Paper 1 Exam Question Practice Flashcards

1
Q

which joints do the following muscles act on?

illiopsoas
latissimus dorsi

A

hip
shoulder

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2
Q

Describe the terms active and passive in reference to SALTAPS

2 marks

A

active - ask performer to move body part without assistance

passive - someone else moved injured body part

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3
Q

outline what is meant by the term exercise induced muscle damage and describe a sporting situation that may cause it

A

microscopic tears in muscles
plyometrics

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4
Q

give a practical example of sagittal plane of movement

A

front somersault in gymnastics

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5
Q

give a practical example of transverse plane of movement

A

pirouette in dance

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6
Q

identify the following at the elbow driving the upward phase of press-up;

movement
agonist
contraction
antagonist

A

extension
biceps brachii
concentric
triceps brachii

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7
Q

describe 4 mechanisms of venous return that maintain blood flow back to the heart

A

pocket valves
smooth muscle
muscle pump
gravity
respiratory pump

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8
Q

explain why the minute ventilation of the trained athlete is lower at rest than an untrained athlete

3 marks

A
  1. More efficient gas exchange at alveoli
  2. More efficient transport of oxygen
  3. More efficient use of oxygen at muscles
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9
Q

tidal volume changes during exercise describe the role of proprioreceptors in this

3 marks

A
  1. proprioreceptors detect increase in motor activity
  2. send message to the RCC
  3. which increases stimulation of diaphragm
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10
Q

tidal volume changes during recovery describe the role of proprioreceptors in this

2 marks

A
  1. proprioreceptors detect movement has stopped
  2. reduces stimulation of diaphragm
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11
Q

describe intermittent hypoxic training

A

interval training
under low oxygen concentrations

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12
Q

identify a benefit of intermittent hypoxic training

A

increased red blood cells

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13
Q

identify a risk of intermittent hypoxic training

A

disruption of training

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14
Q

Explain how age may account for differences in VO2 max inbetween two athletes

A
  1. from early 20s onwards VO2 max decreases
  2. Due to reduced elasticity in heart
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15
Q

Explain how gender may account for differences in VO2 max between two athletes

2 marks

A
  1. females tend to have lower VO2 max
  2. due to small lung volumes
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16
Q

Outline the timing and main objectives of the preparatory phase and apply it to a sport of your choice

Timing

Objective 1

Objective 2

A

Timing: 6-12 weeks before start of competition season

Objective 1: general conditioning - running to improve cardiovascular endurance

Objective 2: sport specific training - football passing drills

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17
Q

Outline the timing and main objectives of the transition phase and apply it to a sport of your choice

Timing

Objective 1

Objective 2

A

Timing: 4-6 weeks after competition season

Objective : recovery - time off

Objective 2: low intensity aerobic work - swimming

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18
Q

Explain two extrinsic risk factors that may cause injury during sport (point and example)
4marks

A

Poor technique
e.g. poor lifting technique in the gym

Incorrect equipment
e.g. cycle helmet does not fit

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19
Q

Identify three factors that affect stability of a gymnast

A

centre of mass
position of line of gravity
size of area of support

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20
Q

A footballer is practicing free kicks. After contact one ball travels in a straight line and another swerved right.
Explain the effect of the application of force on the resulting motion of each ball in flight.

4 marks

A
  1. Ball travelling in straight line has linear motion
  2. (application of) a direct force / through CoM
  3. Swerving ball has angular motion
  4. (application of) torque not through CoM
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21
Q

An ice skater spins about their longitudinal by generating angular momentum. Use Newtons 1st law to explain how they can increase their rate of spin

4 marks

A
  1. Skater brings arms or legs in (close to longitudinal axis of rotation)
  2. Reducing moment of inertia
  3. Increasing angular velocity
  4. AM=MIxAV
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22
Q

Explain how a ski jumper can apply Bernoullis principle to maximise the distance travelled through the air.

5 marks

A
  1. Ski jumper adopts an aerofoil shape
  2. Creates an angle of attack 17°
  3. Air travels further over top of ski jumper
  4. Air travels faster over top of ski jumper
  5. creates a pressure gradient
  6. Air moves from area of high to low pressure
  7. Lift force created
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23
Q

Explain the term ‘excess post excercise consumption’ (EPOC)
3 marks

A
  1. (additional) volume of oxygen needed to return body to pre-exercise state
  2. alactacid and lactacid
  3. aerobic energy production during recovery
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24
Q

Describe a situation in a team game when explosive strength and aerobic capacity will be used
2 marks

A

aerobic - football player jogging around in defence tracking the ball
explosive - footballer sprinting up the wing

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25
Q

Describe linear motion

A

movement of a body in a straight line and all parts move the same distance, in the same direction at the same time

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26
Q

Describe angular motion

A

movement of a body in a circular path about an axis of rotation

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27
Q

The units for displacement are…

A

metres

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28
Q

The units for acceleration are

A

m/s/s

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29
Q

Define stroke volume and give a typical resting value for a trained athlete

A

volume of blood pumped out left ventricle per beat
80-120ml

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30
Q

Fill in the blanks for the downward phase of the pull up
movement:
agonist:
type of contraction:

A

extension
biceps brachii
eccentric

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31
Q

Fill in the blanks for the upward phase of the pull up
movement:
agonist:
type of contraction:

A

flexion
biceps brachii
concentric

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32
Q

Explain why heart and respiratory rates remain above resting levels during the slow component of EPOC
4 marks

A
  1. Lactacid (debt )component
  2. Extra/additional oxygen needed
  3. For removal of lactic acid
  4. that is transported in the blood
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33
Q

Describe the short term effects of performing at high latitude on the cardiovascular system
2 marks

A
  1. Increased heart rate
  2. Decreased stroke volume
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34
Q

Describe the short term effects of performing at high latitude on the respiratory system
2 marks

A
  1. Increased tidal volume
  2. Increases breathing rate
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35
Q

Describe the use of direct gas analysis as a method of evaluating aerobic capacity
5 marks

A
  1. Performer cycles
  2. Increasing intensity
  3. To exhaustion
  4. Mask is worn to collect expired air
  5. Expired air is analysed
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36
Q

Explain the impact of regular exercise on the lifestyle diseases is coronary heart disease and asthma
4 marks

A

CHD
1. Reduces cholesterol
2. Prevents build up of fatty deposits
ASTHMA
1.Increases strength of respiratory muscles
2. Increases surface area of alveoli

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37
Q

During a netball match a player gets an ankle injury. The coach asses them using SALTAPS and suspects a sprain.

Describe the treatment the coach should apply to the injury. 5 marks

A
  1. Protect the ankle using a splint
  2. Rest the ankle by not applying weight
  3. Ice the ankle by cold therapy to reduce swelling
  4. Compression of ankle using bandage
  5. Elevate the ankle above heart level
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38
Q

Explain the difference between the free body diagrams of a parabolic and non parabolic flight path

4 marks

A
  1. parabolic has heavier weight
  2. in parabolic W is greater than AR
  3. non parabolic has greater AR
  4. in non parabolic AR is greater than W
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39
Q

Identify the factors other than mass that impact on the air resistance of a ball in flight

4 marks

A

velocity
frontal cross sectional area
shape
surface

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40
Q

Explain balanced force using a practical example
2 marks

A
  1. Two or more forces acting are equal in size and opposite in direction
  2. a runner at constant velocity
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41
Q

Explain unbalanced force using a practical example
2 marks

A
  1. Two or more forces are not equal in size
  2. tennis serve
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42
Q

angular velocity is…..
it is calculated by…
its units is…

3 marks

A

Rate of change in angular displacement
AV = Angular displacement ÷ time
rad/s

43
Q

When a right handed golfer hooks a shot the ball deviates to the left. Explain how the golfer creates a hook shot and it’s effect on the flight path.
4 marks

A
  1. applies on off centre force
  2. causing side spin
  3. air flows faster on left of ball
  4. creating lower pressure on left
44
Q

How does velocity effect air resistance?

1 mark

A

as velocity increases AR increases

45
Q

How does frontal cross sectional area effect air resistance?

1 mark

A

as frontal cross sectional area increases AR increases

46
Q

How does shape affect air resistance?

1 mark

A

the more streamlined the sHaPe the less AR

47
Q

Identify 2 effects which excercise in the heat can have on the cardiovascular system.

2 marks

A

two from:
1. Increased heart rate/ cardiovascular drift
2. (vaso)dilation of arteries/arterioles to skin or increased blood flow to skin
3. decreased blood volume/cardiac output or increased blood viscosity or reduced
plasma volume
4. decreased stroke volume
5. decreased venous return
6. reduced oxygen/oxygenated blood to muscles

48
Q

Identify the predominant energy system used in an elite level performance for the followong ativities:

100m freestyle completed in 50 secs…
gymnastics vault….

2 marks

A

lactic acid system
ATP - PC system

49
Q

Identify a technology used in performance analysis to:

improve streamlining of an object….
evaluate human movement in 3D…

2 marks

A

wind tunnels
limb kinematics

50
Q

Explain how a motor unit is stimulated to cause muscular contraction

3 marks

A

Three marks from:
1. (Nerve) impulse travels down the axon
2. Action potential
3. Release of sodium/NA+ (ions) causes depolarisation
4. neurotransmitter/acetylcholine/ACh is secreted/ transmits impulse
5. impulse crosses synaptic cleft
6. If the impulse/stimulus/charge/action potential is above threshold
7. all muscle fibres in motor unit will contract (or not at all) or ‘all or none’ law applies

51
Q

Describe the predominant energy system which resynthesises ATP while performing long jump in athletics

5 marks

A

Five marks from:
1. ATP-PC system is used
2. it is a coupled reaction
3. PC –> P + C + energy
4. energy + P + ADP –> ATP
5. this is an anaerobic reaction
6. catalysed by creatine kinase
7. 1 molecule of ATP per PC

52
Q

Evaluate the effectiveness of the ATP-PC system

4 marks

A

pros:
1. no fatiguing by products produced
2. no delay to wait for oxygen
3. quick reactions
cons:
4. low ATP yield

53
Q

Explain why knowledge of excess post exercise consumption is beneficial to an 800m runner when planning a session

4 marks

A

Four marks from:
1. EPOC restores PC and removes lactic acid
2. Warm up to reduce oxygen deficit/delay OBLA
3. Cool down/active recovery to speed up removal of lactic acid
4. (Reduce EPOC by) monitoring intensity of training to delay OBLA
5. Use of cooling aids/ice baths to speed up recovery/ reduce EPOC

54
Q

Outline the physical implications of a warm up that would be beneficial to a games player before the match

4 marks

A

Four marks from:
1. Increased HR to increase blood flow to muscles
2. Vascular shunt to increase blood flow to muscles
3. Increased minute ventilation to increase O2 for gaseous exchange
4. Increased enzyme activity
5. Activates neural pathways

55
Q

Critically evaluate the use of cooling aids as a means of performance enhancement

4 marks

A

Four marks from:
Positives:
1. Reduce (core body) temperature
2. Reduce thermal strain
3. Reduce cardiovascular drift
4. Causes vasoconstriction to reduce blood flow
5. Treat injuries to reduce pain/swelling/inflammation
6. (after use) vasodilation/increases blood flow to aid removal of LA
Negatives:
7. Hard to perceive exercise intensity/can lead to over-exertion
8. Can mask/complicate injuries
9. Can cause (ice) burns or nerve/tissue damage
10. Can be dangerous for performers with heart conditions

56
Q

Define static flexibility and give a practical example of how it benefits performance

2 marks

A
  1. (static) ROM about a joint without movement
  2. (e.g.) to be able to do the splits in the gymnastics well means that they will gain more marks
57
Q

Define dynamic flexibility and give a practical example of how it benefits performance

2 marks

A
  1. (dynamic) ROM about a joint with reference to speed of movement
  2. (e.g.) goalkeeper can reach further
58
Q

Explain the use of PRICE to manage a hamstring injury in a triple jumper

5 marks

A

Protect - to prevent further damage
Rest - To allow sufficient time to repair/recover
Ice - to reduce swelling/pain/inflammation
Compression - Use a bandage to reduce swelling
Elevate - elevate above heart height to reduce blood flow to the area

59
Q

Explain how increased enzyme activity helps to delay the onest of blood lactate accumulation (OBLA)

1 mark

A

increases efficiency of the ATP-PC system

60
Q

Explain how increased mitochondrial density helps to delay the onest of blood lactate accumulation (OBLA)

1 mark

A

increases aerobic respiration

61
Q

Explain how increased buffering capacity helps to delay the onest of blood lactate accumulation (OBLA)

1 mark

A

there is greater tolerance to lactic acid

62
Q

A gymnast performs a handstand. Identify the vertical forces acting on the gymnast and explain their relationship during the handstand

3 marks

A
  1. The forces are weight and reaction force
  2. The weight = the reaction force
  3. the forces are equal in size abd are in opposite directions
63
Q

Define angular motion and explain how it is generated to produce a somersalt

2 marks

A
  1. Angular motion is the movement of a body in a circular pathway about an axis of rotation
  2. The force is appled outside the centre of mass
64
Q

Explain the three factors that affect the horizontal distance of a shot put in flight

3 marks

A
  1. angle of release - just less than 45 degrees is optimal
  2. speed of release - the greater the speed of release the further the shot travels
  3. height of release - the greater the release height the greater the distnace travelled
65
Q

Explain the shape of a shot puts flight path

3 marks

A
  1. parabolic flight path
  2. where weight is dominant as mass is high
  3. and air resistance is low
66
Q

Explain how conduction system of the heart controls diastole

2 marks

A
  1. atria and ventricles relax and refill with blood
  2. due to no electrical impulse
67
Q

Identify the processes that occur during the fast component of EPOC

2 marks

A
  1. phosphocreatine stores are replenished
  2. resynthesis of ATP
68
Q

Performers compare energy expenditure to energy intake to manage body weight.

Describe two factors that performers use to work out daily expenditure

2 marks

A
  1. basal metabolic rate - the minimum amount of energy required to sustain body function at rest
  2. physical energy expenditure - the energy expended to perform activity
69
Q

Describe how the use of the wind tunnel could help an elite track cyclist to enhance performance

2 marks

A
  1. to collect data about the bike
  2. to optomise aerodynamics of helmets
70
Q

Assess how changes in the pressure gradient affect oxygen diffusion at the working muscles during exercise

4 marks

A
  1. gradient is steeper
  2. pO2 in working muscles is lower
  3. diffusion to muscles is faster
  4. more O2 diffuses into the muscle
71
Q

Assess how dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin affect oxygen diffusion at working muscles during exercise

4 marks

A
  1. Bohr shift occurs
  2. there is an increase in CO2
  3. causing reduced affinity of haemoglobin
  4. so more O2 is available for diffusion to muscle
72
Q

Describe the physiologoical processes of acclimatisation to altitude

2 marks

A

any 2 from:
1. increased release of EPO
2. increased red blood cell production
3. increased capillarisation
4. decreased altitude sickness

73
Q

Give one potential benefit of taking anabolic steroids

1mark

A

increased muscle mass
increased maximal strength
increased speed of recovery

74
Q

Give one potential risk of taking anabolic steroids

1 mark

A

hormonal imbalance
liver damage
increased blood pressure

75
Q

What are the strength training guidelines?

resistance:
repetitions:
sets:

3 marks

A

50-75% of 1 rep max
15-30 reps
3-6 sets

76
Q

Explain how the physiological adaptions from strength training may benefit a marathon runner

4 marks

A
  1. muscular hypertrophy
  2. increased recruitment of muscle fibres
  3. increased ATP store
  4. increased lactic acid tolerance
77
Q

Evaluate isometric stretching as a method to improve flexibility

4 marks

A

Advantages
1. developmental - effective at increasing resting length of muscle
2. less risk of injury compared to ballistic stretching

Disadvantages
3. risk of tendon damage
4. unsuitable for use in a warm up

78
Q

Describe the use of surgery to treat acute, hard tissue injuries

4 marks

A
  1. open surgery - an incision made to open a joint to access an injury
  2. relign fractures or dislocated bones
  3. use of plates to stabilise
  4. arthroscopy to access injury
79
Q

Explain using practical examples how force plates can be used to enhance sporting performance

5 marks

A
  1. to analyse gait e.g. improve marathon runner technique
  2. to analyse posture e.g. to improve persistent back pain of a rugby player
  3. to measure balance e.g. to improve performance of swimmer on the starting blocks
  4. for injury rehab e.g. to enhance footballers recovery after an ankle sprain
  5. to measure power e.g. to improve technique at take off for a high jumper
80
Q

A high jumper uses the Fosbury flop technique. Define centre of ass. Describe its changes in position at take off and during flight that maximise performance

6 marks

A
  1. COM is the point at which a body is balanced in all directions
    At take off:
  2. CoM is raised by lifting arms
  3. CoM stays inside the body
    During flight:
  4. high jumper rotates about CoM
  5. CoM is moved outside body by them arching back
  6. CoM passes under bar
  7. while jumper passes over
  8. enabling greater height to be achieved
81
Q

Describe three ways a performer can increase their acceleration during sport

3 marks

A
  1. increase force e.g. sprinter applies a greater force to blocks
  2. increase friction e.g. a long jumper wears spikes to increase friction with the ground
  3. reduce AR e.g. a speed cyclist adopts a streamlined shape to minimise AR
82
Q

What is meant by balanced force?
3 marks

A
  1. Two or more forces are equal
  2. NO change in motion
  3. constant velocity
83
Q

What is meant by unbalanced force?
3 marks

A
  1. Two forces acting on a body aren’t equal in size
  2. Change in motion
  3. Acceleration or deceleration
84
Q

Why would performers want to maximise friction?
3 marks

A
  1. to change direction
  2. to accelerate
  3. to decelerate
85
Q

A golfer hits a shot which causes the ball to deviate left. Explain how the golfer creates a hook shot and its effect on flight path

3 marks

A

any 3 from:
1. eccentic force applied to ball outside CoM
2. causes side spin
3. air flows faster on left of ball
4. creating lower pressure on left
5. air flows from high to low pressure
6. causing magnus effect

86
Q

State Bernpulii’s principle and apply it to the design of F1 cars

5 marks

A
  1. bernoulii’s principle states: the higher the velocity of air flow the lower the surrounding pressure
  2. car has inverted aerofoil shape
  3. angle of spoiler creates downward force
  4. air travells further under spoiler
  5. causing pressure to be lower under spoiler
  6. air travels at lower velocity
  7. casuing pressure to be higher above spoiler
87
Q

Describe intermittent hypoxic training

2 marks

A
  1. intervals of breathing air in low O2 and normal air
  2. using a mask
88
Q

Explain how carbs, fibre and vitamins are used during training and performance

3 marks

A
  1. carbs provide energy for training
  2. vitamins are essential functions for health which means training is not disrupted by illness
  3. fibre is needed for digestive health which means they absorb more nutrients
89
Q

Compare creatine and bicarbonate as ergogenic aids to sports performance

4 marks

A
  1. both are legal
  2. creatine increases PC stores and increase max strength
  3. bicarb increases buffering capacity & strength endurance
  4. both nutritional aids
  5. have similair side effects
90
Q

Describe EPO and its use to performance

5 marks

A
  1. illegal
  2. increases RBCs
  3. increases aerobic capacity
  4. can cause CHD
  5. used by anaerobic athletes to improve recovery
91
Q

Describe HGH and its use to performance

5 marks

A
  1. illegal
  2. HGH causes muscular hypertrophy
  3. increases strength
  4. can cause cancer
  5. used by aerobic athletes to increase strength endurance
92
Q

Describe the process of glycogen loading

3 marks

A
  1. 7 days before reduce CHO intake
  2. 7-3 days before train at high intensity
  3. casuing glycogen depletion
  4. 3 days before taper training
  5. and high carb diet
93
Q

Why is HITT considered more effective than continuous training?

2 marks

A
  1. higher calorie consumption
  2. faster adaption to training than continuous
94
Q

define static strength and give a practical example
2 marks

A

the maximum force that can be applied against a resistance where movement is not taken into account e.g. crucifix on rings in gymnastics

95
Q

define dynamic strength and give practical example
2 marks

A

a force applied with movement occuring
e.g. throwing a javelin

96
Q

define max strangth and gice a practical example
2 marks

A

max force applied against a resistnace for 1 repetition
e.g. deadlift in weightlifting

97
Q

Describe a weight training session to improve strength endurance for a rugby player

4 marks

A
  1. use free weights
  2. perform reps of 50-75% of 1 rep max
  3. 15-30 reps and 3-6 sets
  4. work relief ratio 1:1 or 1:2
98
Q

Outline physiological adaptions of strength training

4 marks

A
  1. muscular hypertrophy
  2. increased recruitment of motor units
  3. increased enzyme activity
  4. delayed OBLA
99
Q

Describe 2 adaptions from training that have increased a performers flexibility

2 marks

A
  1. increased elasticity of connective tissue
  2. increased inhibition of stretch reflex
100
Q

Plan a dynamic flexibility programme to improve ROM for a performer

5 marks

A
  1. dynamic stretches use slow movements to take the joint through full ROM
  2. warm up - pulse raiser to raise HR
  3. lunges
  4. open and close the gate
  5. 3+ times per week
  6. 6-10 reps of each stretch
101
Q

Using a sport of your choice show how a performer would split 12 months of trauning into periodisation cycles

3 marks

A
  1. macrocycle - long term goal of 12 months e.g. swimmer gets a pb
  2. mesocycle - medium term goal of 1-4 months e.g. swimmer focuses on muscular endurance
  3. microcycle - short term goal of 1-4 weeks e.g. improving their tumble turn
102
Q

What is meant by ‘tapering’ in sport? Analyse its effectiveness for a sports performer

3 marks

A
  1. Reducing intensity of training prior to the event
  2. to ensure glycogen stores are full
  3. +ve - maximises energy stores
  4. -ve - worries about weight gain
103
Q

Explain the impact of regular exercise on the lifestyle diseases of coronary heart disease and asthma

4 marks

A

CHD:
1. reduced cholestrol
2. less fatty acid deposits
asthma:
3. increased surface area of alveoli
4. increased strength of respiratory muscles