Peds 3 Flashcards

1
Q

MOA of Phenobarbital in treating jaundice

A

Phenobarbital induces UGT, thus increasing conjugation of bili

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2
Q

Most common cause of baby born with poor feeding, tachypnea, hypothermia, and poor perfusion

A

Group B Strep pneumonia

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3
Q

How do you prevent GBS infection in a newborn

A

Screen mothers at 35 weeks gestation, and give IV Penicillin during labor to those with high risk or positive GBS

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4
Q

Most common organisms of early-onset neonatal sepsis (within 6 days of life)

A

GBS (#1) , E. Coli, H. flu, Listeria monocytogenes

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5
Q

Tx of early onset neonatal sepsis

A

Abx directed at most common pathogens - usually combo of IV aminoglycosides and Penicillin

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6
Q

Tx of late onset neonatal sepsis (7-90 days of life)

A

Beta-lactamase resistant abx (such as vancomycin) and often 3rd generation cephalosporin

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7
Q

What is greatest risk factor for neonatal sepsis

A

Prematurity (#1)

Additional risk factors include low birth weight, rupture of membranes >18 hrs before deliver, young maternal age, initial apgar <5

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8
Q

Describe congenital adrenal hyperplasia

A

Disorder of adrenal steroid production with an enzymatic deficiency (most common 21-hydroxylase)

Causes inadequate production of cortisol (causing increase in ACTH), and excessive production of androgens (due to increased ACTH, leading to virilization)

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9
Q

Describe difference in presentation of 21 a-hydroxylase deficiency and 11 b-hydroxylase deficiency

A

Both have decreased cortisol, causing increased ACTH, and increased androgens

21 = has decreased mineralocorticoids (decreased BP and hyperkalemia)

11 = has increased intermediated mineralocorticoid (increased BP)

o If there is a 1 in the first digit of deficient enzyme (11 or 17) – will be HTN
o If there is a 1 in the second digit of deficient enzyme (11 or 21) – will be masculinization

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10
Q

Definition of hermaphroditism

A

Discrepancy between gonad morphology and external genitalia

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11
Q

Describe 5 alpha-reductase deficiency

A

Phenotypically normal female with functioning testicular tissue and short, blind-end vagina

Due to inability of 5 a-reductase to convert testosterone to DHT, which is needed for development of male external structures

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12
Q

Describe true hermaphroditism vs. pseudohermaphroditism (female and male)

A

True = both male and female internal genitalia (testes and ovaries)

Pseudo female = 46, XX with internal female and external male (usually caused by CAH)

Pseudo male = 46, XY with internal male and external female (e.g. 5 a-reductase deficiency)

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13
Q

What serum level should you check for in a baby with suspected CAH

A

Increased 17-hydroxyprogesterone

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14
Q

What is the classic disease associated with female with primary amenorrhea

A

5 alpha-reductase deficiency (46, XY with female phenotype)

Decreased androgen binding or androgen insensitivity

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15
Q

Describe difference in obstruction in meconium ileus vs. Hirschsprung disease

A

Meconium ileus = Seen in CF. Leads to obstruction of the ileum and a narrow, underdeveloped colon (microcolon)

Hirschsprung = Level of obstruction usually at the rectosigmoid junction, with proximal dilated colon

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16
Q

What are the 5 T’s that cause R-to-L shunt (early cyanosis

A
o	Truncus arteriosus (1 vessel)
o	Transposition (2 switched vessels)
o	Tricuspid atresia (3 = tri)
o	Tetralogy of Fallot (4 = tetra)
o	TAPVR (5 letters in the name)
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17
Q

Describe transposition of the great vessels

A
  • LV enters into the pulmonary trunk
  • RV enters into the aorta
  • Not compatible with life unless a shunt is present to allow mixing of blood (e.g. VSD, PDA, or PFO)
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18
Q

Describe Tetralogy of Fallot

A
  • (a) Pulmonary valve stenosis
  • (b) RV hypertrophy
  • (c) VSD
  • (d) Overriding aorta (sitting over VSD)
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19
Q

Describe tricuspid atresia

A

• Absence of tricuspid valve and hypoplastic RV
• Requires 2 shunts:
o ASD to get blood from RA to LA
o VSD to get blood from LV to RV so it can go to the lungs

20
Q

Describe Truncus arteriosus

A

• Failure of truncus arteriosus to divide into pulmonary trunk and aorta

21
Q

Describe total anamalous pulmonary venous return with obstruction

A
  • Pulmonary veins drain into R heart circulation (e.g. SVC, coronary sinus, RA)
  • Associated with ASD and sometimes PDA to allow for R-to-L shunting
22
Q

What disorders often present with hemarthrosis (bleeding into joint spaces)

A

Clotting defect (e.g. Hemophilia)

23
Q

Common presentation of platelet disorders

A
  • Easy or prolonged mucosal bleeding
  • Ecchymosis
  • Petechiae
24
Q

Lab findings in Hemophilia

A

Increased PTT

25
Q

Describe presentation of Kartagener syndrome

A

Due to ciliary dyskinesia

Triad = situs inversus, recurrent sinusitis, bronchiectasis

26
Q

Next step in management of infant with asymmetrical leg creases

A

Hip ultrasound

27
Q

What are the TORCH infections

A
T = Toxoplasmosis
O = Other (Varicella, Parvo)
R = Rubella
C = CMV
H = HSV, HIV
S = Syphilis
28
Q

Presentation of congenital Rubella

A

Cataracts, sensory-neural deafness, PDA, jaundice, blueberry muffin rash, mental retardation, microcephaly

29
Q

Presentation of congenital HSV

A

Skin vesicles, chorioretinitis (serpiginous corneal ulcers), microcephaly

30
Q

Presentation of congenital CMV

A

Blueberry muffin rash, hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice, sensorineural hearing loss, ventriculomegaly, calcifications on ventricles, mental retardation, seizures

31
Q

Presentation of congenital varicella

A

Limb hypoplasia, cutaneous scarring in dermatomal pattern, blindness

32
Q

Presentation of congenital parvovirus

A

Hydrops fetalis

33
Q

Presentation of congenital Toxoplasmosis (triad of sx)

A

(1) Intracranial calcifications, (2) hydrocephalus and seizures, (3) chorioretinitis, deafness

34
Q

What is the standard diagnosis of HSV in neonates

A

HSV PCR of the CSF

35
Q

How do you prevent transmission of HSV in woman with know genital HSV

A

C-section if lesions present at time of delivery

Daily antiviral therapy has not been shown to prevent neonatal infection. Surveillance cultures are not recommended

36
Q

Tx of neonate with suspected herpes infection

A

Hospitalize, obtain HSV surface and vesicle fluid cultures and CSF for HSV culture and PCR

37
Q

Presentation of esophageal atresia

A

• Most common type is esophageal atresia with distal tracheoesophageal fistula
o Aka blind upper esophagus with lower esophagus joined to trachea

  • Excessive oral secretions, choking and coughing
  • Polyhydramnios
  • Air in stomach (due to tracheoesophageal fistula)
38
Q

Describe “H-type” tracheoesophageal fistula

A
  • Esophagus connects to stomach, but there is also a fistula between esophagus and trachea
  • Often presents later in life with recurrent aspiration pneumonia or feeding difficulty
39
Q

What is transient tachypnea of the newborn

A

o Slow absorption of fetal lung fluid with resultant tachypnea
o Commonly associated with C-section deliveries

40
Q

Tx of transient tachypnea of the newborn

A

o supportive care including supplemental O2 if necessary

41
Q

Describe neonatal respiratory distress syndrome

A
o	Condition seen in newborn infants resulting from surfactant deficiency
o	Imaging (CT) reveals characteristic reticulonodular “ground glass” pattern
42
Q

Tx of meconium aspiration syndrome

A

♣ No tx necessary in a vigorous infant with good apgar scores
♣ Endotracheal intubation with direct suctioning
♣ Bag-mask ventilation or endotracheal intubation without suction may increase volume of meconium aspirated

43
Q

What is strabismus

A
  • Misalignment of the visual axes

* Can result in the loss of vision

44
Q

What is amblyopia

A

• Decrease or loss of vision caused by underuse of one eye (deprivation amblyopia) or lack of clear image projecting on the retina (strabismic amblyopia)

45
Q

Diagnose: excessive tearing and photophobia, exam finding of corneal enlargement

A

Congenital glaucoma - requires immediate need for ophtho eval

Tx likely surgical