(P) Week 4: WBC Functions and Kinetics Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the objective of the respiratory burst

A

form a reactive oxygen species (ROS) or singlet oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

NADPH oxidase will react with ___________ to allow the transfer of one electron to oxygen to create a singlet oxygen

A

NADPH substate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

this is a superoxide free radical that is the byproduct of a biochemical reaction between NADPH oxidase and NADPH substrate

A

singlet oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

the superoxide free radical / singlet oxygen will be acted upon by either _____________ or ____________

A

superoxide dismutase (SOD)
myeloperoxidase (MPO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the product of the reaction between the singlet oxygen and superoxide dismutase / myeloperoxidase

A

hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In the fenton reaction, H2O2 + Fe^3+ will be catabolized into?

A

hydroxyl compounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In the halide reaction, H2O2 + Cl^- will be converted to ____________ with the action of myeloperoxidase.

A

Hypochlorous acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

other name for fenton reacton

A

Weiss reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

H2O2 is toxic to human cells, which enzymes do WBCs use to convert it to a non toxic substance

A

catalase enzyme (that forms water and oxygen)
Glutathione oxidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what pathway does the WBC use to convert H2O2 to a nontoxic substance?

A

pentose phosphate pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Singlet oxygen reacts with nitrous oxide to form?

A

peroxynitrite anion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Large organism such as parasitic larva or helminths that cannot be totally engulfed by
neutrophils are destroyed by the

A

eosinophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

NADPH is produced by the

A

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How can nitrous oxide multiply in our blood?

A

by exposing our skin to the sunlight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what do people with chronic granulomatous disease lack?

A

NADPH oxidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

this byproduct of the oxidative burst may leak outside of our cells and form pus

A

hydrogen peroxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the composition of pus

A

WBC and cellular debris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Cytoplasmic contents of the granulocytes and
monocytes

Nitric oxide
antibiotic proteins
azurophilic granules (peroxidase, lysozyme, acid hydrolase)
specific granules (lactoferrin and lysozyme)
tertiary granules (alkaline phosphatase)

A

neutrophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Cytoplasmic contents of the granulocytes and
monocytes

major basic protein
arysulfatase
histaminase

A

eosinophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Cytoplasmic contents of the granulocytes and
monocytes

histamine
prostaglandin
thromboxane
leukotrines
heparin
eosinophil chemotactic factor

A

basophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Cytoplasmic contents of the granulocytes and
monocytes

hydrologic enzymes
reactive oxygen
metabolites (hydrogen peroxide, singlet oxygen, and hydroxyl radicals)

A

monocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

source of iron for the fenton reaction, may cause anemia if this substance is always present

A

lactoferrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

this WBC is highly effective in killing worms by ingesting its integumentary system

A

eosinophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

this substance is released due to excessive eosinophil action

A

charcot leyden crystals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
these are two features that allows eosinophils to bind to parasites
Fc recetors (binds to IgE) complement receptor (bonds to complement protein)
26
what happens to the parasite after the eosinophil binds to it?
eosinophil creates a hole on its integumentary system, increasing membrane permeability
27
Why does increased membrane permeability kill parasites?
its osmotic balance will be thrown off
28
eosinophil may release chemicals which allows collagen deposition, causing ___________, if it occurs in the liver, it may obstruct its function
fibrosis
29
Large organism such as parasitic larva or helminths that cannot be totally engulfed by neutrophils are destroyed by the
eosinophil
30
plays a major role in immune regulation by removing double-positive developing lymphocyte or thymocytes within the thymus tissue
WBC | EOSIN
31
regulates the allergic reaction by releasing histaminase enzyme that neutralizes the action of histamine which causes the symptoms of allergy.
eosinophil
32
What does eosinophil produce that regulates the allergic reaction caused by histamine
histaminase enzyme
33
increased number of ____________ is associated with certain allergic disorders such as asthma, intestinal food allergy, allergic colitis, ulcerative colitis, and Chron's disease
eosinophils
34
T or F eosinophils can also act as antigen presenting cell and promotes the development of effector cells during adaptive immunity
T
35
eosinophil influences the tissue survival and activity of the mast cells by releasing the ___________
nerve growth factor
36
WBC always associated with allergic or anaphylactic response
basophils
37
a severe allergic reaction
anaphylaxis
38
what do basophils and mast cells contain that's responsible for the allergic reaction in our body?
histamine
39
what will be the consequences if histamine is released in our blood
increased vascular permeability edema anaphylactic shock (severe cases) bronchoconstriction pruritis
40
why do people with severe allergic reactions have difficulty breathing?
the edema on the entire body causes leakage of fluid in the lungs or bronchoconstriction (tightening of the airways)
41
type of antibody that binds to the basophil's Fc receptor, causing anaphylactic shock
IgE
42
type of dose whenever there's a lot of allergens in our body
challenging dose
43
the __________ of the IgE and the basophil will cause the latter to release histamine
cross-linking
44
WBC known to activate the T helper 2 (Th2) effector cell
basophil
45
the basophil needs the presence of _______ and ___________ to activate the T helper cell
CD40 ligand Interleukins such as IL4
46
This is responsible to activate the b cells for humoral immune response
T helper 2 effector cell
47
This immune response's main objective is to produce the antibodies that will be released in our plasma
humoral immune response
48
T or F mast cells are considered as leukocytes as they are tissue effector cells of allergic responses and inflammatory reactions
F (not considered as leukocytes)
49
this will activate or attract eosinophils
Eosinophil chemotactic factor (ECF)
50
This is a series of cell activation influenced by the release of different cytokines known as interleukins
adaptive / acquired immunity
51
chemical released by immunologic cells which is responsible for growth, development, and differentiation of the targeted cells, they can also influence the maturation of hematopoietic cells that directs it to the proper order of development.
interleukins
52
please please please study the process of the adaptive immunity
go na mahirap siya gawan ng cards
53
two phases of the human immune response
primary immune response secondary immune response
54
what is the predominating antibody produced in the primary immune response
IgM immunoglobulin
55
what is the predominating antibody produced in the secondary immune response
IgG antibody
56
which of the two human immune response takes longer?
primary
57
a “professional phagocyte” has the capability to recognized wide range of bacterial organisms using its toll-like receptors. also acts as a “scavenger cell” which makes it effective in removing debris resulted from tissue damage caused by trauma or infection
monocyte / macrophage
58
to whom does the macrophage present the disintegrated antigens of pathogenic organisms
T helper cell
59
what are the disintegrated antigens of pathogenic organisms called?
small antigenic peptides
60
small antigenic peptides will migrate from the __________ to the macrophages’ cell membrane and binds with the MHC class ________ molecule located on the surface of the cell.
cytoplasm , MHC class type II
61
The mechanism on exactly how the macrophages chooses what antigen to pick up is still a mystery. The antigens are picked up because of possible
ANTIGEN COMPLEXITY or EXPOSURE
62
it is the similarity between macrophages, dendritic cells, and B-cells
MHC Type II proteins
63
where does the development of the adaptive immunity occur?
secondary lymphoid organs
64
T cells are differentiated or activated in 2 ways
antigen dependent antigen independent
65
eosinophil that migrated to tissue may survive for about how many days?
2-5 days
66
what is the approximate life span of basophil
60 hours
67
what is the origin of most of the basophil or mast cells?
spleen and bone marrow
68
what is the lifespan of monocytes in circulation
approximately 3 days
69
Special kind of macrophages which is located in the lymph nodes and secondary lymphoid organs
dendritic cells
70
CD markers t helper cell
CD4+
71
CD markers T cytotoxic cell
CD8+
72
CD markers B cell
CD 19, 20, 21, 22
73
CD markers CALLA
CD 10
74
CD markers Low affinity IgG receptor
CD 16
75
CD markers NK cell
CD 16, 56
76
T or F there are 3 types of MHC but does not include MHC class type III
t Because it's more of a complement protein
77
MHC class type that's present in all nucleated cells
MHC class type I
78
Do mature RBCs have MHC class type I?
no because they do not have a nucleus
79
remnants of MHC molecule in mature red cells is called
BENNETT-GOODSPEED ANTIGEN
80
what does MHC mean?
major histocompatibility
81
what is the antigen comprising the MHC?
Human leukocyte antigen (HLA Ag)
82
T or F the human leukocyte antigen can only be found in the WBCs
F (scientists initially thought they were found on wbcs only)
83
HLS Ags are the ones recognized by ______ for self recognition
t cells
84
HLA molecules of MHC Class Type I are called
HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-C
85
T or F HLA are very complex molecules in our cells which is different from each individual
T
86
MHC class type that is present in the antigen presenting cells
MHC class type 2
87
HLA present in MHC Class Type II is called
HLA-D
88
What kind of binding happens in the cellular and humoral mediated method?
T-cell receptor + MHC class type II + CD4
89
the lone source of IL2
t-helper
90
a pivotal interleukin in the entire immune system especially in the adaptive immunity but it can also activate phagocytes and NK cells
IL-2
91
Cell-Mediated Immune Response is activated by the ________ by releasing γ-Interferon that will activate the T cytotoxic cell (Tc) or CD8+ lymphocyte.
Th1
92
responsible for “cell-to-cell combat” that causes cytotoxicity on a targeted cell by releasing its cytoplasmic contents known as perforin and granzymes
T cytotoxic cell
93
Humoral Immune Response, the ______ releases IL-4,5,6 and 2 to activate the B-cell to transform into either B-memory cell or plasma cell.
Th2
94
The __________cell’s function is to recognize the same organism that a plasma antibody can recognize
B-memory
95
where are the b memory cells located?
secondary lymphoid organs
96
T or F the concentration of the antibody will always be present in our plasma because of the lifetime immunity
T
97
match the biological function to the cytokine * moderator of immune tolerance * controls T regulator cells * Activation and growth of T helper and T cytotoxic cells
IL-2
98
match the biological function to the cytokine * Production or proliferation of hematopoietic cells
IL-3
99
match the biological function to the cytokine * growth and development of T cells and B cells * helps in megakaryocyte maturation * An acute phase reactant
IL-6
100
match the biological function to the cytokine * used as negative feedback to inhibit macrophages and cytokine production
IL-10
101
match the biological function to the cytokine * Th1 effector cell differentiation
IL-12
102
match the biological function to the cytokine * T helper and T cytotoxic cell proliferation * Activates NK and Tc cell cytotoxicity
IL-15
103
match the biological function to the cytokine *Antiviral activity *allows increased MHC molecules expression
y-IFN
104
when will the first signal happen?
after binding of T-cell receptor, MHC II, and CD4
105
Second / third / fourth signal LFA-1 receptor binds to the ICAM-1 receptor for the antigen presenting cells
second
106
Second / third / fourth signal CD2 binds to LFA3
third
107
Second / third / fourth signal CD28 binds to CD80/80(B7)
fourth
108
without one of the four signals, adaptive immunity will not proceed, this is called the
Immune responsiveness / tolerance
109
what are the two ways that b cells are activated by?
T dependent T independent
110
what are the two groups under T independent B-cell activation?
*Ti-1 antigen & Ti-2 antigens *complement components