, with greater impairment of the upper extremities

Diplegia = 4 limb involvement with greater impairment of lower extremities

Quadriplegia = 4 limb involvement with significant impairment of all 4 extremities