pediatric nursing Flashcards

1
Q

consists of individuals, each with a socially recognized status and position, who interact with one another on a regular, recurring bass in socially sanctioned ways

A

family structure

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2
Q

has one of the following characteristics, a married couple without children, a married couple with one or more unmarried children, a father with one ore more unmarried children, a mother with one or more unmarried children, grandchildren living with their grandparents but no parents

A

nuclear family

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3
Q

has at least one step parent, step sibling or half sibling

A

blended family

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4
Q

consist of grandparents, children, and grandchildren living in the same household

A

extended or multigenerational family

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5
Q

is a household led by one parent by choice or following death, divorce, or separation

A

lone-parent family

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6
Q

consist of people of the same sex who live together with or without children

A

same sex parent families

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7
Q

refers to the interactions of family members, especially the quality of those relationships and interactions

A

family function

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8
Q

parents assume a leadership role in the family to guide children to learn, acceptable behaviours

A

parenting

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9
Q

rules and standards of conduct are set by the parent followed by rigidly, children do not participate in family decision making, children develop poor communication and negotiation skills, children are generally shy and self conscious

A

authoritarian parents

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10
Q

firm controls and limits are set by the parent, children are permitted to regulate their own activity as much as possible, children often control the parents and are disobedient, rebellious, and aggressive

A

permissive parents

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11
Q

is not merely a simple matter of the legal transfer of parental rights from one party to another but includes the social and emotional health of the child

A

adoption

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12
Q

refers to increases in physical parameters

A

growth

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13
Q

refers to increases in capability or function

A

development

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14
Q

developmental progression from head to toe

A

cephalocaudal

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15
Q

developmental progress that proceeds from the center of the body outward to the extremities

A

proximodistal

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16
Q

birth to 1 year

A

infancy

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17
Q

1 to 3 years

A

toddler

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18
Q

3 to 6 year

A

preschool

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19
Q

12 to 18 years

A

adolescence

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20
Q

divides psychic energy into three components of personality, the id, ego, and superego

A

freuds theory of psychosexual development

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21
Q

the unconscious mind , is the inborn component driven by instincts

A

id

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22
Q

the conscious mind serves the reality principle

A

ego

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23
Q

the conscience, functions as the moral arbitrator and represents the ideal

A

superego

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24
Q

suggests that individuals progress through life experiencing developmental crises at certain stages in life

A

Erickson’s theory of psychosocial development

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25
Q

suggests that children are greatly influenced by age, expierence, and maturational ability

A

piagets theory of cognitive development

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26
Q

explains the development of moral decision making and judgement

A

kohlbergs theory of moral development

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27
Q

what are freuds stages of development

A

oral
anal
phallic
latency
genital

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28
Q

understanding the world by exploring the mouth (infancy)

A

oral stage

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29
Q

learning to give and take (toddler)

A

anal stage

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30
Q

becoming aware of self as a sexual being (preschool)

A

phallic stage

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31
Q

focusing on peer relations; learing to live in groups and to achieve knowledge (school age)

A

latency stage

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32
Q

adolescence

A

gential stage

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33
Q

what are eriksons stages of development

A

trust vs mistrust
autonomy vs shame
inititative vs guilt
industry vs inferiority
identity vs diffusion

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34
Q

getting needs met. (infancy)

A

trust vs mistrust

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35
Q

trying out powers of speech (toddler)

A

autonomy vs shame

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36
Q

questioning (preschool)

A

initiative vs guilt

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37
Q

learning to win recognition by producing things (school age)

A

industry vs inferiority

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38
Q

moving toward own identity (adolescence)

A

identity vs diffusion

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39
Q

what are piaget’s developmental stages?

A

sensorimotor
preoperational
perceptual
concrete operations
formal operational

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40
Q

at birth responses are limited to reflexes (infancy)

A

sensorimotor

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41
Q

child is still egocentric (toddler)

A

preoperational

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42
Q

capable of some reasoning but can concentrate on only one aspect (preschool)

A

perceptual

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43
Q

reasoning is logical but limited to own expierence (school age)

A

concrete operations

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44
Q

acquires ability to develop abstract concepts for self (adolescence)

A

formal operational

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45
Q

what are kohlbergs stages of moral development

A

preconventional
conventional
postconventional

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46
Q

decisions are based on the desire to please others and to avoid punishment

A

preconventional

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47
Q

a conscience or internal set of standards is based on beliefs and teaching of others, such as parents q

A

conventional

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48
Q

the individual has internalized ethical standards on which to base decisions and uses awareness of the common good and ethical principles rather than relying on the standards of others

A

postconventional

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49
Q

is an infestation in the hair and is a common condition that can be difficult to eliminate

A

pediculosis capitis

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50
Q

a skin inflammation that develops in response to various stimuli

A

dermatitis

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51
Q

an inflammatory reaction of the skin to an allergen or irritating substance

A

contact dermatitis

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52
Q

is caused by a skin reaction to urine, feces, moisture, or friction that causes abrasion

A

diaper dermatitis

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53
Q

an inflammatory skin condition that reoccurs

A

seborrheic dermatitis

54
Q

a chronic, superficial inflammatory condition that is very itchy

A

eczema or atopic dermatitis

55
Q

an excessive loss of water from the body tissues

A

dehydration

56
Q

occurs when there is an increase in the hypothalamic set point, the bodys thermostat-like mechanism, and when the bodys heat loss mechanism cannot dissipate excess heat production, leading to abnormally high body temp

57
Q

is a seizure that is associated with an illness that has caused a fever

A

febrile seizures

58
Q

defined as frequent, abnormally watery stools

59
Q

a generalized bacterial infection with a systemic inflammatory response

60
Q

an inflammation of the meninges caused by a bacterial or viral infection

A

meningitis

61
Q

refers to harm, or risk of harm that a child or youth may expierence while in the care of a person whom they trust or depend on, including a parent

A

child maltreatment

62
Q

the application og unreasonable forced by an adult or youth to any part of a childs body

A

physical abuse

63
Q

abuse involving a child, by an adult or youth, in an act of sexual gratification, or exposure of a child to sexual contact

A

sexual abuse

64
Q

failure by a partner or caregiver to provide the physical or psychological necessities of life to a child

65
Q

adult behaviour that harms a child psychologically, emotionally, or spirtually

A

emotional abuse

66
Q

circumstances that allow a child to be aware of violence occuring between a caregiver and their partner or between other family members

A

exposure to family violence

67
Q

is taking action to intentionally end ones life

68
Q

a neurodevelopmental condition whose exact cause is unknown. it is a persistent pattern of inattention, or hyperactivity/impulsivity that interferes with functioning or development

69
Q

a complex developmental brain disorder.

70
Q

a potentially life threatening eating disorder that affects mainly females.

A

anorexia nervosa and bulemia nervosa

71
Q

is the sudden death of any infant younger than 1 year of age for whom a postmortm examination fails to determine the cause of death

A

sudden infant death syndrome

72
Q

is inflammation of the middle ear, with the signs and symptoms of acute infection, fever and ear pain

A

acute otis media

73
Q

is a viral infection of the nose and threat

A

nasopharyngitis and pharyngitis

74
Q

inflammation of the tonsils and often occurs with pharyngitis

A

tonsillits

75
Q

involves a large segment of one or more lobes

A

lobar pneumonia

76
Q

begins in the terminal bronchoioles, which become clogged with mucopurulent exudates, and then consolidates in pathches in the nearby lobules

A

bronchopneumonia

77
Q

an inflammation confined to the alveolar walls and peribronchial and interlobular tissues

A

interstitial penumonia

78
Q

caused by infection with the severe acute respiratory syndrome

A

coronavirus

79
Q

human infection that infects mainly children. facial characteristics of a mild rash on the cheeks of the affected child

A

parvovirus B19

80
Q

a chronic inflammatory respiratory disease that causes difficulty breathing following exposure to certain triggers

81
Q

affects the epithelial cells of the respiratory tract, causing obstruction due to accumulated debris from infected cells, mucus and exudate

82
Q

an inflammation and narrowing of the laryngeal and tracheal areas. cause is usually virl, and the common infectious agents are RSV, influenza, measles etc

A

laryngotracheobronchitis

83
Q

an acute and severe inflammation of the epiglottis that caused a supraglottic airway obstruction

A

epiglottitis

84
Q

a chronci autosomal recessive heredity disorder that affects the pancreas, respiratory system, GI tract, salivary glands, and reproductive tract

A

cystic fibrosis

85
Q

occurs in the upper lip when the tissue does not compleatly close during the sixth week of fetal development

86
Q

occurs when the embryonic palate plates do not compleatly close at about the seventh and twelfth weeks of gestation

A

cleft palate

87
Q

occurs when stomach contents flow back up the esophagus due to an incompetent or relaxed cardiac sphincter

88
Q

occurs when a narrowed circular pyloric sphincter obstructs the flow of gastric contents into the intestine

A

hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

89
Q

occurs when a portion of intestine invaginates, or folds into, an adjacent portion. this folding causes an obstruction that does not resolve and needs emergency medical intervention

A

intussusception

90
Q

the vermiform appendix becomes obstructed, leading to increased lumen pressure and bacterial infiltration with subsequent necrosis, perforation and peritonitis

A

appendicitis

91
Q

occurs with disruption of the normal pattern of bowel movements, a change in regularity or consistency, or change in how easy it is to pass stool

A

functional constipation

92
Q

is a lack of colon innervation that causes poor GI motility in the region of the colon or rectum and results in obstruction and dilation

A

Hirschsprung’s disease

93
Q

is a gluten sensitive enteropathy in which the child has a permanent intolerance to grain gluten and associated proteins

A

celiac disease

94
Q

occurs when part of the bowel protrudes through an abnormal hole in the abdominal wall

95
Q

occurs when abdominal fluid is trapped in the scrotal sac

96
Q

little or no reduction of blood flow to the lungs, therefore deoxygenated venous blood does not enter the systemic arterial circulation

A

acyanotic cardiac conditons

97
Q

occurs when the ductus arteriosus remains open, instead of closing, at about 3 to 4 days after birth. as a result, blood flows from the aorta through the PDA and back to the pulmonary artery and lungs

A

patent ductus arteriosus defect

98
Q

occurs when atrial septal tissue does not fuse properly during fetal development, creating an abnormal opening. the pressure of blood within the heart is normally higher in the left atrium than the right, therefore vlood shunts from the left to the right side of the heart through the abnormal opening

A

atrial septal defect

99
Q

an abnormal opening in the ventricular septum that can vary from very tiny to a large defect, such as a missing septum. the higher pressure in the left ventricle causes the blood to flow through the abnormal opening to the right ventricle, leading to an increase in pulmonary vascular resistance

A

ventricular septal defect

100
Q

a narrowing of the aortic valve causes an obstruction to the flow of blood from the left ventricle into the aorta.

A

aortic valvular stenosis defect

101
Q

is a narrowing at the entrance of the pulmonary artery from the right ventricle. the obstruction to blood flow increases right ventricular pressure

A

pulmonary stenosis

102
Q

a narrowing of the aorta

A

coarctation of the aorta

103
Q

what are the 3 types of COA

A

preductal
postductal
juxtaductal

104
Q

are heart defects in which deoxygenated blood enters the systemic arterial circulation.

A

cyanotic cardiac conditions

105
Q

most common cyanotic heart defect, consisting of four major abnormalities, VSD, right ventricular hypertrophy, pulmonary stenosis, and aorta overriding VSD.

A

tetralogy of fallot

106
Q

the pulmonary artery and aorta exit abnormally from the opposite ventricle. thus abnormality leads to two separate circulatory patterns, in which right heart manages systemic circulation anf left hart manages pulmonary circulation

A

transposition of the great vessels

107
Q

this is a defect of a single blood vessel instead of a seperate pulmonary artery and aorta.

A

truncus arteriosus

108
Q

involves a variety of abnormalities, including an underdeveloped or hypoplastic left ventricle, aortic valve, mitral valve, and ascending aorta

A

hypoplastic left heart syndrome `

109
Q

results from an inability of the heart to produce enough cardiac output to meet the bodys oxygen and metabolic needs

A

heart failure

110
Q

is most often caused by an insufficient quantity of iron in the diet, poor absorption of iron, or a significant loss of blood

A

iron deficiency anemia

111
Q

an inherited autosomal recessive disorder and a chronic, serious, hemolytic disorder found predominantly in people of African descent

A

sickle cell anemia

112
Q

term used to describe genetic blood disorders characterized by insufficient synthesis of specific globulin chains of the hemoglobin molecule

A

thalassemia

113
Q

a group of hereditary bleeding disorders in which there is a deficiency in a blood clotting factor

A

hemophilia

114
Q

is an acquired hemorrhagic disorder in which the number of circulating platelets is reduced through the destruction of platelets

A

immune thrombocytopenia

115
Q

a malignant neoplasm of the kidney, which is the most common intra-abdominal tumour in children

A

Wilms’ tumour

116
Q

results from a diminished or deficient secretion of pituitary hormones

A

hypopituitarism

117
Q

deficiency of pancreatic insulin that results in chronic high blood glucose levels and poor fat and carb metabolism

118
Q

lead to inflammation usually caused by bacterial infections of the urethra, bladder, ureters, or kidneys

119
Q

occurs when there is a backward flow of urine in the urinary tract when voiding

A

vesicoureteral reflux

120
Q

is an immune complex disease that may be a primary condition or can be symptomatic of a systemic disorder

A

acute glomerulonephritis

121
Q

occurs when the urethral opening is located below the glans penis or anywhere along the ventral surface of the penile shaft

A

hypospadias

122
Q

is repeated involuntary urination, usually at night, in a child who should have bladder control

123
Q

is a spectrum of hip abnormalities that may arise in the fetus, infant or child. hip instability may involve subluxations and dislocations, which if uncorrected, will lead to permanent disability

A

developmental dysplasia of the hip

124
Q

a group of neurological disorders caused by injury or insult to the brain either before or during birth or in early infancy

A

cerebral palsy

125
Q

is the most common and severe form of a group of disorders that cause progressive degeneration and weakness of skeletal muscles

A

duchenne muscular dystrophy

126
Q

is a lateral curvature of the spine. may result from leg length discrepancy, hip or knee contractures, pain, neuromuscular disorders, or congenital malformations

A

idiopathic scoliosis

127
Q

are breaks in the continuity of a bone when more stress is placed on the bone than it can resist

128
Q

is an infection of the bone, most commonly caused by s. aureus

A

osteomyelitis

129
Q

is excessive pressure from tissue or fluid volume within the rigid crainal vault that disrupts neurological function