pediatric nursing 2 Flashcards

1
Q

are interruptions in normal brain function resulting from excessive and disorderly abnormal electrical discharges in the brain, which causes LOC, involuntary body movements, and changes in behaviours

A

seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

involve both hemispheres of the brain, are bilat and symmetrical, and do not have a local onset

A

generalized seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

involve small area of the cerebral cortex and have a local onset; these seizures may be simple or complex

A

partial or focal seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

are a group of related defects of the CNA involving the cranium or spinal cord, which vary from mildly to severely disabling

A

neural tube defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

a condition caused by a blockage to the flow of CSF, or an imbalance in the production and absorption of CS in the ventricular system

A

hydrocephalus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

a pathological process that can involve the scalp, skull, or meninges, can range from mild to severe damage to the head

A

head injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

most common type of fracture, it resembles a thin line and is from a low velocity blow

A

linear fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

this type has a cracked eggshell appearance and may also be categorized as depressed. it usually result from intense impact and may suggest maltreatment

A

comminuted fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

the skull is indented a the point of impact, brain tissue, and intracranial damage

A

depressed fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

a linear fracture involving the basilar protion of the frontal, ethmoid, temporal, or occipital bones of the skull, often resulting in s dura tear

A

basilar fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

result in a communication between the skull and the scalp or the mucosa of the upper resp tract

A

open fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

is an unusual complication of head trauma. fracture is accompanied by an underlying tear in the dura or brain injury that fails to heal properly

A

growing skill fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

life-threatening with rapid onset, characterized by a rapid deterioration, headache, seizures, coma, and brain herniation

A

epidural hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

occurs within 48hrs of injury, characterized by headaches, agitation, confusion, drowsiness, decreased loc and increased icp

A

subdural hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

conditioned is now defined as a disability characterized by significant limitations both in intellectual functioning and in adaptive behavior as expressed in conceptual, social, and practical adaptive skills

A

intellectual disability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

a communicable virus that is usually transmitted by direct contact with droplets. incubation time is 10 to 20 days, and infected individuals are contagious from 4 days before to 5 days after the rash

17
Q

transmitted by direct and indirect contact. incubation period is 14 to 21 days. is communicable for 7 days before approx 5 days after the rash appears

18
Q

infection is transmitted by direct contact via contaminated objects. communicable for 1 to 2 days before the rash appears and remains infectious until all the lesions are crusted over

A

chicken pox

19
Q

incubation period is 6 to 20 days with an average of 7 days.
has 3 stages

20
Q

when the child has signs of an URI 1 to 2 weeks later, the hacking cough increases in severity

A

catarrhal stage

21
Q

usually lasts 4 to 6 weeks, classic paroxysmal whoop cough, which usually occurs at night, is flushed or has a cyanotic face, buldging eyes, and protruding tongue and coughs until they cough up a mucus plug, often vomiting after

A

paroxysmal stage

22
Q

cough slowly decreases, vomiting stops and strength returns

A

convalescent stage

23
Q

transmission is direct or droplet
incubation period is 14 to 21 days
communicable immediately before the swelling occurs until immediately after
two stages

24
Q

pyrexia, headache, and loss of appetite followed by earache, which worsens with chewing

A

prodromal stage

25
occurs by the second day with parotid gland swelling, which is painful and peaks in 1 to 3 days
second acute stage