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CLS 306 > Lab > Flashcards

Lab Flashcards

1
Q

what part of the body does arthritis affect

A

joints

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2
Q

what kind of disease is RA

A

autoimmune disease

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3
Q

what hypersensitivity category is RA

A

Type III

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4
Q

who is more likely to get RA

A

women over 65

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5
Q

what Ab are present in RA

A

rheumatoid factor (IgM) and anti-ccp

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6
Q

what causes RA

A

inflammation

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7
Q

what are the early. signs of RA

A

joint stiffness and pain in small joints

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8
Q

what are the intermediate signs of RA

A

joint pain in bigger joints; limits motion

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9
Q

what are the late signs of RA

A

deformity and permanent joint dysfuntion

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10
Q

what is the treatment for RA

A

DMARDs (disease-modifying anti-thematic drugs)

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11
Q

how do they diagnosis RA

A

x ray

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12
Q

what lab test are used for RA

A

agglutination test, ELISA, chemiluminescence, and nephelometric methods

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13
Q

what causes a hemagglutination rxn in RF hemagglutination test

A

Rheumatoid factor mixed with sheep RBC

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14
Q

what kind of test are Elisa, immunoassay, or agglutination

A

Anti-CCP

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15
Q

what binds to a target antibody in the anti-ccp Elisa test

A

HPR antibody

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16
Q

what is measured in anti-ccp ELISA test

A

light frequency

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17
Q

what are the testing indicators for inflammation processes

A

ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate)
CPR (c reactive protein)
Complement components

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18
Q

what is a secondary result of mycoplasma pneumonia, infectious mononucleosis

A

cold agglutinins

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19
Q

def? autoantibodies that react with antigens on the RBC mmb at cold temps

A

cold agglutinins

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20
Q

what antibody class is cold agglutinins

A

IgM

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21
Q

T or F: the cold agglutinins rxn is reversible upon warm temps

A

T

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22
Q

what causes cold agglutinins Ab to be transient or chronic

A

production of cold agglutinin

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23
Q

what is caused when cold agglutinins activate the complement cascade to completion

A

intavascular hemolysis

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24
Q

what areas are affected in cold agglutinins

A

extremities

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25
Q

symptoms of cold agglutinins

A

blue discoloration, numbness, stiff, and slightly painful

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26
Q

testing for cold agglutinins in a hematology CBC diff smear what will been seen for a pos case

A

clumping

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27
Q

in a Cold agglutinin titer test which tube is used for titer

A

last visible agglutination

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28
Q

higher the titer the ____ clinically significant (cold agglutination)

A

more

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29
Q

what is known as the kissing disease

A

infectious mononucleosis

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30
Q

what are the symptoms of infectious mononucleosis for the first 2-4 weeks

A

fever
lymphadenopathy
and sore throat

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31
Q

what are the symptoms of infectious mononucleosis for months

A

muscle pain, fatigue

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32
Q

what does the treatment relive in infectious mononucleosis

A

symptoms

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33
Q

what is infectious mononucleosis caused by

A

epstein barr virus

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34
Q

what would you see on the tonsils of a pt with infectious mononucleosis

A

white pus

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35
Q

what would you see on the CBC of pt with infectious mononucleosis

A

atypical lymphs

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36
Q

is the mononucleosis slide assay qualitative or quantitative

A

both

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37
Q

what kind of blood is used for mononucleosis slide assay

A

horse

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38
Q

what is being looked for in the mononucleosis slide assay

A

heterophiles antibodies

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39
Q

what part of the mononucleosis slide assay is qualitative

A

mixing pt sample with reagent –> hemagglutination

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40
Q

what part of the mononucleosis slide assay is quantitative

A

serial dilutions and titrating the sample

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41
Q

def? the study of the fluid components in the blood especially AB

A

serology

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42
Q

def? the liquid portion of the blood minus the coagulation factors

A

serum

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43
Q

serum =

A

plasma - clotting factors

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44
Q

what are the 3 types of pipettes

A

volumetric , graduated, and micro

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45
Q

which kind of pipets delivers only one volume

A

volumetric

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46
Q

what kind of pipets have markings that allow you to deliver varying amounts of liquid

A

graduated

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47
Q

what kind of pipet delivers volumes in the microliter

A

micro

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48
Q

how do you use a volumetric pepette

A
  1. suck up liquid
  2. wipe off outside
  3. lower liquid to meniscus
  4. drain
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49
Q

what is often used to dilute concentrated samples

A

water or saline

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50
Q

def? the material being diluted

A

solute

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51
Q

def? the medium making up the rest of the solution

A

diluent

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52
Q

if it is 1:20 dilution what part is solute and what is diluent

A

1 part solute and 19 parts diluent

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53
Q

what kind of dilutions are large dilution (may not be all the same) done in several small steps

A

compound dilutions

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54
Q

what kind of dilutions are large dilution (all the same) done in several small steps

A

serial diutions

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55
Q

def? the conc of a solution as determined by titration

A

titer

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56
Q

what is sensitivity

A

people who have a specific disease with a pos test

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57
Q

what is specificity

A

people who do not have a disease with neg test

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58
Q

def? probability that a person with a pos screening test actually has the disease

A

positive predictive value

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59
Q

def? probability that a person with a neg screening test does not have the disease

A

negative predictive value

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60
Q

formula for sensitivity

A

true pos/tru pos + false neg x 100

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61
Q

formula for specificity

A

true neg/ true neg + false pos x 100

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62
Q

what kind of bacteria are long slender helically coiled containing axial filaments or periplasmic flagella

A

spirochetes

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63
Q

what kind of disease do spirochetes cause

A

skin infection

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64
Q

what is the most commonly acquired spirochete disease in the US

A

syphilis

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65
Q

what kind of spirochete causes syphilis

A

treponema pallidum

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66
Q

how is syphilis transferred

A

sexual (direct contact)

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67
Q

In the primary stage of syphilis what does a pt have

A

chancres on genitals

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68
Q

T or F: for women with primary stage syphilis it is easy for it to go unnoticed

A

T

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69
Q

what happens in the secondary phase of syphilis

A

organism spread to different parts of the body after chancre disappears

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70
Q

what stage of syphilis is characterized by a lack of symptoms

A

latent

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71
Q

true or false: pt in latent stage of syphilis are infectious

A

F

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72
Q

what stage of syphilis do pregnant women pass the disease to fetus

A

latent

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73
Q

what stage of syphilis has gummas, cardiovascular complications, and neurosyphilis

A

tertiary

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74
Q

what is congenital syphilis

A

women transmits syphilis to the fetus

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75
Q

what immune cells are present once skin is penetrated in syphilis

A

T cells and macrophages

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76
Q

what heals the primary chancre in syphilis

A

cytokines

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77
Q

what does t palladium do to delay immune response

A

coats itself with host proteins

78
Q

what can detect primary and secondary syphilis

A

dark field microscopy

79
Q

what uses fluorescent labeled antibody on t palladium

A

fluorescent antibody testing

80
Q

what is used to detect secondary or tertiary syphilis

A

serological testing

81
Q

what serological test determines the presence of an ab that forms cardiolipin

A

nontreponemal

82
Q

when is a treponemal test preformed

A

if nontreponemal test is pos

83
Q

what does trponemal test detect

A

ab to T. pallidium

84
Q

what rxn are VDRL and RPR nontreponemal test based on

A

flocculation

85
Q

def? specific type of precipitation that occurs over a narrow range of ag concentrations

A

flocculation

86
Q

what test is cardiolipin bound to charcoal particles

A

RPR test

87
Q

what stage of syphilis are 100% reactive in a treponemal test

A

secondary and latent

88
Q

t or f: once a pt is reactive on a treponemal test they are for the rest of their lives

A

T

89
Q

what kind of test are fluorescent treponemal ab absorption test and agglutination test

A

treponemal

90
Q

what is an example of ag-ab rxn test

A

hCG combo rapid test

91
Q

what do immunoassays detect

A

either ag or ab

92
Q

is the hCG combo rapid test qualitative or quantitative

A

qualitative

93
Q

what kind of sample is used for hCG combo rapid test

A

serum or urine

94
Q

what hormone do pregnant women have in serum or urine

A

hCG

95
Q

what produces hCG

A

developing placenta

96
Q

what is a good marker of early pregnancy

A

hCG

97
Q

what kind of immunoassay is hCG combo rapid test

A

rapid chromatographic

98
Q

what is immunochromatography based on

A

chromatography and immunochemical rxn

99
Q

what is the most common immunochromatographic system

A

test strip

100
Q

what are the 4 components of imminochromatography

A

sample application pad, conjugate pad, substrate mmb, and adsorbent pad

101
Q

function of the sample application pad

A

transport the sample to other components

102
Q

function of conjugate pad

A

place where labeled ab are dispensed

103
Q

function of substrate mmb

A

where test and control lines are drawn and provide good binding site for ab

104
Q

function of absorbant pad

A

maintains flow and stops back flow

105
Q

how long should you wait to read immunochromatography test

A

5 to 10 mins

106
Q

how is the result read on immunochromatography

A

color change

107
Q

in a sandwich assay what is on the conjugate pad

A

labeled ab

108
Q

what is a sandwich complex

A

primary ab with analyze labeled ab complex

109
Q

def? combo of soluble ag with soluble ab to produce insoluble complexes that are visable

A

precipitation

110
Q

def? initial force of attraction that exist between a single FAB site an epitope

A

affinity

111
Q

what determines the strength of affinity

A

specificity of an ab for a particular ag

112
Q

def? represents the overall strength of ag-ab binding and is the sum of affinities

A

avidity

113
Q

def? number of multi-talent sites of ag-ab are approximately equal

A

zone of equivalence

114
Q

what will form when it is the zone of equivalence

A

lattice formation

115
Q

what is more abundant at the prozone

A

ab

116
Q

what is more abundant at the postzone

A

ag

117
Q

when does light scattering occur

A

when lattice formations become so large that they precipitate out of solutions `

118
Q

how is light scattering measured

A

turbidity and nephelometry

119
Q

def? light scattered measured by turbidimetry as a reduction in light intensity

A

turbidimetry

120
Q

def? technique that measures the amount of light scattered at a particular angle

A

nephelometry

121
Q

what kind diffusion technique is the ag incorporated in a gel

A

radial immunodiffusion

122
Q

where is the ag placed in radial immunodiffusion

A

in wells

123
Q

in radial immunodiffusion what is the amount of precipitate directly proportional to

A

the amount ag present

124
Q

where are the ag and ab in ouchterlony double diffusion

A

in the wells

125
Q

if the precipitin lines form a 1/2 circle in ouchterlony double diffusion what does it mean

A

identity

126
Q

if the precipitin lines form a x in ouchterlony double diffusion what does it mean

A

non identity

127
Q

if the precipitin lines form a 1/2 circle and a straight line in ouchterlony double diffusion what does it mean

A

partial indentity

128
Q

what does electrophoresis separate molecules based on

A

electric charge

129
Q

what is the source of ag in immunoelectropheresis

A

serum

130
Q

where is the ab in immunofixation electrophoresis

A

it is applied directly to the gel after electrophoresis

131
Q

what is the difference between immunoelectrophoresis and immunofixation electrophoresis precipitation

A

immunofixation electrophoresis has a shorter time and bands are darker

132
Q

def? visible aggregation of particles caused by combo with specific ab

A

agglutination

133
Q

what are ab called in agglutination

A

agglutinins

134
Q

what is the 1st step in agglutination

A

sensitization

135
Q

what step of agglutination involves ag-ab combo through single antigenic determinants on a particle

A

sesitization

136
Q

what step of agglutination forms a cross link that show visible aggregates

A

lattice formation

137
Q

if there is agglutination what kind of result is it

A

pos

138
Q

what immunoglobulin effects lattice formation without of additional enhancement

A

IgM

139
Q

what kind of agglutination occurs when ag are found naturally on a particle

A

direct

140
Q

what kind of agglutination involves RBC

A

hemagglutination

141
Q

in ABO blood typing what are RBC mixed with

A

antisera of the IgM

142
Q

what kind of agglutination employs particles coated with ag not normally found on their surfaces

A

indirect

143
Q

what kind of sample does direct agglutination use

A

RBC

144
Q

what kind of sample does indirect agglutination use

A

plasma

145
Q

for a direct agglutination test: sample with agglutination in anti a has what blood type

A

A

146
Q

for a direct agglutination test: sample with agglutination in anti a has what blood type

A

B

147
Q

what kind of agglutination is the ab attached to a carrier particle

A

reverse passive agglutination

148
Q

what kind of agglutination are rxns based on competition between particulate and soluble ag for limited ab

A

agglutination inhibition

149
Q

what kind of agglutination does the ab block the RBC from binding to the virus

A

hemagglutination inhibition

150
Q

are immunoassays direct or indirect test

A

indirect

151
Q

what is the typical analyte in immunoassays

A

proteins

152
Q

def? substance to be measured is called

A

analyte

153
Q

t or f: immunoassays can detect very small amounts ag or ab

A

T

154
Q

what are the 4 labeling techniques used for immunoassays

A

fluorescent, radioactive, chemiluminescent, and enzymes

155
Q

what format of immunoassays are all reactants mixed together

A

competitive

156
Q

what format of immunoassays do labeled ag compete with unlabeled pt ag for the limited # of ab-binding sites

A

Competitive

157
Q

what format of immunoassays is the ab 1st passively absorbed to a solid phase

A

noncompetitive

158
Q

what kind of immunoassays are micrometer plate, plastic bead, and nitrocellulose mmb

A

noncompetitive

159
Q

in noncompetitive format immunoassay what is the amount of labeled ab is directly proportional to

A

the amount of pt ag

160
Q

what format of immunoassays is there excess ab present

A

noncompetitive

161
Q

what kind of immunoassay is the ag or ab attached by physical adsorption

A

heterogeneous

162
Q

what is formed in a heterogeneous assay

A

complex

163
Q

where is the complex attached in a heterogeneous assay

A

solid phase

164
Q

what happens to the excess reactant in a heterogeneous assay

A

washed away

165
Q

what step does a homogeneous assay not have

A

separation step

166
Q

which assay is more sensitive homo or heterogeneous

A

homogeneous

167
Q

what is the most common radioactive substance label

A

I 125

168
Q

what kind of radiation do radioimmunoassays emit

A

gamma radiation

169
Q

t or f: radioimmunoassays are not extremely sensitive and precise

A

F

170
Q

what are the disadvantages to radioimmunoassays

A

health hazard, disposal problems, short shelf life, and expensive

171
Q

what are the labels in enzyme immunoassay

A

enzymes

172
Q

how do enzymes produce products

A

break them down

173
Q

what the advantages of enzyme immunoassays

A

cheap, readily available, no health hazard, and long shelve life

174
Q

what is another name for capture assay

A

sandwich immunoassay

175
Q

where are the ab in a capture assay

A

solid phase

176
Q

what is the sandwich in the capture assay

A

ab bound to solid phase and enzyme labeled ab

177
Q

example of homogeneous enzyme immunoassay

A

EMIT

178
Q

what kind of immunoassay is mmb based

A

rapid immunoassay

179
Q

what kind of immunoassay is single use

A

rapid immunoassay

180
Q

what kind of immunoassay is immunochromatography

A

rapid immunoassay

181
Q

def? fluorescent compounds

A

fluorophores/fluorochromes

182
Q

how do fluorophores fluores

A

absorb incident light and convert it to light of a longer wavelength

183
Q

t or f: in fluorescent immunoassay fluorescence is very short

A

T

184
Q

fluorescein emits light at what wavelength

A

520

185
Q

rhodamine emits light at what wavelength

A

585

186
Q

what are fluorescent immunoassay used for

A

localization of ag in cells

187
Q

are indirect or direct immunofluorescent assays more common

A

indirect

188
Q

what is the function of a polarization analyzer

A

measures the amount of polarized light

189
Q

is fluorescence polarization immunoassay. competitive or noncompetitive

A

competitive

190
Q

what is fluorescence polarization immunoassay used for

A

determine conc of therapeutic drugs and hormones

CLS 306 (19 decks)

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