AIP | IR Part 1 Flashcards
3) An IFR flight shall not be cleared to descend below the appropriate initial approach altitude as specified for a particular instrument approach unless:
a) The pilot has reported passing an appropriate point defined by a radio aid;or
b) The pilot reports that he/she has and can maintain ____ _____ with the aerodrome; or
c) The pilot is conducting a ____ approach; (The limit for a visual approach is __NM from the __________ aerodrome); or
d) The pilot is conducting an approach under RADAR vectors and control
3) An IFR flight shall not be cleared to descend below the appropriate initial approach altitude as specified for a particular instrument approach unless:
a) The pilot has reported passing an appropriate point defined by a radio aid;or
b) The pilot reports that he/she has and can maintain visual contact with the aerodrome; or
c) The pilot is conducting a visual approach; (The limit for a visual approach is 25NM from the destination aerodrome); or
d) The pilot is conducting an approach under RADAR vectors and control
VMC APPROACH:
When requested by the pilot and if so prescribed by the ATSU, an arriving aircraft may be cleared to descend below the initial approach ALT subject to maintaining by __;
a) own separation;
b) ___;
c) visual contact with the _________; and
d) by night-provided that there is no reduction of standard separation involved.
VISUAL APPROACH
An IFR flight may be cleared to execute a visual approach provided that the pilot can maintain visual reference to the _____ and;
a) the reported ceiling is at or above the approved ____ ________ ___ for the aircraft so cleared;
b) reasonable assurance exists that a visual approach and landing can be completed;
c) be within __ NM of the destination aerodrome
VMC APPROACH:
When requested by the pilot and if so prescribed by the ATSU, an arriving aircraft may be cleared to descend below the initial approach ALT subject to maintaining by day;
a) ownseparation;
b) VMC;
c) visual contact with the aerodrome; and
d) by night-provided that there is no reduction of standard separation involved.
VISUAL APPROACH
An IFR flight may be cleared to execute a visual approach provided that the pilot can maintain visual reference to the terrain and;
a) the reported ceiling is at or above the approved initial approach ALT for the aircraft so cleared;
b) reasonable assurance exists that a visual approach and landing can be completed;
c) be within 25 NM of the destination aerodrome
VFR radio com failure:
- squawk 7600
- Leave the controlled airspace by the shortest route possible
- Make one brief blind transmission to the ATSU he was in contact with
- Proceed to an uncontrolled airfield, adhere to normal joining procedures and radio calls prefixed with “transmitting blind”.
- phone ATC upon landing
If proceeding to a uncontrolled airfield is not possible:
- Continue to the controlled airfield
- Switch landing lights on
- Join overhead the field 1 000ft above circuit altitude and carefully observe traffic
- When safe join the circuit, preferably the downwind leg, and space himself from other aircraft.
- Make brief bild transmissions stating intentions and position
- Phone ATC upon landing
Noise Abatement Procedures:
Describe the difference between NADP 1 and NADP 2 -
NADP 1:
1) TAKE-OFF TO ____FT AGL
i) Take-off power/thrust
ii) Speed, climb at V_+__knots
2) AT ____FT AGL
i) Power/thrust reduction is initiated in accordance with the noise abatement power/ thrust schedule provided in the aircraft operating manual.
3) ___FT AGL TO _____FT AGL
i) Climb at V_+__ to __ knots
ii) Reduced power/thrust is maintained to 900M (3000FT)
iii) Maintain with flaps/slats in take-off configuration.
4) AT _____FT AGL
i) On reaching 900M (3000FT) maintain positive rate of climb.
ii) Accelerate smoothly to en-route climb speed
iii) Retract flaps/slats on schedule.
iv) In addition, all aircraft at or below FL___ will fly a maximum speed of ____KIAS. No jet aircraft are to use RWY or TWY intersection for take-off at any airport within South Africa between the hours of ____-0____.
NADP 2:
1) Take-off to ____FT AGL
i) Take-off power/thrust
ii) Speed, climb at V_+__ to __knots
2) At ___FT AGL
i) While maintaining a positive rate of climb, body angle reduced.
ii) Flaps/Slats are retracted on schedule
iii) Aircraft is accelerated towards VZF.
3) ___FT AGL to _____FT AGL
i) Power/Thrust is reduced during the flap/slat retraction sequence at a point that ensures satisfactory acceleration performance.
ii) At 3000FT AGL
iii) On reaching 900M (3000FT), transition smoothly to en-route climb speed.
NADP 1 is a noise reduction method in close proximity to the departure end of runway.
NADP 2 is a noise reduction method for areas more distant from the runway end.
NADP 1:
1) TAKE-OFF TO 800FT AGL
i) Take-off power/thrust
ii) Speed, climb at V2+10knots (V2+20km/h)
2) AT 800FT AGL
i) Power/thrust reduction is initiated in accordance with the noise abatement power/ thrust schedule provided in the aircraft operating manual.
3) 800FT AGL TO 3000FT AGL
i) Climb at V2+10 to 20km/h).
ii) Reduced power/thrust is maintained to 900M (3000FT)
iii) Maintain with flaps/slats in take-off configuration.
4) AT 3000FT AGL
i) On reaching 900M (3000FT) maintain positive rate of climb.
ii) Accelerate smoothly to en-route climb speed
iii) Retract flaps/slats on schedule.
iv) In addition, all aircraft at or below FL100 will fly a maximum speed of 250KIAS. No jet aircraft are to use RWY or TWY intersection for take-off at any airport within South Africa between the hours of 2000-0400.
NADP 2:
1) Take-off to 800FT AGL
i) Take-off power/thrust
ii) Speed, climb at V2+10 to 20knots (V2+20 to 40km/h)
2) At 800FT AGL
i) While maintaining a positive rate of climb, body angle reduced.
ii) Flaps/Slats are retracted on schedule
iii) Aircraft is accelerated towards VZF.
3) 800FT AGL to 3000FT AGL
i) Power/Thrust is reduced during the flap/slat retraction sequence at a point that ensures satisfactory acceleration performance.
ii) At 3000FT AGL
iii) On reaching 900M (3000FT), transition smoothly to en-route climb speed.
Radar facilities are established at the following ATC centres in South Africa(5):
- Cape Town
- Durban
- East London
- Johannesburg
- Port Elizabeth
Airports which provide SSR services(7):
- Cape town
- Durban
- George
- Johannesburg
- Bloemfontein
- Durban
- East London
Airports which provide SSR services(7):
- Cape town
- Durban
- George
- Johannesburg
- Bloemfontein
- Durban
- East London
The terms commonly used by radar controllers include the following:
- “Radar contact” or “Radar identified”
2. “Identified and under radar control”
The terms commonly used by radar controllers include the following:
Under which circumstance is ATC responsible for terrain clearance?
- “Radar contact” or “Radar identified”
- “Identified and under radar control”
“Identified and under radar control” - Radar control can only be given to an aircraft in controlled airspace and it follows, therefore, that once the aircraft leaves controlled airspace he will be notified by ATC that “radar service terminates”
State under what conditions an aircraft can continue flying or not continue with transponder failure prior and after departure:
Prior to departure and cannot repair locally:
- Proceed directly as possible to nearest aerodrome where repairs can be made
- Inform ATC as soon as possible, preferably before submission of a flight plan. When granting clearance to such aircraft, ATC may have to alter flight conditions.
- State failure in flight plan item 10
Failure after departure:
ATC will try to provide for continuation of the flight in accordance to the original flight plan, but may not be feasible. ATC may need to chance the flight conditions.
State under what conditions an aircraft can continue flying or not continue with transponder failure prior and after departure:
Prior to departure and cannot repair locally:
- Proceed directly as possible to nearest aerodrome where repairs can be made
- Inform ATC as soon as possible, preferably before submission of a flight plan. When granting clearance to such aircraft, ATC may have to alter flight conditions.
- State failure in flight plan item 10
Failure after departure:
ATC will try to provide for continuation of the flight in accordance to the original flight plan, but may not be feasible. ATC may need to chance the flight conditions.
Unless otherwise directed by ATC aircraft should use transponder code -
Upon landing code -
2000
2000
Unless otherwise directed by ATC aircraft should use transponder code -
Upon landing code -
2000
2000
While operating within South African Airspace all aircraft shall be equipped and operate a serviceable Mode _ and _ transponder to prevent occurrences of AIRPROX when;
a) Operating within or transiting any controlled or advisory airspace as listed in paragraph 2.3.3
b) Operating within _____FT above or below such controlled or advisory airspace;
c) Operating below and within _NM (vicinity) of defined lateral limits of controlled or advisory airspace boundaries;
d) Any other airspace where the operation of transponders have been prescribed by the Director of Civil Aviation
e) Recreational microlights, gliders, para gliders and hang gliders operating in the vicinity of any controlled airspace shall remain clear of all controlled airspace boundaries, while maintaining full radio communication and are exempt from clauses b and c of paragraph 2.3.2 until the entire paragraph 2.3.2 has been revised.
While operating within South African Airspace all aircraft shall be equipped and operate a serviceable Mode _ and _ transponder to prevent occurrences of AIRPROX when;
a) Operating within or transiting any controlled or advisory airspace as listed in paragraph 2.3.3
b) Operating within 2000FT above or below such controlled or advisory airspace;
c) Operating below and within 5NM (vicinity) of defined lateral limits of controlled or advisory airspace boundaries;
d) Any other airspace where the operation of transponders have been prescribed by the Director of Civil Aviation
e) Recreational microlights, gliders, para gliders and hang gliders operating in the vicinity of any controlled airspace shall remain clear of all controlled airspace boundaries, while maintaining full radio communication and are exempt from clauses b and c of paragraph 2.3.2 until the entire paragraph 2.3.2 has been revised.
