OTHER BLOOD GROUPS Flashcards

1
Q

what chromosome are the lewis genes on

A

19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what 3 sets of alleles control lewis ags

A

Lele, Sese, Hh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is produced if there is a Le gene inherited

A

Lea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what lewis alleles do not produce products

A

le, h, and se

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is produced if there is an Se gene

A

Leb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what lewis phenotype are nonsecrators

A

Le(a+b-)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

if someone is sese can they still have Lea present in body fluids

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what kind of lewis ags are found in secretions

A

glycoproteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what kind of lewis ags are found in plasma

A

glycolipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what kind of lewis ag do RBCs adsorb

A

glycolipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what gene produces fucosyltrnasferase

A

FUT3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what lewis phenotype cannot express the Leb phenotype

A

hh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the Bombay phenotype

A

hh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what do pregnant women have as a lewis phenotype

A

Le(a-b-)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what lewis phenotype do children have

A

Le(a+b+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

when can the correct lewis phenotype be obtained

A

2-3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what causes the loss of lewis ag expression on RBCs

A

abnormal lipid metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what lewis phenotype produces the most abs

A

Le(a-b-)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what kind of immunoglobulin are lewis abs

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what neutralizes lewis abs

A

lewis + plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the more common lewis abs

A

anti-Lea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what kind of anti-Leb ab reacts when both Leb and H ags are present

A

anti-LebH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what kind of anti-Leb ab reacts with Leb regardless of the ABO type

A

anti-LebL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

when does the lewis ab agglutinate

A

IS test phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

can lewis abs bind C’

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

if a pt’s lewis ab demonstrate hemolytic properties what kind of blood is given to them

A

Le ag neg blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what chromosome is the P1 ag on

A

22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what chromosome is the GLOBE gene on

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what gene produces the P ag

A

GLOBE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what chromosome is the Pk ag on

A

22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what P group ag is more common

A

P1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the null P phenotype

A

p

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what ags are expressed for P1k phenotype

A

P1 and pk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what abs are produced from P1k phenotype

A

anti-P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what ags are expressed for P2k phenotype

A

pk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

if the P1 ag is stored for a long time what happens to the ag strength

A

decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

where is anti-p1 found

A

serum of P2 people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what kind of immunoglobin is anti-P1

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what temp is best for anti-P1

A

low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what neutralizes anti-P1

A

hydrated cyst fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

who has anti-P

A

P1k phenotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what kind of immunoglobin are anti-P

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what temp is best for anti-P

A

body temp and room

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what kind of p group antibodies do paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria pt have

A

auto anti-P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

does auto anti-P bind C’

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

who has anti-Pk

A

p individuals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what inhibits anti-Pk

A

hydatid cyst fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

who has anti-P-P1-Pk

A

p individuals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what kind of immunoglobulin is anti-P-P1-Pk

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

does anti-P-P1-Pk bind C’

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what temp does anti-P-P1-Pk agglutinate

A

room temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what ab do people with encwinococcus granulosis tapeworm and bird handlers developed

A

anti-P1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what kind of chain do I ags have

A

branched

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what kind of chain do i ags have

A

straight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what I group ag do newborns have

A

i

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what I group ag do adults have

A

I

57
Q

I adult ag on cell = i ___ ag on cell

A

cord

58
Q

what is the term for someone with less amount I adult ag on cells

A

I intermediate

59
Q

is anti-I clinically significant

A

yes

60
Q

what kind of immunoglobin is anti- I

A

IgM

61
Q

what temp does anti- I react

A

RT

62
Q

what ab do pts with mycoplasma pneumoniae develop

A

cold auto anti-I

63
Q

what I group ab reacts with cord cells

A

anti-It

64
Q

what kind of infections are associated with anti-i ab

A

IM and Epstein-barr virus

65
Q

what kind of immunoglobin are MN

A

IgM

66
Q

what kind of immunoglobin are Ss and U

A

IgG

67
Q

what chromosome has genes that code for MNS

A

4

68
Q

what do GYPA and GYPB code for

A

glycophorin A and B

69
Q

what does GYP code for

A

M and N

70
Q

what does GPB code for

A

S and s

71
Q

does MNS ags show dosage

A

yes

72
Q

what destroys M and N

A

proteolytic enzymes

73
Q

where is U ag found

A

glycophorin B

74
Q

what other ag is always present when S and s are inherited

A

U

75
Q

T or F: U neg cells are very rare

A

T

76
Q

what MNS phenotype has partial or complete deletion of GPA

A

Ena

77
Q

what MNS phenotype has near-complete deletion of GYPA and GYPB

A

Mk

78
Q

does anti-M and anti-N bind C’

A

no

79
Q

where are kell ags located

A

on glycoprotein that is in RBC mmb

80
Q

what chromosome are kell ag located on

A

7

81
Q

what makes kell ags sensitive to treatment with sulfhydryl agents

A

they have a highly folded disulfide bonded region

82
Q

K=

A

kell

83
Q

k=

A

cellano

84
Q

what ag is expressed with this phenotype: Ko/Knull

A

Kx

85
Q

what chromosome is Kx gene located on

A

X chromosome

86
Q

what kind of immunoglobin are kell abs

A

IgG

87
Q

what chromosome is the Duffy blood group

A

1

88
Q

what Duffy. phenotype provides protection from malaria

A

Fy(a-,b-)

89
Q

what kind of malaria does Fy(a-,b-) protect against

A

P. vivax

90
Q

T or F: the Duffy ags do not show dosage

A

F

91
Q

what kind of immunoglobin are Duffy abs

A

IgG

92
Q

what chromosome are the Kidd blood group system located on

A

18

93
Q

what ags do Jka and Jkb alleles code for

A

Jk3

94
Q

what is the phenotype of JkJk

A

Jk(a-,b-)

95
Q

what blood group system do enzymes affect

A

Kidd

96
Q

Bg ag is on what cell

A

WBC

97
Q

The following phenotypes are written incorrectly except for:
a. Jk a +
b. Jka+
c. Jk a (+)
d. Jk(a+)

A

d

98
Q

Which of the following characteristics best describes Lewis antibodies?

A

IgM, naturally occurring, do not cause HDFN

99
Q

The Le gene codes for a specific glycosyltransferase that transfers a fucose to the N -acetylglucosamine on:

A

Type 1 precursor chain

100
Q

What substances would be found in the saliva of a group B secretor who also has Lele genes?

A

H, B, Le a , Le b

101
Q

Transformation to Le b phenotype after birth may be as

A

Le(a– b–) to Le(a+b–) to Le(a+b+) to Le(a– b+)

102
Q

in what way do lewis ag change during pregnancy

A

Lea and Leb both decrease

103
Q

A type 1 chain has:

A

The terminal galactose in a 1-3 linkage to subterminal N -acetylglucosamine

104
Q

Which of the following genotypes would explain RBCs typed as group A Le(a+b–)?

A

A/A Lele HH sese

105
Q

Anti-Le bH will not react or will react more weakly with which of the following RBCs?

A

Group A 1 Le(b+)

106
Q

Which of the following best describes MN antigens and antibodies?

A

Well developed at birth, susceptible to enzymes, generally saline reactive

107
Q

Which autoantibody specificity is found in patients with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria?

A

anti-P

108
Q

Which of the following is the most common antibody seen in the blood bank after ABO and Rh antibodies?

A

anti-K

109
Q

The null K o RBC can be artificially prepared by which of the following treatments?

A

DTT and glycine-acid EDTA

110
Q

Which antibody does not fit with the others with respect to optimum phase of reactivity?

A

anti-P1

111
Q

Which of the following Duffy phenotypes is prevalent in blacks but virtually nonexistent in whites?

A

Fy(a– b–)

112
Q

Antibody detection cells will not routinely detect which antibody specificity?

A

Anti-Kp a

113
Q

Antibodies to antigens in which of the following blood groups are known for showing dosage?

A

kidd

114
Q

Which antibody is most commonly associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions?

A

anti-Jka

115
Q

Anti-U will not react with which of the following RBCs?

A

M+N– S– s–

116
Q

A patient with an M. pneumoniae infection will most likely develop a cold autoantibody with specificity to which antigen?

A

I

117
Q

Which antigen is destroyed by enzymes?

A

Fya

117
Q

Which antigen is destroyed by enzymes?

A

Fya

118
Q

The antibody to this high-prevalence antigen demon- strates mixed-field agglutination that appears shiny and refractile under the microscope.

A

Sd a

119
Q

What red blood cell treatment can be used to differentiate between anti-D and anti-LW?

A

DTT

120
Q

Which of the following has been associated with causing severe immediate HTRs?

A

anti- Vel

121
Q

Which of the following antibodies would more likely be found in a black patient?

A

Anti-Cr a
Anti-At a
Anti-Hy

122
Q

Which of the following antigens is not in a blood group system?

A

LKE

123
Q

A weakly reactive antibody with a titer of 128 is neutralized by plasma. Which of the following could be the specificity?

A

anti-Ch

124
Q

An antibody reacted with untreated RBCs and DTT- treated RBCs but not with ficin-treated RBCs. Which of the following antibodies could explain this pattern of reactivity?

A

anti-Ch

125
Q

The following antibodies are generally considered clinically insignificant because they have not been associated with causing increased destruction of RBCs, HDFN, or HTRs.

A

Anti-Ch and anti-Kn a

126
Q

Which antigen is the receptor for Haemophilus influenza?

A

AnWj

127
Q

Which antigen is not absent or is weakened on RBCs of individuals with PNH?

A

Co a

128
Q

Which of the following blood groups is carried on a structure that helps to maintain the RBC membrane integrity through interaction with protein band 4.1?

A

Ge

129
Q

What is the name of the Knops system serologic null phenotype?

A

Helgeson

130
Q

Which antigen when absent produces a null in the Dombrock system?

A

Gy a

131
Q

Which antigens are strongly expressed on placental tissue, allowing for the adsorption of antibodies?

A

Cromer

132
Q

Which antigen was returned to the 901 series because there was no determined linkage to the SMIM1 gene?

A

ABTI

133
Q

The FORS blood group system was first thought to be part of what system due to the addition of N -acetylgalactosamine (GalNAc) to the P antigen?

A

ABO

134
Q

What glycophorin expresses the MN CHO collection antigens that are associated with altered levels of sialic acid (NeuNAc) or GlcNAc?

A

GPA

135
Q

What techniques can be used to remove the reactivity of Bg antigens?

A

EDTA/glycine-HCL, Platelet adsorption, and Chloroquine treatment

136
Q

ABTI was thought to be classified with which antigen prior to it gaining system status?

A

Vel

137
Q

The Jr(a–) phenotype is found more commonly in:

A

Japanese.