Part 91 IR | Use of Time, Substances, Flight Time, Recency, Duties PIC, ACAS & TAWS and GNSS Flashcards

1
Q

(2) Additional rules to, and exemptions from, the provisions of this Part, are prescribed, in respect of—

Aeroplanes engaged in commercial air transport operations carrying more than 19 passengers, in -

Aeroplanes engaged in commercial air transport operations carrying 19 or fewer passengers, in -

A

part 121

Part 135;

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2
Q

(1) For the purposes of reporting and recording time, Co-ordinated Universal Time (UTC) shall be used and shall be expressed in hours and minutes and, when required, seconds of the 24-hour day beginning at midnight.
(2) A time check shall be obtained from an air traffic services unit, if possible, prior to operating a _______ flight and at such other times during the flight as may be necessary.
(3) Wherever time is utilised in the application of data link communications, it shall be accurate to within _ second of UTC.

A

(1) For the purposes of reporting and recording time, Co-ordinated Universal Time (UTC) shall be used and shall be expressed in hours and minutes and, when required, seconds of the 24-hour day beginning at midnight.
(2) A time check shall be obtained from an air traffic services unit, if possible, prior to operating a controlled flight and at such other times during the flight as may be necessary.
(3) Wherever time is utilised in the application of data link communications, it shall be accurate to within 1 second of UTC.

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3
Q

(1) No person shall act as a crew member of an aircraft—

(a)
whilst using any psychoactive substance which may affect his or her faculties in any manner that may jeopardise safety;

(b)
within __ hours following scuba diving by such flight crew member;

(c)
within __ hours following blood donation by such flight crew member;

(d)
if the crew member knows or suspects that he or she is suffering from or, having due regard to the circumstances of the flight to be undertaken, is likely to suffer from fatigue to such an extent that it may endanger the safety of the aircraft or its occupants; or

(e)
if the crew member is in any doubt of being able to

A

(1) No person shall act as a crew member of an aircraft—

(a)
whilst using any psychoactive substance which may affect his or her faculties in any manner that may jeopardise safety;

(b)
within 24 hours following scuba diving by such flight crew member;

(c)
within 72 hours following blood donation by such flight crew member;

(d)
if the crew member knows or suspects that he or she is suffering from or, having due regard to the circumstances of the flight to be undertaken, is likely to suffer from fatigue to such an extent that it may endanger the safety of the aircraft or its occupants; or

(e)
if the crew member is in any doubt of being able to accomplish his or her assigned duties on board the aircraft.

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4
Q

(2) No crew member shall—

(a)
consume any alcohol less than _ hours prior to commencing standby for operational duty or commencing operational duty, which operational duty shall be deemed to commence at the specified reporting time, if applicable;

(b)
commence an operational duty period while the concentration of alcohol in his or her blood, is more than ___ g per ___ ml; or

(c)
consume alcohol during flight duty or whilst on standby, or within eight hours after an accident or reportable incident involving the aircraft, unless the accident or incident was not related to his or her duties.

A

(2) No crew member shall—

(a)
consume any alcohol less than 8 hours prior to commencing standby for operational duty or commencing operational duty, which operational duty shall be deemed to commence at the specified reporting time, if applicable;

(b)
commence an operational duty period while the concentration of alcohol in his or her blood, is more than 0,02 g per 100 ml; or

(c)
consume alcohol during flight duty or whilst on standby, or within eight hours after an accident or reportable incident involving the aircraft, unless the accident or incident was not related to his or her duties.

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5
Q

(3) No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft if, prior to each flight, the expected flight time exceeds, or is likely to exceed, the permissible aggregate of—

(a)
for all flying—
(i)
for pilots not subject to an approved flight time and duty period scheme, __ hours within a __ hour period;
(ii)
___ hours, during the preceding __ days;
(iii)
___ hours, during the preceding __ months; or
(iv)
____ hours, during the preceding __ months;

As part of a multi-crew for a flight under IFR -

  1. ___ hours, during the preceding __ days; or
  2. ___ hours during the preceding __ days

As the sole pilot conducting a flight under IFR -

A

(3) No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft if, prior to each flight, the expected flight time exceeds, or is likely to exceed, the permissible aggregate of—

(a)
for all flying—
(i)
for pilots not subject to an approved flight time and duty period scheme, 10 hours within a 24 hour period;
(ii)
400 hours, during the preceding 90 days;
(iii)
700 hours, during the preceding six months; or
(iv)
1000 hours, during the preceding 12 months;

  1. 120 hours, during the preceding 30 days; or
  2. 300 hours during the preceding 90 days

100 hours in the preceding 90 days

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6
Q

Recency:

(1) A pilot shall not act as PIC of an aircraft, or second-in-command (SIC) of an aircraft required to be crewed by ___ than __ pilot, carrying passengers by day, unless such pilot has personally, within the __ days immediately preceding the flight, carried out either by day or by night at least ___ take-offs and ___ landings in the same class or, if a type rating is required, type or variant of aeroplane, and in the case of a helicopter three circuits including three take-offs and three landings in the same type of helicopter as that in which such flight is to be undertaken. The landings required by this sub-regulation may be completed in an ____ approved for the purpose. In the case of a tail-wheel aeroplane, each landing shall be carried out to a full-stop.
(2) A person shall not operate an aircraft in commercial air transport or carrying passengers as PIC at night unless he or she holds an __ or has, in the preceding __ days, carried out at least one take-off and landing at night as PF in an aircraft of the same type or class or an FFS representing that type or class.
(3) Where the take-off and landing requirement referred to in subregulations (1) and (2) have been satisfied in a multi-engine aircraft, the requirement shall be deemed to have been met in respect of single-engine aircraft as well.
(4) A pilot shall not act as PIC or SIC of an aircraft on an instrument approach to an aerodrome in IMC unless the pilot has, within the __ days immediately preceding such approach procedure or procedures established by the Director or an appropriate authority—

(a)
executed at least __ approaches in an aircraft or an FSTD approved for the purpose or a combination of aircraft and FSTD approved for the purpose, either under actual or simulated conditions, with reference to flight instruments only; or

(b)
undergone the appropriate skill test as prescribed in regulation 61.15 of Part 61 of these regulations.

A

(1) A pilot shall not act as PIC of an aircraft, or second-in-command (SIC) of an aircraft required to be crewed by more than one pilot, carrying passengers by day, unless such pilot has personally, within the 90 days immediately preceding the flight, carried out either by day or by night at least three take-offs and three landings in the same class or, if a type rating is required, type or variant of aeroplane, and in the case of a helicopter three circuits including three take-offs and three landings in the same type of helicopter as that in which such flight is to be undertaken. The landings required by this sub-regulation may be completed in an FSTD approved for the purpose. In the case of a tail-wheel aeroplane, each landing shall be carried out to a full-stop.
(2) A person shall not operate an aircraft in commercial air transport or carrying passengers as PIC at night unless he or she holds an IR or has, in the preceding 90 days, carried out at least one take-off and landing at night as PF in an aircraft of the same type or class or an FFS representing that type or class.
(3) Where the take-off and landing requirement referred to in subregulations (1) and (2) have been satisfied in a multi-engine aircraft, the requirement shall be deemed to have been met in respect of single-engine aircraft as well.
(4) A pilot shall not act as PIC or SIC of an aircraft on an instrument approach to an aerodrome in IMC unless the pilot has, within the 90 days immediately preceding such approach procedure or procedures established by the Director or an appropriate authority—

(a)
executed at least two approaches in an aircraft or an FSTD approved for the purpose or a combination of aircraft and FSTD approved for the purpose, either under actual or simulated conditions, with reference to flight instruments only; or

(b)
undergone the appropriate skill test as prescribed in regulation 61.15 of Part 61 of these regulations.

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7
Q

(5) The PIC of the aircraft shall ensure that—

(a)
breathing oxygen is available to crew members and passengers if flights in a non-pressurised aircraft are contemplated above ______ ft and up to ______ ft in excess of ___ minutes intended flight time, or above _____ ft; and

(b)
breathing oxygen is carried in sufficient quantities for all flights at such altitudes where a lack of oxygen might result in impairment of faculties of crew members or harmfully affect passengers.

A

(5) The PIC of the aircraft shall ensure that—

(a)
breathing oxygen is available to crew members and passengers if flights in a non-pressurised aircraft are contemplated above 10 000 ft and up to 12 000 ft in excess of 120 minutes intended flight time, or above 12 000 ft; and

(b)
breathing oxygen is carried in sufficient quantities for all flights at such altitudes where a lack of oxygen might result in impairment of faculties of crew members or harmfully affect passengers.

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8
Q

(1) No owner or operator of an aircraft shall conduct single-pilot operations in an aircraft under IMC or at night unless such aircraft has been certificated for single-pilot operations and—

(a)
the single pilot flying is equipped with a ______ with boom microphone or equivalent and has a transmit button positioned in such a way that it may be operated without the pilot having to remove his or her hands from the control wheel, joy stick or cyclic stick;

(b)
the aircraft is equipped with a means of displaying ____ that enables them to be readable in all ambient light conditions;

(c)
if the aircraft is flown under IMC, such aircraft has been certificated for single pilot IFR operations and is equipped with a serviceable automatic flight control system with at least _____ hold and heading mode; or

(2) Nothing in this regulation shall be construed as meaning that a flight under IFR or at night for the purpose of flight instruction conducted by an appropriately rated flight instructor would be a single-pilot operation, or that such a training flight, if conducted in terms of any of the Parts 93, 121, 127 or 135 would be required to be operated by two qualified pilots.

A

(1) No owner or operator of an aircraft shall conduct single-pilot operations in an aircraft under IMC or at night unless such aircraft has been certificated for single-pilot operations and—

(a)
the single pilot flying is equipped with a headset with boom microphone or equivalent and has a transmit button positioned in such a way that it may be operated without the pilot having to remove his or her hands from the control wheel, joy stick or cyclic stick;

(b)
the aircraft is equipped with a means of displaying charts that enables them to be readable in all ambient light conditions;

(c)
if the aircraft is flown under IMC, such aircraft has been certificated for single pilot IFR operations and is equipped with a serviceable automatic flight control system with at least altitude hold and heading mode; or

(d)
in the case of a helicopter, if it is flown at night under VMC, such helicopter is equipped with a serviceable automatic flight control system with at least altitude and heading mode or similar equipment: Provided that this requirement shall not apply to a helicopter operated in the circuit of the aerodrome of departure or over densely populated, well-lighted areas in accordance with the provisions of subregulation 91.06.32 (2) but not higher than 3 500 ft above the prescribed minimum height.
(2) Nothing in this regulation shall be construed as meaning that a flight under IFR or at night for the purpose of flight instruction conducted by an appropriately rated flight instructor would be a single-pilot operation, or that such a training flight, if conducted in terms of any of the Parts 93, 121, 127 or 135 would be required to be operated by two qualified pilots.

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9
Q

(1) No owner or operator of a pressurised aircraft shall operate the aircraft unless such aircraft is equipped with the supplemental oxygen as prescribed in Document SA-CATS 91 and such oxygen may be used continuously whenever the circumstances for which its supply has been prescribed prevail.
(2) No owner or operator of a pressurised aircraft shall operate the aircraft above __ 000 ft unless all flight crew members have available at their flight duty station a quick-donning type of oxygen mask which will readily supply oxygen upon demand.

A

(1) No owner or operator of a pressurised aircraft shall operate the aircraft unless such aircraft is equipped with the supplemental oxygen as prescribed in Document SA-CATS 91 and such oxygen may be used continuously whenever the circumstances for which its supply has been prescribed prevail.
(2) No owner or operator of a pressurised aircraft shall operate the aircraft above 25 000 ft unless all flight crew members have available at their flight duty station a quick-donning type of oxygen mask which will readily supply oxygen upon demand.

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10
Q

ACAS:

(1) Except as otherwise provided for in Part 121 and Part 135, no person may operate a ____-engine aeroplane of a maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of __ 000 kg or authorised to carry more than __ passengers, for which the individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued after 1 January 2007, unless such aeroplane is equipped with an ACAS that meets the specifications prescribed in Document SA-CATS 91.
(2) No person shall operate an aeroplane required to be equipped with ACAS unless he or she has completed the training and checking as specified in Document SA-CATS 91.
(3) ACAS training shall be provided through an approved training programme.
(4) Whenever an aircraft is equipped with an ACAS, such system shall—

(a)
meet the specifications in, and function in accordance with, the relevant provisions of Document SA-CATS 91; and

(b)
when serviceable, be activated at all times during flight in all airspace, including oceanic, international, foreign and domestic airspace, even if in terms of these regulations the carriage of ACAS equipment is not compulsory for that particular type of aircraft or the type of operation.
(5) Whenever an ACAS becomes unserviceable during flight when operation of ACAS is mandatory, the PIC of that aeroplane shall inform the responsible ____ as soon as is practical.
(6) No pilot may act as PIC of a South African-registered aircraft during any period while an ACAS is activated unless such pilot is ACAS-_____.
(7) When a flight crew receives a traffic avoidance instruction from an ATSU that is in conflict with the resolution advisory message issued by the aircraft’s approved ACAS, the ACAS resolution advisory takes _____ over the ATSU instruction.
(8) Document SA-CATS 91 contains instructions in respect of ACAS operational use and event reporting.
(9) For the purpose of this regulation, an ACAS-current pilot means a pilot who—

(a)
within the immediately preceding __ months, completed initial ACAS II training;

(b)
within the immediately preceding _ years, completed initial ACAS training and subsequently completed ACAS II renewal training more than _ months and less than __ months after the earlier training; or

(c)
within the immediately preceding __ months, completed a session of ACAS II cyclic training.

A

(1) Except as otherwise provided for in Part 121 and Part 135, no person may operate a turbine-engine aeroplane of a maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of 15 000 kg or authorised to carry more than 30 passengers, for which the individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued after 1 January 2007, unless such aeroplane is equipped with an ACAS that meets the specifications prescribed in Document SA-CATS 91.
(2) No person shall operate an aeroplane required to be equipped with ACAS unless he or she has completed the training and checking as specified in Document SA-CATS 91.
(3) ACAS training shall be provided through an approved training programme.
(4) Whenever an aircraft is equipped with an ACAS, such system shall—

(a)
meet the specifications in, and function in accordance with, the relevant provisions of Document SA-CATS 91; and

(b)
when serviceable, be activated at all times during flight in all airspace, including oceanic, international, foreign and domestic airspace, even if in terms of these regulations the carriage of ACAS equipment is not compulsory for that particular type of aircraft or the type of operation.
(5) Whenever an ACAS becomes unserviceable during flight when operation of ACAS is mandatory, the PIC of that aeroplane shall inform the responsible ATSU as soon as is practical.
(6) No pilot may act as PIC of a South African-registered aircraft during any period while an ACAS is activated unless such pilot is ACAS-current.
(7) When a flight crew receives a traffic avoidance instruction from an ATSU that is in conflict with the resolution advisory message issued by the aircraft’s approved ACAS, the ACAS resolution advisory takes priority over the ATSU instruction.
(8) Document SA-CATS 91 contains instructions in respect of ACAS operational use and event reporting.
(9) For the purpose of this regulation, an ACAS-current pilot means a pilot who—

(a)
within the immediately preceding 12 months, completed initial ACAS II training;

(b)
within the immediately preceding two (2) years, completed initial ACAS training and subsequently completed ACAS II renewal training more than 9 months and less than 12 months after the earlier training; or

(c)
within the immediately preceding 12 months, completed a session of ACAS II cyclic training.

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11
Q

TAWS:

(1) Within six months from the commencement of these regulations, a _____-engine aeroplane of a maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of _____ kg or authorised to carry more than _ passengers operating according to the IFR shall be equipped with a TAWS which has a predictive terrain avoidance function that meets the requirements specified in Document SA-CATS 91.
(2) A TAWS installed in turbine-engine aeroplanes of a maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of 5 700 kg or authorised to carry more than nine passengers for which the individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued after 1 January 2011 shall provide, as a minimum, warnings of at least the circumstances specified in Document SA-CATS 91.
(3) Except as provided in subregulation (4), each TAWS required by subregulation (1) shall be functioning properly prior to flight.
(4) An aircraft may be operated without a functioning TAWS—

(a)
as provided for in an approved __; or

(b)
if _____ cannot be effected at the aerodrome last operated into, the aircraft is flown by the most direct routing to the nearest facility where the repairs can be made.
(5) A TAWS shall automatically provide a timely and distinctive warning to the flight crew when the aeroplane is in potentially hazardous proximity to the earth’s surface.

A

(1) Within six months from the commencement of these regulations, a turbine-engine aeroplane of a maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of 5 700 kg or authorised to carry more than nine passengers operating according to the IFR shall be equipped with a TAWS which has a predictive terrain avoidance function that meets the requirements specified in Document SA-CATS 91.
(2) A TAWS installed in turbine-engine aeroplanes of a maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of 5 700 kg or authorised to carry more than nine passengers for which the individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued after 1 January 2011 shall provide, as a minimum, warnings of at least the circumstances specified in Document SA-CATS 91.
(3) Except as provided in subregulation (4), each TAWS required by subregulation (1) shall be functioning properly prior to flight.
(4) An aircraft may be operated without a functioning TAWS—

(a)
as provided for in an approved MEL; or

(b)
if repairs cannot be effected at the aerodrome last operated into, the aircraft is flown by the most direct routing to the nearest facility where the repairs can be made.
(5) A TAWS shall automatically provide a timely and distinctive warning to the flight crew when the aeroplane is in potentially hazardous proximity to the earth’s surface.

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12
Q

GNSS:

91.05.3 (1) No person shall operate an aircraft using a GNSS as a means of navigation unless—

(a)
the GNSS equipment meets the airworthiness criteria prescribed in Document SA-CATS 91;

(b)
all flight crew members required by regulation or the type certificate of the aircraft being flown have received the training and checking specified in Document SA-CATS 91; and

(c)
the procedures specified in Document SA-CATS 91 are followed.
(2) In order to fly published RNAV (GNSS) arrivals, departures and approach procedures; the PIC shall ensure that—

(a)
the air navigation routes to be flown are contained in the ______ of the aircraft; and

(b)
the information contained in the aircraft database is current.
(3) The PIC shall fly the instrument departure of a FMS equipped aircraft without the capability of manually setting the course direction indicator (CDI), with the aid of a flight director.
(4) Helicopter-only RNAV (GNSS) departure procedures shall be flown at 70 knots or less.
(5) Upon clearance for the approach by the appropriate ATSU, the pilot shall select the appropriate aerodrome, the runway approach procedure and the initial approach fix on the RNAV system to determine the validity of the ___ for such approach.

A

91.05.3 (1) No person shall operate an aircraft using a GNSS as a means of navigation unless—

(a)
the GNSS equipment meets the airworthiness criteria prescribed in Document SA-CATS 91;

(b)
all flight crew members required by regulation or the type certificate of the aircraft being flown have received the training and checking specified in Document SA-CATS 91; and

(c)
the procedures specified in Document SA-CATS 91 are followed.
(2) In order to fly published RNAV (GNSS) arrivals, departures and approach procedures; the PIC shall ensure that—

(a)
the air navigation routes to be flown are contained in the database of the aircraft; and

(b)
the information contained in the aircraft database is current.
(3) The PIC shall fly the instrument departure of a FMS equipped aircraft without the capability of manually setting the course direction indicator (CDI), with the aid of a flight director.
(4) Helicopter-only RNAV (GNSS) departure procedures shall be flown at 70 knots or less.
(5) Upon clearance for the approach by the appropriate ATSU, the pilot shall select the appropriate aerodrome, the runway approach procedure and the initial approach fix on the RNAV system to determine the validity of the RAIM for such approach.

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13
Q

RNAV/BARO VNAV SYSTEMS:

(1) No person may conduct RNAV/BARO vertical navigation (VNAV) operations unless approved by the Director in terms of the operational provisions specified in Document SA-CATS 91.
(2) An aircraft equipped with a RNAV/BARO VNAV system approved by the Director for the appropriate level of RNAV/BARO VNAV operations, may be used to conduct RNAV/BARO VNAV approaches if—

(a)
the RNAV/BARO VNAV equipment is serviceable;

(b)
the aircraft and aircraft systems are appropriately certified for the intended RNAV/BARO VNAV approach operations and the aircraft is equipped with an integrated LNAV system with an accurate source of barometric altitude; and

(c)
the VNAV altitudes and all relevant procedural and navigational information are retrieved from a current navigation _______ whose integrity is supported by approved appropriate quality assurance measures.

A
  1. 05.4 (1) No person may conduct RNAV/BARO vertical navigation (VNAV) operations unless approved by the Director in terms of the operational provisions specified in Document SA-CATS 91.
    (2) An aircraft equipped with a RNAV/BARO VNAV system approved by the Director for the appropriate level of RNAV/BARO VNAV operations, may be used to conduct RNAV/BARO VNAV approaches if—

(a)
the RNAV/BARO VNAV equipment is serviceable;

(b)
the aircraft and aircraft systems are appropriately certified for the intended RNAV/BARO VNAV approach operations and the aircraft is equipped with an integrated LNAV system with an accurate source of barometric altitude; and

(c)
the VNAV altitudes and all relevant procedural and navigational information are retrieved from a current navigation database whose integrity is supported by approved appropriate quality assurance measures.

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