(P) Week 4: WBC Functions and Kinetics Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the objective of the respiratory burst

A

form a reactive oxygen species (ROS) or singlet oxygen

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2
Q

NADPH oxidase will react with ___________ to allow the transfer of one electron to oxygen to create a singlet oxygen

A

NADPH substate

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3
Q

this is a superoxide free radical that is the byproduct of a biochemical reaction between NADPH oxidase and NADPH substrate

A

singlet oxygen

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4
Q

the superoxide free radical / singlet oxygen will be acted upon by either _____________ or ____________

A

superoxide dismutase (SOD)
myeloperoxidase (MPO)

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5
Q

What is the product of the reaction between the singlet oxygen and superoxide dismutase / myeloperoxidase

A

hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)

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6
Q

In the fenton reaction, H2O2 + Fe^3+ will be catabolized into?

A

hydroxyl compounds

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7
Q

In the halide reaction, H2O2 + Cl^- will be converted to ____________ with the action of myeloperoxidase.

A

Hypochlorous acid

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8
Q

other name for fenton reacton

A

Weiss reaction

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9
Q

H2O2 is toxic to human cells, which enzymes do WBCs use to convert it to a non toxic substance

A

catalase enzyme (that forms water and oxygen)
Glutathione oxidase

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10
Q

what pathway does the WBC use to convert H2O2 to a nontoxic substance?

A

pentose phosphate pathway

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11
Q

Singlet oxygen reacts with nitrous oxide to form?

A

peroxynitrite anion

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12
Q

Large organism such as parasitic larva or helminths that cannot be totally engulfed by
neutrophils are destroyed by the

A

eosinophil

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13
Q

NADPH is produced by the

A

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

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14
Q

How can nitrous oxide multiply in our blood?

A

by exposing our skin to the sunlight

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15
Q

what do people with chronic granulomatous disease lack?

A

NADPH oxidase

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16
Q

this byproduct of the oxidative burst may leak outside of our cells and form pus

A

hydrogen peroxide

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17
Q

what is the composition of pus

A

WBC and cellular debris

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18
Q

Cytoplasmic contents of the granulocytes and
monocytes

Nitric oxide
antibiotic proteins
azurophilic granules (peroxidase, lysozyme, acid hydrolase)
specific granules (lactoferrin and lysozyme)
tertiary granules (alkaline phosphatase)

A

neutrophil

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19
Q

Cytoplasmic contents of the granulocytes and
monocytes

major basic protein
arysulfatase
histaminase

A

eosinophil

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20
Q

Cytoplasmic contents of the granulocytes and
monocytes

histamine
prostaglandin
thromboxane
leukotrines
heparin
eosinophil chemotactic factor

A

basophil

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21
Q

Cytoplasmic contents of the granulocytes and
monocytes

hydrologic enzymes
reactive oxygen
metabolites (hydrogen peroxide, singlet oxygen, and hydroxyl radicals)

A

monocyte

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22
Q

source of iron for the fenton reaction, may cause anemia if this substance is always present

A

lactoferrin

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23
Q

this WBC is highly effective in killing worms by ingesting its integumentary system

A

eosinophil

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24
Q

this substance is released due to excessive eosinophil action

A

charcot leyden crystals

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25
Q

these are two features that allows eosinophils to bind to parasites

A

Fc recetors (binds to IgE)
complement receptor (bonds to complement protein)

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26
Q

what happens to the parasite after the eosinophil binds to it?

A

eosinophil creates a hole on its integumentary system, increasing membrane permeability

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27
Q

Why does increased membrane permeability kill parasites?

A

its osmotic balance will be thrown off

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28
Q

eosinophil may release chemicals which allows collagen deposition, causing ___________, if it occurs in the liver, it may obstruct its function

A

fibrosis

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29
Q

Large organism such as
parasitic larva or helminths that cannot be totally
engulfed by neutrophils are destroyed by the

A

eosinophil

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30
Q

plays a major role in immune
regulation by removing double-positive
developing lymphocyte or thymocytes within
the thymus tissue

A

WBC

EOSIN

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31
Q

regulates the allergic reaction by
releasing histaminase enzyme that neutralizes the
action of histamine which causes the symptoms of
allergy.

A

eosinophil

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32
Q

What does eosinophil produce that regulates the allergic reaction caused by histamine

A

histaminase enzyme

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33
Q

increased number of ____________ is associated with certain allergic disorders such as asthma, intestinal food allergy, allergic colitis, ulcerative colitis, and Chron’s disease

A

eosinophils

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34
Q

T or F

eosinophils can also act as antigen presenting cell and promotes the development of effector cells
during adaptive immunity

A

T

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35
Q

eosinophil influences the tissue survival and activity of the mast cells by releasing the ___________

A

nerve growth factor

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36
Q

WBC always associated with allergic or anaphylactic response

A

basophils

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37
Q

a severe allergic reaction

A

anaphylaxis

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38
Q

what do basophils and mast cells contain that’s responsible for the allergic reaction in our body?

A

histamine

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39
Q

what will be the consequences if histamine is released in our blood

A

increased vascular permeability
edema
anaphylactic shock (severe cases)
bronchoconstriction
pruritis

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40
Q

why do people with severe allergic reactions have difficulty breathing?

A

the edema on the entire body causes leakage of fluid in the lungs

or

bronchoconstriction (tightening of the airways)

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41
Q

type of antibody that binds to the basophil’s Fc receptor, causing anaphylactic shock

A

IgE

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42
Q

type of dose whenever there’s a lot of allergens in our body

A

challenging dose

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43
Q

the __________ of the IgE and the basophil will cause the latter to release histamine

A

cross-linking

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44
Q

WBC known to activate the T helper 2 (Th2) effector cell

A

basophil

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45
Q

the basophil needs the presence of _______ and ___________ to activate the T helper cell

A

CD40 ligand
Interleukins such as IL4

46
Q

This is responsible to activate the b cells for humoral immune response

A

T helper 2 effector cell

47
Q

This immune response’s main objective is to produce the antibodies that will be released in our plasma

A

humoral immune response

48
Q

T or F

mast cells are considered as leukocytes as they are tissue effector cells of allergic responses and inflammatory reactions

A

F (not considered as leukocytes)

49
Q

this will activate or attract eosinophils

A

Eosinophil chemotactic factor (ECF)

50
Q

This is a series of cell activation influenced by the release of
different cytokines known as interleukins

A

adaptive / acquired immunity

51
Q

chemical released by immunologic cells
which is responsible for growth, development, and differentiation of the targeted cells, they can also influence the maturation of hematopoietic cells that directs it to the proper order of development.

A

interleukins

52
Q

please please please study the process of the adaptive immunity

A

go na mahirap siya gawan ng cards

53
Q

two phases of the human immune response

A

primary immune response
secondary immune response

54
Q

what is the predominating antibody produced in the primary immune response

A

IgM immunoglobulin

55
Q

what is the predominating antibody produced in the secondary immune response

A

IgG antibody

56
Q

which of the two human immune response takes longer?

A

primary

57
Q

a “professional
phagocyte” has the capability to recognized wide
range of bacterial organisms using its toll-like
receptors.

also acts as a “scavenger cell” which makes it
effective in removing debris resulted from tissue
damage caused by trauma or infection

A

monocyte / macrophage

58
Q

to whom does the macrophage present the disintegrated antigens of pathogenic organisms

A

T helper cell

59
Q

what are the disintegrated antigens of pathogenic organisms called?

A

small antigenic peptides

60
Q

small antigenic peptides will migrate from
the __________ to the macrophages’ cell membrane
and binds with the MHC class ________ molecule
located on the surface of the cell.

A

cytoplasm , MHC class type II

61
Q

The mechanism on exactly how the
macrophages chooses what antigen to pick up is
still a mystery. The antigens are picked up
because of possible

A

ANTIGEN COMPLEXITY
or EXPOSURE

62
Q

it is the similarity
between macrophages, dendritic cells, and B-cells

A

MHC Type II proteins

63
Q

where does the development of the adaptive immunity occur?

A

secondary lymphoid organs

64
Q

T cells are differentiated or activated in 2 ways

A

antigen dependent
antigen independent

65
Q

eosinophil that migrated to tissue may survive for about how many days?

A

2-5 days

66
Q

what is the approximate life span of basophil

A

60 hours

67
Q

what is the origin of most of the basophil or mast cells?

A

spleen and bone marrow

68
Q

what is the lifespan of monocytes in circulation

A

approximately 3 days

69
Q

Special kind of macrophages which is located in the
lymph nodes and secondary lymphoid organs

A

dendritic cells

70
Q

CD markers

t helper cell

A

CD4+

71
Q

CD markers

T cytotoxic cell

A

CD8+

72
Q

CD markers

B cell

A

CD 19, 20, 21, 22

73
Q

CD markers

CALLA

A

CD 10

74
Q

CD markers

Low affinity IgG receptor

A

CD 16

75
Q

CD markers

NK cell

A

CD 16, 56

76
Q

T or F

there are 3 types of MHC but does not include MHC class type III

A

t Because it’s more of a complement protein

77
Q

MHC class type that’s present in all nucleated cells

A

MHC class type I

78
Q

Do mature RBCs have MHC class type I?

A

no because they do not have a nucleus

79
Q

remnants of MHC molecule in mature red cells is called

A

BENNETT-GOODSPEED
ANTIGEN

80
Q

what does MHC mean?

A

major histocompatibility

81
Q

what is the antigen comprising the MHC?

A

Human leukocyte antigen (HLA Ag)

82
Q

T or F

the human leukocyte antigen can only be found in the WBCs

A

F (scientists initially thought they were found on wbcs only)

83
Q

HLS Ags are the ones recognized by ______ for self recognition

A

t cells

84
Q

HLA molecules of MHC Class Type I are called

A

HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-C

85
Q

T or F

HLA are very complex molecules in our cells
which is different from each individual

A

T

86
Q

MHC class type that is present in the antigen presenting cells

A

MHC class type 2

87
Q

HLA present in MHC Class Type II is called

A

HLA-D

88
Q

What kind of binding happens in the cellular and humoral mediated method?

A

T-cell receptor + MHC class type II + CD4

89
Q

the lone source of IL2

A

t-helper

90
Q

a pivotal interleukin in the entire immune
system especially in the adaptive immunity
but it can also activate phagocytes and NK
cells

A

IL-2

91
Q

Cell-Mediated Immune Response is
activated by the ________ by releasing γ-Interferon
that will activate the T cytotoxic cell (Tc) or CD8+
lymphocyte.

A

Th1

92
Q

responsible for “cell-to-cell
combat” that causes cytotoxicity on a targeted cell
by releasing its cytoplasmic contents known as
perforin and granzymes

A

T cytotoxic cell

93
Q

Humoral Immune Response, the ______ releases
IL-4,5,6 and 2 to activate the B-cell to transform into
either B-memory cell or plasma cell.

A

Th2

94
Q

The __________cell’s function is to recognize
the same organism that a plasma antibody can
recognize

A

B-memory

95
Q

where are the b memory cells located?

A

secondary lymphoid organs

96
Q

T or F

the concentration of the antibody will always be
present in our plasma because of the lifetime
immunity

A

T

97
Q

match the biological function to the cytokine

  • moderator of immune tolerance
  • controls T regulator cells
  • Activation and growth of T helper and T cytotoxic cells
A

IL-2

98
Q

match the biological function to the cytokine

  • Production or proliferation of hematopoietic cells
A

IL-3

99
Q

match the biological function to the cytokine

  • growth and development of T cells and B cells
  • helps in megakaryocyte maturation
  • An acute phase reactant
A

IL-6

100
Q

match the biological function to the cytokine

  • used as negative feedback to inhibit macrophages and cytokine production
A

IL-10

101
Q

match the biological function to the cytokine

  • Th1 effector cell differentiation
A

IL-12

102
Q

match the biological function to the cytokine

  • T helper and T cytotoxic cell proliferation
  • Activates NK and Tc cell cytotoxicity
A

IL-15

103
Q

match the biological function to the cytokine

*Antiviral activity
*allows increased MHC molecules expression

A

y-IFN

104
Q

when will the first signal happen?

A

after binding of T-cell receptor, MHC II, and CD4

105
Q

Second / third / fourth signal

LFA-1 receptor binds to the ICAM-1 receptor for the antigen presenting cells

A

second

106
Q

Second / third / fourth signal

CD2 binds to LFA3

A

third

107
Q

Second / third / fourth signal

CD28 binds to CD80/80(B7)

A

fourth

108
Q

without one of the four signals, adaptive immunity will not proceed, this is called the

A

Immune responsiveness / tolerance

109
Q

what are the two ways that b cells are activated by?

A

T dependent
T independent

110
Q

what are the two groups under T independent B-cell activation?

A

*Ti-1 antigen & Ti-2 antigens
*complement components