nursing fundamentals and clinical skills Flashcards

1
Q

represents the balance between health produced and health lost by the body

A

body temperature

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2
Q

are relatively constant

A

core temps

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3
Q

fluctuate depending on blood flow to the skin and env conditions

A

surface temps

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4
Q

what are the temp measurement sites?

A

mouth, rectum, axilla, and tympanic

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5
Q

reflect fluctuations in the core temp. cannot be used in infants or sm children

A

oral temps

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6
Q

are the preferred method of measurement in young children who cannot use oral thermometers, should not be used for newborns due to the risk of anal perforations

A

rectal temps

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7
Q

is the safest site to measure temperatures in newborns

A

axillary temps

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8
Q

an easily accessible site that provides a core temperature quickly

A

tympanic membrane temp

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9
Q

site in easy to obtain without changing the clients position

A

temporal artery temp

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10
Q

bounding of arterial blood flow that is palpable at various points on the body

A

pulse

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11
Q

heart rate below 60bpm in an adult

A

bradycardia

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12
Q

heart rate above 100bpm in an adult

A

tachycardia

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13
Q

an irregular or abnormal rhythm

A

dysrhythmia

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14
Q

a normal increase in heart rate associated with inspiration

A

sinus arrhythmia

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15
Q

difference between apical and radial pusles

A

pulse deficit

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16
Q

the mechanism that the body uses to exchange gases between the atmosphere and the blood and between the blood and cells

A

respiration

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17
Q

regular but slow breathing at a rates of less than 12 breathes per min

A

bradypnea

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18
Q

regular but rapid breathing at a rate of greater than 20 breaths per min

A

tachypnea

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19
Q

laboured, deep respirations at a rate of greater than 20 breaths per min

A

hyperpnea

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20
Q

temporary cessation of breathing which then resumes

A

apnea

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21
Q

shortness of breath resulting in laboured or difficult breathing

A

dyspnea

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22
Q

an abnormal condition in which a person uses multiple pillows when lying down or must sit with their arms elevated and leaning forward to breathe deeply or comfortably

A

orthopnea

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23
Q

the indirect measure of arterial oxygen saturation and pulse rate

A

pulse oximetry

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24
Q

is the force of the blood under pressure pushing on the walls of an artery

A

BP

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25
Q

the peak of max pressure when the left ventricle contracts and ejects blood under high pressure into the aorta

A

systolic

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26
Q

is the min pressure exerted on the artrial walls when the ventricles relax

A

diastolic

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27
Q

the difference between systolic and diastolic pressures

A

pulse pressure

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28
Q

the temporary disappearance of korotoff sounds during auscultation of bp

A

auscultatory gap

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29
Q

persistently elevated BP and is often asymptomatic

A

hypertension

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30
Q

occurs when the systolic BP falls to 90 or below

A

hypotension

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31
Q

occurs when a person with bp within normal range develops symptoms and low bp when moving to an upright position

A

orthostatic hypotension

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32
Q

is the invasion of the body by pathogens and the rxn of the tissues to their presence and to the toxins generated by them

A

infection

33
Q

cause more generalized symptoms, such as fever, fatigue, and malise

A

systemic infection

34
Q

what are the elements of the chain of infection?

A

infecious agent, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, and susceptible host

35
Q

acquired after admission to a hospital or another HC agency that were not present or incubating at the time of admission

A

health care associated infections

36
Q

procedures used to reduce and prevent the spread of microorganism

A

medical asepsis

37
Q

includes all procedures used to eliminate all microorganisms, including pathogens and spores, from an object or area

A

surgical asepsis

38
Q

are infection control precaution designed for the care of all clients in any setting regardless of their dx or presumed infectiousness

A

routine practice

39
Q

are designed to contain pathogens in one area, usually in a clients room

A

additional precautions

40
Q

used for known or suspected infections caused by microbes transmitted by airborne droplets, measles, ckn pox, vericella

A

airborne precautions

41
Q

used for known or suspected infections caused by microbes transmitted by droplets produced by coughing, sneezing, or talking

A

droplet precautions

42
Q

used for known or suspected infections caused by direct or indirect contact

A

contact precautions

43
Q

straight single lumen catheter is introduced to empty thr bladder and removed after the bladder is drained

A

intermittent catheterization

44
Q

catheter with an inflatable balloon is inserted into the bladder on a short term or long term basis

A

in dwelling catheterization

45
Q

irrigation or flushes used to maintain the patench of in dwelling catheters or to wash out the bladder and treat local infections

A

bladder irrigation

46
Q

usually involves infrequent bowel movements, difficult defecation, inability to defecate at will, and hard feces

A

constipation

47
Q

a condition in which a collection of hardened fleece cannot be expelled from the rectum

A

fecal impaction

48
Q

the passage of liquid necessary and an increase in the number of stools

A

diarrhea

49
Q

inability to control the passage of feces and gas

A

fecal incontinence

50
Q

excessive gas in the stomach and intestine

A

flatulence

51
Q

are dilated, engorged veins in the rectal area

A

hemorrhoids

52
Q

divert the feces from the bowel directly to the abdomen surface

A

fecal diversions

53
Q

are an installation of a solution into the rectum and sigmoid colon

A

enemas

54
Q

include tap water, NS, low volume hypertonic and soap suds

A

cleansing enemas

55
Q

lube the rectum and colon

A

oil retention enemas

56
Q

used when the client has a fecal impaction. nurse breaks up the fecal mass with a finger and removed it in sections

A

digital removal of stool

57
Q

follow the normal healing process in a predictable and timely fashion

A

acute wounds

58
Q

do not heal easily, and the normal reparation process is interrupted

A

chronic wounds

59
Q

have little or no tissue loss, have well approximated wound margins, and heal quickly

A

primary intention

60
Q

have loss of tissue, such as second or third degree burns, or pressure injuries, and there is no approximation of wound edges

A

secondary intention

61
Q

occurs when postponing suturing of a wound in which two layers of granulation tissue are sutures together

A

tertiary intention

62
Q

partial or total separation of the wound layers

A

dehiscence

63
Q

protrusion of the abdominal organs through wound opening

A

evisceration

64
Q

abnormal passage between two organs or between an organ and the outside of the body

A

fistula

65
Q

clear, watery

A

serous

66
Q

thick green, yellow, or brown and containing pus cells

A

purulent

67
Q

thin, watery, blood tinged

A

serosanguineous

68
Q

localized damage to the skin and underlying soft tissue, usually over a body prominence or relates to a medical or other device

A

pressure injury

69
Q

when two surfaces are rubbed against each other

A

friction

70
Q

parallel force that happens when the skin and underlying subcutaneous tissue are pulled taut

A

shear

71
Q

a deep red, purple or maroon localized area of discolored intact skin nonintact skin or blood filed blister

A

suspected deep tissue injury

72
Q

intact skin with nonblanchable redness of a localized area, usually over a body prominence

A

stage 1 pressure injury

73
Q

partial thickness of dermis presenting as a shallow open ulcer with a red pink wound bed

A

stage 2 pressure injury

74
Q

full thickness tissue loss, subcutaneous fat may be visible, but bone, tendon or muscle not exposed

A

stage 3 pressure injury

75
Q

full thickness skin and tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon or muscle

A

stage 4 pressure injury

76
Q

full thickness skin and tissue loss in which the bas of the injury is covered in slough, escherichia or both

A

unshakeable pressure injury

77
Q

are losses in the normal function of sensory reception and perception, such as vision or hearing impairment

A

sensory deficits

78
Q

is the result of inadequate sensory stimuli

A

sensory deprivation

79
Q

occurs when clients recieve multiple sensory stimuli and cannot disregard or filter out some stimuli

A

sensory overload