AAC 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is Well’s criteria

A

Used to determine pretest probability of PE:

♣ Wells Scoring Criteria:
• Clinical symptoms of DVT (leg swelling, pain with palpation) = 3
• Other diagnosis less likely than PE = 3
• Heart rate > 100 = 1.5
• Immobilization (>/= 3 days) or surgery in the previous 4 weeks = 1.5
• Previous DVT/PE = 1.5
• Hemoptysis = 1
• Malignancy = 1

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2
Q

Describe what to do for different scoring of Well’s

A

• Wells <2 = low probability
o Get D-dimer
♣ If low = likely not PE
♣ If elevated = continue with further testing

•	Wells >4-6 = high probability
o	CTA with IV contrast 
♣	Best test 
♣	Must have normal kidney
o	V/Q scan
♣	Can perform with abnormal kidneys
♣	Must have a normal CXR
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3
Q

Describe CURB 65

A

PNEUMONIA SEVERITY SCORE:
• Criteria:
o C = Confusion (based upon a specific mental test or new disorientation to person, place, or time)
o U = Urea (BUN >7)
o R = Respiratory Rate >/= 30
o B = Blood Pressure (systolic <90 or diastolic <60)
o 65 = Age >65

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4
Q

Describe pneumococcal vaccine PPSV23 and who it is used for

A

♣ Contains capular material from 23 serotypes that have historically been responsible for the majority of pneumonoccal infections
♣ Because polysaccharides alone cannot be presented to T-cells, the vaccine induces a relatively T-cell-independent B-cell response that is less effective in young children and the elderly

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5
Q

Describe pneumococcal vaccine PCV13 and who it is used for

A

♣ Consists of capsular polysaccharides from 13 of the most common serotypes that have been covalently attached to the inactivated diphtheria toxin protein
♣ This polysaccharide-protein conjugate induces a T-cell-depended B-cell response, resulting in improved immunogenicity due to the formation of higher-affinity antibodies and memory cells

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6
Q

How will Leydig tumors present in terms of

  • Testosterone
  • Estrogen
  • LH
  • FSH
A

Elevated testosterone and estrogen (gynecomastia) with secondary inhibition of LH and FSH

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7
Q

Diagnose:

  • Hypotension
  • Increased venous pressure, JVD
  • Clear lung sounds
A

Cardiac tamponade

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8
Q

What physical exam finding is often found in pericardial effusion

A

Inability to palpate PMI

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9
Q

Describe defect in Factor V Leiden

A

Most common hereditary thrombophilia

♣ Mutation that makes Factor Va resistant to inactivation by protein C
♣ Increased coagulation

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10
Q

Imaging for osteonecrosis of the femoral head

A

MRI

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11
Q

Describe hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia

A

♣ Aka Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome
♣ Inherited disorder of blood vessels
♣ Presentation:
• Telangiectasias, recurrent epistaxis, skin discoloration, arteriovenous malformations, Gi bleeding, hematuria
o AVMs in the lungs can shunt blood from the right to the left side of the heart, causing chronic hypoxemia, digital clubbing, and reactive polycythemia

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12
Q

Describe CBC in polycythemia vera

A

♣ CBC will show an increase in all 3 cell lines (RBC, Leukocytes, and platelets)

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13
Q

Describe mutation in polycythemia vera

A

o JAK2 kinase mutation
♣ Normally, RBC production is depended on EPO released by the kidney and liver in response to tissue hypoxia
♣ EPO activates JAK2 tyrosine kinase, which differentiates late myelid cells into erythrocytes
♣ In PV, RBC production is driven by a constitutively active JAK2 gene rather than by tissue hypoxia; therefore, EPO levels tend to be low

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14
Q

What is the defect in Hashimotos

A
  • Most common cause of hypothyroidism

* Autoimmune destruction (antithyroid peroxidase and antithyroglobulin antibodies)

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15
Q

What is the defect in Graves disease

A

• Thyroid stimulating immunoglobulin (TSI) stimulates TSH receptor

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16
Q

Describe CHADSVASC

A
•	CHADSVASC Score  risk of stroke for patients with A-fib/A-flutter
o	CHA(2)DS(2)VASc
o	Components:
♣	C = CHF or LVEF = 40%
♣	H = HTN
♣	A = Age >/= 75
♣	D = DM
♣	S = Stroke/TIA/Thromboembolism
♣	V = Vascular disease
♣	A = Age 65-74
♣	S = Sex (female)
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17
Q

Describe order of method for reading EKGs

A
  • Rate
  • Rhythm
  • Axis
  • Chambers
  • Intervals
  • Ischemia/Infarct
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18
Q

Method for rate in EKG

A

• (1) Count the number of QRS complexes on the full strip and multiply by 6
• (2) Count how many dark lines the QRS complexes are apart
o If two adjacent QRS complexes are one big line apart, the HR is 300
o If two adjacent QRS complexes are 2 big lines apart, the HR is 150
o . . . 300, 150, 100, 75, 60, 50,

19
Q

Method for rhythm in EKG

A
♣	Normal sinus rhythm
•	All of the following MUST be true:
o	P wave must preceded every QRS
o	QRS must come after every P
o	P wave must be upright in lead II
20
Q

Method for axis in EKG

A

• Basically everything between lead I and aVF (even though this is technically only 0 to 90)
• In a normal ECG, you would see a positive deflection of QRS in leads I and II or in Leads I and aVF
o The only time you need to look at lead II is if you are positive in lead I and negative in lead aVF
o Usually this means this is L axis deviation UNLESS it falls between -30 and 0
o So you need to check lead II
♣ If lead II is positive, then it is normal (between -30 and 0)
♣ If lead II is negative, then it is real L axis deviation

21
Q

EKG method for R atria

A

• Enlargement = peaked P-waves in lead 2

o Peaked = >2 little boxes in lead II and > 1 small box in lead V1

22
Q

EKG method for L atria

A

• Enlargement = S shape P-wave in lead V1 (aka positive and then negative deflection)
o Because this is the point where direction changes from positive to negative

23
Q

PR interval - how long should it be and what does it mean

A

♣ PR interval should be <5 small boxes (200 ms)
• Prolonged means heart blocks
o 1st degree = prolonged PR (>0.2 sec)
o 2nd degree Type I = PR getting longer and longer until dropped beat
o 2nd degree Type II = Dropped beat with stable PR
o 3rd degree = no relationship between P and QRS

24
Q

QRS interval - how long should it be and what does it mean

A

♣ QRS should be <3 small boxes (120 ms)
• If QRS is narrow, then signal came from atria
• Prolonged = bundle branch block or signal being initiated by ventricle

25
Q

What will you see in RBBB

A

♣ Will be seen more in V1 and V2 because these are anterior and RV is anterior
♣ Signal goes quickly to the L and then to the R slowly through cell to cell transmission
Change of direction is what causes bunny ears

26
Q

What will you see in LBBB

A

♣ Will be seen more in V6 because these are posterior and LV is posterior
♣ Signal goes quickly to the r and then to the l slowly through cell to cell transmission
• Change of direction is what causes bunny ears

27
Q

QT interval - how long should it be and what does it mean

A

♣ QT interval should be less than ½ RR interval
• Prolonged means that heart might produce another beat on its own (escape rhythm), and if QRS overlaps with a T then you can go into torsades

28
Q

What are EKG signs of ischemia/infarct

A
  • Q wave = sign of old ischemia
  • T wave = inversion means ischemia
  • ST elevation/depression = ischemia
29
Q

What will you see on EKG in PE

A

S1Q3T3
o Large S waves in lead I
o Q waves in lead III
o Inverted T waves in lead III

30
Q

Describe intermittent asthma - sx, nighttime awakenings, frequency of SABA use

A
o	Symptoms:
♣	= 2 days/week
o	Nighttime awakenings:
♣	= 2x/month
o	Frequency of SABA use:
♣	= 2 days/week
o	Interference with normal activity
♣	None
31
Q

Describe mild persistent asthma - sx, nighttime, SABA use

A
o	Symptoms:
♣	>2 days/week but not daily
o	Nighttime awakenings:
♣	3-4x/month
o	Frequency of SABA use:
♣	>2 days/week but not daily, and not more than 1x on any day
o	Interference with normal activity
♣	Minor limitation
32
Q

Describe moderate persistent asthma - sx, nighttime, SABA use

A
o	Symptoms:
♣	Daily
o	Nighttime awakenings:
♣	>1x/week but not nightly
o	Frequency of SABA use:
♣	Daily
o	Interference with normal activity
♣	Some limitation
33
Q

Describe severe persistent asthma - sx, nighttime, SABA use

A
o	Symptoms:
♣	Throughout the day
o	Nighttime awakenings:
♣	Often 7x/week
o	Frequency of SABA use:
♣	Several times per day
o	Interference with normal activity
♣	Extremely limited
34
Q

Describe Paget disease of the bone

A

♣ Disorder of bone remodeling due to increased osteoclastic activity followed by increased osteoblastic activity

35
Q

Clinical features of Pagets

A
  • Mosaic pattern of woven and lamellar bone
  • Increased hat size due to skull thickening
  • Hearing loss due to impingement of cranial nerve
36
Q

Abnormal labs in Paget

A

• Isolated elevation of alkaline phosphatase (due to end osteoblastic phase)

37
Q

Treatment of Pagets

A

Bisphosphonates

38
Q

What hematologic disorder is associated with nephrotic syndrome

A

Hypercoagulability

Due to increased loss of antithrombin, and altered leveles of protein C and S

39
Q

Most common cause of anemia in alcoholics

A

Folate deficiency (macrocytic anemia) - NOT B12 deficiency

40
Q

Describe presentation of rotator cuff impingement

A

♣ Pain with abduction, external rotation
♣ Subacromial tenderness
♣ Normal range of motion with positive impingement tests (e.g. Neer, Hawkins)

41
Q

Describe presentation of adhesive capsulitis of the shoulder

A

♣ Decreased passive and active range of motion

♣ More stiffness than pain

42
Q

Describe presentation of biceps tendinopathy

A

♣ Anterior shoulder pain
♣ Pain with lifting, carrying, or overhead reaching
♣ Weakness less common

43
Q

Describe presentation of glenohumeral osteoarthritis

A

♣ Uncommon and usually caused by trauma
♣ Gradual onset of anterior or deep shoulder pain
♣ Decreased active and passive abduction and external rotation

44
Q

Describe presentation of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)

A
o	Platelets used up in pathologic formation of microthrombi in small vessels
o	Due to decreased ADAMTS13, enzyme that normally cleaves vWF for degradation
♣	No vWF degradation = abnormal platelet adhesion = microthrombi 
o	Findings (Pentad) – THINK: FAT RN
♣	F = Fever
♣	A = anemia (Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia = RBCs sheared by microthrombi)
♣	T = thrombocytopenia (platelets being used up)
♣	R = renal insufficiency (thrombi involve vessels of kidney)
♣	N = neurological symptoms – confusion, HA, seizures, coma (thrombi involve vessels of CNS)