ILAs Flashcards

1
Q

over what values is hypertension ?

A

> 140/90
confirmed with ambulatory/home: >135/85

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

most common cause of hypertension

A

primary (90%) high BP has developed on ownc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

causes of secondary hypertension ? 2 most common ?

A

ROPED
- renal disease (common)
- cons disease/primary hyperaldosteronism (common)
- obesity
- pregnancy induced/pre eclampsia
- endocrine
- drugs (alcohol, steroids, NSAIDs, oestrogen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

If high BP is not responded to treatment, what should you consider ?

A

consider renal artery stenosis
(duplex US)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what ranges for stage 1/2/3 hypertension ?

A
  • stage 1: >140/90 (>135/85)
  • stage 2: >160/100 (>155/95)
  • stage 3: > 180/120
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what lifestyle advice for hypertension ?

A
  • healthy diet
  • smoking cessation
  • reduce alcohol
  • reduce caffeine
  • reduce salt
  • regular exercise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

50 year old white man hypertension. what first line drug ? who else in the category ?

A

ACEI
(<55 or T2DM (any age))

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

50 year old black man with hypertension. what first line drug? who else in this category ?

A

CCB
(>55 or black African)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

first line hypertension managment not enough, then add what ?

A
  • consider ACEI or CCB (whichever they’re not already on)
    OR
  • Thiazide-like diuretic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

third line hypertension Mx ?

A

ACEI + CCB + thiazide like dietetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what tests would you do in a newly diagnosed patient with hypertension to ensure they do not the any end-organ damage ? (3)

A
  • fundoscopy (check for hypertensive retinopathy)
  • urine dipstick (check for renal disease, either as a cause of consequence of hypertension)
  • ECG (to check for LV hypertrophy of IHD)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

ACEI SE ? (2)

A
  • cough
  • hyperkalaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

CCB SE ? (3)

A
  • headache
  • flushing
  • ankle oedema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

BB SE ? (3)

A
  • bronchospasm (especially in asthmatics)
  • fatigue
  • cold peripheries
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

bendoflumethiazide SE (4)

A
  • gout
  • hyppokalaemia
  • hyponatraemia
  • impaired glucose tolerance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what antihypertensive is first line in diabetic patients ?

A

ACEI/ARBS regardless of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What drugs can contribute to idiopathic intracranial hypertension ? (5)

A
  • COCP
  • steroids
  • tetracyclines
  • retinoids
  • lithium
18
Q

what are the BP target ranges over a patient over 80 years ?

A

<150/90 (<145/85)

19
Q

describe the antibodies associated with RA ? and what their sensitivity is ?

A
  • RF (IgM): autoantibody that attacks IgG => inflam (70% of RA patients have it)
  • Anti-CCP (more specific -80-90%)
20
Q

what indicates a worse prognosis in RA ? (3)

A
  • disease activity
  • positive Ab (RF or anti-CCP)
  • erosions on xray
  • extra-acrituclar features (nodules)
21
Q

RA RF ?

A

F:M (3:1)
middle age
smoking
obesity
FHx

22
Q

RA presentation ? which joints affected ?

A

rapid of gradual: (triad) joint pain, stiffness swelling (worse with rest, improve with activity)
- MCP, PIP, wrist, MTP

23
Q

RA hand OE ?

A
  • synovial thickening => boggy feeling
  • positive squeeze test
  • z shaped deformity
  • swan neck deformity
  • boutineirs deformity
  • ulnar deviation
24
Q

name some extra articular manifestations of RA ?

A
  • sjorgrens
  • eye manifestations (keratoconjunctivitis sick - dry eyes)
  • nodules
25
Q

what would be seen on Xray of RA ? (5)

A
  • periarticular osteopenia
  • bony erosions
  • soft tissue swelling
  • loss of joint space
  • subluxation
26
Q

RA Mx ?

A
  • short term steroids: at initial px or during flares
  • DMARDS: methotrexate, hydroxychloroquine/sulfasalazine (safest during pregnancy)
27
Q

when should methotrexate be stopped prior to conception ?

A

6 months before conception (in men and women)

28
Q

what would post-bronchodilator spirometry show in COPD

A

obstruction: FEV1/FVC ration less than 70% (0.7)

29
Q

What would be seen on CXR of patient with COPD ?

A
  • hyperinflation
  • bull
  • flat hemidiaphragm
30
Q

What general lifestyle managment is recommended to patients with COPD ?

A
  • smoking cessation
  • annula flu vaccine
  • one-off pneumococcal vaccine
  • pulmonary rehab
31
Q

What is first line medical Mx of COPD ?

A

short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA) or short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA)

32
Q

COPD patient is not controlled on SABA. what would you consider next ? what does this depend on ?

A

depends on if asthmatic features suggestion steroid responsiveness
- no asthmatic features: add LABA and LAMA
- asthmatic features: add LABA + ICS

33
Q

what are the features of cor pulmonale ?

A
  • peripheral oedema
  • raised JVP
  • systolic parasternal heave
  • Loud P2
34
Q

which COPD patients should be considered for Long term oxygen therapy (LTOT) ?

A
  • severe airflow obstruction: FEV1 < 30%)
  • cynaosis
  • polycythaemia
  • raised JVP
  • Oxy sats <92%
35
Q

most common infective causes of COPD exacerbation ?

A
  • haemophiliac influenza (most common)
36
Q

Gout most commonly affects which joint ?

A

1st metatarsophalangeal joint (MTP joint)

37
Q

describe the fluid analysis of the synovial fluid in gout ? when checked ?

A

needle shape negatively birefringent monosodium rate crystals under polarised light
- should be choked once the acne ep has settled down (2 weeks later)

38
Q

pseudo gout joint aspiration description ?

A

weakly-positive birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals

39
Q

Gout acute managment ?

A

NSAIDs or colchicine

40
Q

main colchicine side effect ?

A

diarrhoea

41
Q
A