Past Paper Mistakes Flashcards

1
Q

What is in the 6 in 1 vaccine ?

A
  • Diptheria
  • Tetanus
  • Pertussis
  • Polio
  • Haemophilus influenza type B (Hib)
  • Hepatitis B
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1
Q

When is the 6 in 1 offered ?

A

8 weeks
12 weeks
16 weeks

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2
Q

when is Men B vaccination offered ?

A
  • 8 weeks
  • 16 weeks
  • 1 year
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3
Q

When rotavirus vaccine offered ?

A

8 weeks
12 weeks

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4
Q

what are the 8 weeks vaccinations ?

A
  • 6-in-1
  • men B
  • rota virsu
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5
Q

what the 12 weeks vaccinations ?

A
  • 6-in-1
  • Roat virus
  • pneumococcal
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6
Q

what are the 16 week vaccinations ?

A

6-in1
men B

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7
Q

what vaccine are there at 1 year ?

A
  • 2-in-1 (Hib and Men C)
  • Pneumococcal
  • MMR
  • Men B
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8
Q

What vaccinations offered in secondary school ?

A
  • 12/13 yrs: HPV
  • 14 yrs: 3 in 1 (tetanus, diphtheria, polio)
  • Meningococcal groups AC WY
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9
Q

when should child be able to sit unsupported ? when refer ?

A

7-8 months
(refer at 12 months)

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10
Q

when should a child be able to walk unsupported ? when refer ?

A

walks unsupported 13-15 months
(refer at 18 months)

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11
Q

When can a child run ? what else can they do at this age ? (gross motor)

A

run at 2 yrs
(walks upstairs and downstairs holding on to rail)

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12
Q

when can a child pass objects from one hand to another ?

A

6 months (fine motor)

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13
Q

When can a child draw a circle ?

A

3yrs (copies circle)

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14
Q

at what age would you expect a child to respond to their own name ?

A

12 months

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15
Q

describe the speech developmental milsteons of a 3 year old ?

A
  • talks in short sentences (3-5 words)
  • asds what and who questions
  • identifies colours
  • counts to 10
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16
Q

When would you expect a baby to start smiling ? when refer ?

A

6 weeks
(refer at 10 weeks)

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17
Q

At what age can a child dress and undress independently ?

A

4 years
(except for laces and buttons)

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18
Q

how long after taking AP is acute dystonia ? Mx ? (2)

A

4 hrs
anticholinergic - Benadryl (benzatropine)
(also procycldine)

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19
Q

how long after taking AP is akathisia ? Mx ?

A

4 days
propanolol

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20
Q

neuroleptic malignant syndrome mamangment ?

A

dantrolene

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21
Q

serotonin syndrome triad ?

A
  • neuromuscular excitation (hyperreflexia, myoclonus, rigidity)
  • Autonomic nervous system excitation
    (hyperthermia, sweating)
  • altered mental state (confusion)
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22
Q

serotonin syndrome Mx ?

A
  • supportive IV fluids
  • Benzodiazepines
  • (more severe cases use serotonin antagonists)
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23
Q

describe how often the clozapine bloods are ? initially ? ongoing ?

A
  • WBC monitoring weekly for 18 weeks
  • then fortnightly for up to one year
  • then monthly as part of the clozapine patient monitoring services
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24
Q

What is a missed misscariage ? what is seen on US ?

A

baby has died in the womb, but the mother hasn’t had any symptoms (like bleeding or pain)
- US scan (baby has no heartbeat of that the baby is too small for the date of the pregnancy)

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25
Q

When do Parkinsonism symptoms occur in Lewy body dementia ?

A

progressive cognitive impairment occurs usually first
- Parkinsonism occurs then within a year

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26
Q

describe the relation between cognitive impairment and Parkinsonism that would point towards Parkinson’s disease ?

A

motor symptoms typically present at least on year before cognitive symptoms

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27
Q

DKA managment: how is defect fluid calculated? based on what measurements

A

Starting fluid rate = (deficit + maintenance)/48
(after the initial bolus- that can be different depending if in shock of not)
- based on pH (mild/mod => 5%, severe => 10%)
- ((%dehydration x kg x 10) - initial bolus)/48

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28
Q

how do you work out DKA maintenance fluids ? what does it depend on ?

A

100ml/day for 1st 10kg
50ml/day for next 10kg
20ml/day thereafter up to 80kg max

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29
Q

what is conns syndrome ?

A

adrenal adenoma producing too much aldosterone (hyperaldosteronism)

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30
Q

conns syndrome Mx ?

A

(aldosterone antagonist)
- eplerenone
- spironolactone

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31
Q

what is 6CIT ? what score is significant ?

A

(six-item cognitive impairment test)
dementia screening tool in primary care
>8 => significant
0-7/28 => normal

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32
Q

Edwards syndrome: what chromosome ? what features ?

A

trisomy 18 - little head ed
- low birth weight
- small head and jaw (little head ed)

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33
Q

what might you find on bloods tests in neuroleptic malignant syndrome ? (2)

A
  • raised creatinine kinase
  • leukocytosis
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34
Q

when can activated charcoal be given ? in what overdose ?

A

paracetamol overdose
- patients who present within 1 hour may benefit from activated charcoal to reduce absorption of the drug

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35
Q

what drug is mainly used in managmetn of paracetamol overdose ? when ? over what time frame ?

A

acetylcysteine
- infused over 1 hour

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36
Q

GCS: describer the 6 motor responses ?

A

6) obeys commands
5) localises to pain
4) withdraws from pain
3) abnormal flexion to pain (decorticate posture)
2) Extending to pain
1) None

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37
Q

GCS: describe the 5 verbal responses ?

A

5) orientated
4) confused
3) words
2) sounds
1) none

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38
Q

GCS: describe the 4 eye responses ?

A

4) spontanious
3) to speech
2) to pain
1) none

39
Q

which nerve roots does herbs palsy effect ?

40
Q

Childs asthma is not controlled on SABA and low dose ICS. what do you add ?

A

step 3: add leukotriene receptor antagonist

41
Q

Childs asthma is not controlled on SABA, low dose ICS and LTRA. what do you add ?

A

Step 4
stopping the LTRA and switch to LABA
(SABA, ICS, LABA)

42
Q

Childs asthma is not controlled on SABA, ICS and LABA. what do you add ?

A

step 5
switch ICS/LABA for a maintenance and reliever therapy (MART)
(SABA + MART)

43
Q

Childs asthma is not controlled on SABA + MART. What do you add ?

A

step 6
increase ICS dose to moderate
(SABA + paediatric moderate-dose ICS MART)

44
Q

which antibiotic safe throughout pregnancy ? which avoided ?

A

cephalosporins are safe throughout pregnancy
- Avoid trimethoprim in first trimester
- avoid nitrofurantoin in third trimester

45
Q

what can cause a raised serum Ca125 ?

A
  • endometriosis
  • menstruation
  • benign ovarian cyst
    (not vulval cancer)
46
Q

what do you prescribe for first episode of c. diff ?

A

oral vancomycin

47
Q

What time frame counts as opioid use disorder ?

A

when a harmful pattern of use is evident over a 12-moth period or at least 1 month if use is continuous

48
Q

US shows snow storm appearance of mixed echogenicity - what does this indicate ? what else would be seen ?

A

complete hydatiform mole
- uterus size great than expected for gestational age
- abnormally ugh serum hCG

49
Q

what is a complete mole pregnancy ? what is most common karyotype ?

A

occurs when tow sperm cells fertilise an ovum that contains no genetic material (empty ovum)
(usually XX)

50
Q

what molar pregnancy would present with YY ?

A

none - this is not compatible with life

51
Q

what could the chromosome karyotype for a partial mole be ?

A

two sperm cells fertilise a normal ovum at the same time
- XXX
- XYY

52
Q

what are the 4 stages of endometrial cancer ?

A

stage 1 - confined to endometrium
stage 2 - carcinoma extends to the cervix but not beyond the uterus
stage 3 - carcinoma extends beyond uterus but is confined to pelvis
stage 4 - carcinoma involves bladder or bowel, or has metastasised to distant sites

53
Q

what is used in the management of tardive dyskinesia ?

A

tetrabenazine

54
Q

How does PICA present ? (3) aka ?

A
  • ipsilateral: facial pain (pica chew) and temp loss
  • contralateral: limb/torso pain and temp loss, ataxia
  • nystagmus
    (lateral medullary syndrome, Wallenberg syndrome)
55
Q

how does AICA present ? aka ?

A

(lateral pontine syndrome)
- ipsilateral facial paralysis and deafness
- contralateral limb/tors pain and temp loss, ataxia
- nystagmus

56
Q

what is amaurosis fugax ? what does it indicate ?

A

temporary loss of vision through on eye which returns to normal afterwards
- usually to due pathology of retinal/opthalmic artery

57
Q

what is webers syndrome ? (2)

A
  • ipsilateral CN III palsy
  • contralateral weakness of upper and lower extremity
58
Q

patient had a fall/prolonged epileptic seizure, what electrolyte abnormalities might there be ? why ?

A

hyperkalaemia, hypocalcaemia (myoglobin bind calcium), elevated phosphate
due to rhabdomyolysis (=> AKI with disproportionately raised creatinine)

59
Q

how long symptoms for it to count as chronic fatigue ?

60
Q

cottage chess discharge, vulvitis, itch
what condition ?

61
Q

offensive, yellow/green, frothy discharge, vulvovaginitis and strawberry cervix
what condition ?

A

trichomonas vaginalis

62
Q

offensive, thin, white/grey, fishy discharge
what condition ?

63
Q

what is the black report ? summary ?

A

the extent of which ill-health and death are unequally distributed among the population of Britain

64
Q

what are the 4 theories of the black report ?

A
  • artefact
  • selection
  • behavioural/cultural
  • structural
65
Q

What 3 drugs (+ class) are used for Parkinson’s disease management ?

A
  • Levodopa
  • Dopamine agonist (cabergoline)
  • MAO-B inhibitors (selegiline)
  • COMT inhibitors (entacapone)
66
Q

2 tests recommended to assess patients at risk of falls ?

A
  • turn 180 test (takes more than 4 steps to turn => increased risk of falls)
  • Timed up and go test (<10 secs to get out of chair to spot 3m away)
67
Q

How could rhabdomyolysis affect urine ? fancy name for this

A

myoglobinuria
- dark or reddish=brown in colour and is a sign of muscle breakdown (for example secondary to rhabdomyolysis)

68
Q

what are the 6 stages to the transtheoretical model of change ?

A
  • Pre-contemplation
  • contemplation
  • preparation
  • action
  • maintenance
  • termination/relapse
69
Q

What is the syphillus causative organism ?

A
  • Treponema pallidum
70
Q

name 2 screening tools for depression ?

A
  • PHQ-9
  • HADS
71
Q

When is the MMR vaccine ?

A
  • 1 yr
  • 3 yrs and 4 months
72
Q

What are the 4 beliefs in the Health belief model ?

A
  • Believe are susceptible to disease
  • Believe in serious consequences
  • Believe taking action reduces susceptibility
  • Believe that benefits of action outweigh the costs
73
Q

boy presents with dull discomfort in the scrotum. What is this most likely ? how else might it present ?

A

varicocele
- mostly commonly assympotomattic
- can present with infertility

74
Q

boy present with red, swollen and warm testicle. what is this most likely ?

A

epididymitis or orchiditis

75
Q

boy present with severe sharp pain in the scrotum. what is this most likely ?

A

testicular torsion

76
Q

How does acamprosate work ? what is it used in ?

A

enhances GABA transmission (reduce craving)
(used alcohol dependance)

77
Q

what alcohol dependence drug cannot be used while continuing drinking ?

A

clomethiazole

78
Q

How does disulfiram work ? used in what ?

A

causes a build up of acetaldehyde on consumption of alcohol causing unpleasant symptoms such as flushing, headache, anxiety (if you drink alcohol you DIE-sulfiram)
(used in alcohol dependence)

79
Q

What congenital abnormailites can sodium valproate cause ? most common ?

A
  • hypospadias (most common)
  • spina bifida
  • ASD
  • cleft palate
  • polydactyly
80
Q

What inheritance is Marfans syndrome ?

A

autosomal dominant

81
Q

what is the main risk of marfans syndrome ?

A

aortic dissection and rupture

82
Q

what measurements are required for downs syndrome screening ? (3)

A
  • Nuchal translucency
  • bHCG
  • PAPP-A
83
Q

Gonorrhoea first line treatment ?

A

IM ceftriaxone

84
Q

first line treatment of trichomonas vaginalis ?

A

Metronidazole

85
Q

first line treatment for candida ?

A

fluconazole

86
Q

first line treatment for chlamydia after positive NAAT testing ?

A

doxycycline

87
Q

CAP treatment ?

A

amoxicillin

88
Q

describe the typical finding of a right hemisection of the spinal cord ?

A
  • ipsilateral: paralysis and loss of proprioception and vibration
  • contralateral: lack of pain and temperature sensation
89
Q

what is second line prevention of gout after allopurinol ?

A

febuxostat

90
Q

most common cause of bacterial COPD exacerbation ?

A

Moraxella cararrhalis

91
Q

characteristic findings of CSF in GBS ? (4)

A
  • raised protein
  • normal white cell count
  • raised opening pressure
  • normal glucose
92
Q

alcohol dependance man says “I have moved from drinking wine, beer and whiskey to just win every day” what dependance symptom is this ?

A

narrowed repertoire

93
Q

where do you notify a notifiable disease ?

A
  • consultant in communicable disease control
  • public health England
  • local health protection team
94
Q

what biological therapy is used for breast cancer that is HER2 positive ?

A

trastuzumab (Herceptin)

95
Q

difference in OT and physio ?

A
  • physio work mostly with mobility while OT work with function in everyday life
    (physio: massage, exercise to prevent further injury and long term medication dependance)
    (OT introduce equipment or recommend environmental modifications that help individuals carry out their delay activities)
96
Q

what is deontological ethics ?

A

that the morality of an action should be base don whether the action itself is right or wrong under a series of rules and principles
(distinguish ring form wrong)