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CLS 306 > Intro- Blood Bank > Flashcards

Intro- Blood Bank Flashcards

1
Q

who regulates the hospital level

A

joint commission

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2
Q

what level is the joint commission

A

federal

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3
Q

what happens to the hospital if they are not regulated by the joint commission

A

they do not get reimbursed

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4
Q

true or false: hospital are only regulated by the joint commission and not the state they are in

A

F

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5
Q

additionally other hospital departments are regulated by what

A

their own industry / accrediting agencies

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6
Q

what is another name for the healthcare lab

A

clinical lab

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7
Q

who regulates the clinical lab

A

state, CLIA, and CAP

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8
Q

what does the state of ca require for people who test human samples

A

license and facility license

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9
Q

once the CLS training program is complete what do you have

A

state licensure

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10
Q

what happens to a CLS that that does negligence testing

A

disciplinary actions, employment termination, loss of CLS license

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11
Q

when are you considered a professional

A

once you enter the CLS training program

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12
Q

testing needs to _____ and ______

A

accurate and precise

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13
Q

def? the study of the body’s immune response to blood

A

immunohematology

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14
Q

what is another name for immunohematology

A

blood bank

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15
Q

what are the 2 subgroups of blood bank

A

transfusion medicine and donor center

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16
Q

what subgroup of blood bank gives blood to pt

A

transfusion medicine

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17
Q

what subgroup of blood bank takes out blood from donors

A

donor center

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18
Q

what additional regulation groups regulate BB

A

food and drug administration and global accrediting group (AABB)

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19
Q

who does the food and drug administration and global accrediting group (AABB) protect

A

pt receiving blood and donor who give blood

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20
Q

what is the most regulated clinical lab department

A

bb

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21
Q

what must exist in the bb because of the regulatory environment

A

quality management

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22
Q

what are the 2 components that concern a pt who is about to receive a blood transfusion

A
  1. blood component is compatible with the pt’s blood
  2. there is no intentional adverse rxn
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22
Q

what testing is done on a pt who is about to receive a blood transfusion

A

blood typing, ab screening, crossmatching

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23
Q

what kind of pt receive blood transfusions

A

anemic pt

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24
Q

what parts of blood are in whole blood

A

plasma and RBC

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25
Q

what does plasma provide for a transfusion pt

A

volume

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26
Q

what does RBC provide for a transfusion pt

A

oxygen carrying capacity

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27
Q

1 pint = ____ mL

A

500

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28
Q

what is the most common blood component that is transfused into anemic pt

A

RBC

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29
Q

hypoxic = ____ O2

A

decreased

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30
Q

what shifts the o2 dissociation curve to the left

A

decreased temp, decreased 2-3 DPG, decreased pH

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31
Q

what shifts the o2 dissociation curve to the right

A

increased temp, increased 2-3 DPG, increased pH

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32
Q

if O2 affinity is reduced where is the O2 dissociation curve

A

shifted to the right

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33
Q

describe the O2 dissociation curve the longer blood is stored

A

shifts to the left

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34
Q

if a pt is deficient in coagulation factors (non-cellular elements) what should they be transfused with

A

plasma

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35
Q

if a pt is deficient in clotting capacity (cellular elements) what should they be transfused with

A

platelets

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36
Q

if a pt is deficient in factor VIII and fibrinogen what should they be transfused with

A

cryoprecipitate

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37
Q

t or f: most places do not have a donor center

A

T

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38
Q

who are the life-lines of the blood supply

A

repeat donors

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39
Q

t or f: blood and components can be manufactured

A

f

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40
Q

are pharmaceutical drugs organic or inorganic compounds

A

inorganic

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41
Q

what form do pharmaceutical drugs come in

A

solid or liquid

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42
Q

t or f: pharmaceutical drugs can be stored at a variety of temps

A

T

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43
Q

is blood organic or inorganic

A

organic

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44
Q

what is the most common form of blood

A

liquid

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45
Q

T or F: blood can not be frozen

A

F

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46
Q

what should a donor do after they donate blood

A

drink lots of liquids to replace fluid

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47
Q

how long does it take for RBC to be replaced

A

21 days

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48
Q

how are donors processed

A

systematic way

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49
Q

are volunteer donors payed

A

no

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50
Q

when are blood inventories good

A

during disasters and summer

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51
Q

when are blood inventories bad

A

during holidays

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52
Q

which Christian Science group does not accept any blood transfusions

A

Jehovah’s witnesses

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53
Q

what do the Jehovah’s witnesses think is acceptable for transfusion

A

fractions

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54
Q

what are RBC fractions

A

Hemoglobin

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55
Q

what are WBC fractions

A

interferons and interleukins

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56
Q

what are plasma fractions

A

albumin, globulins, and clotting factors

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57
Q

what are platelet fractions

A

wound healing fractions

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58
Q

what can be given to a Jehovah’s witness to stimulate RCB production

A

erythropoietin

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59
Q

what can be given to a Jehovah’s witness to help with blood clot

A

vit K

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60
Q

what tool can be used on a Jehovah’s Witness that cuts and cauterizes at the same time

A

harmonic scalpel

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61
Q

what can be used on Jehovah’s witness to recover blood from the operating table, washes it, and returns the cleaned blood to the pt

A

intraoperative blood salvage system

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62
Q

what can be given to a Jehovah’s witness to mimic human hemoglobin

A

artificial hemoglobin

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63
Q

what does the FDA consider blood as

A

Pharmaceutical drugs

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64
Q

since blood is considered a pharmaceutical drug what must a pt have in order to receive a transfusion

A

prescription

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65
Q

Each unit of whole blood collected contains approximately ___ mL of blood and ___ mL of anticoagulant preservative solution

A

500, 70

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66
Q

what process provides the most ATP for RBC

A

Glycolysis

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67
Q

what process provides a little bit of ATP for RBC

A

pentose phosphate pathway

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68
Q

What is the maximum volume of blood that can be collected from a 110-lb donor, including samples for processing?

A

525 ml

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69
Q

How often can a blood donor donate whole blood?

A

8 weeks

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70
Q

When RBCs are stored, there is a “shift to the left.” This means:

A

Hemoglobin-oxygen affinity increases, owing to a decrease in 2,3-DPG.

71
Q

The majority of platelets transfused in the United States today are:

A

Apheresis platelets.

72
Q

Which of the following anticoagulant preservatives provides a storage time of 35 days at 1°C to 6°C for units of whole blood and prepared RBCs if an additive solution is not added?

A

CPDA-1

73
Q

What are the current storage time and storage temperature for platelet concentrates and apheresis platelet components?

A

5 days at 20°C to 24°C

74
Q

RBCs can be frozen for:

A

10 years

75
Q

whole blood, liquid plasma, and RBC units can be stored at what temp?

A

1°C to 6°C

76
Q

Additive solutions are approved for storage of red blood cells for how many days?

A

42

77
Q

One criterion used by the FDA for approval of new preservation solutions and storage containers is an average 24-hour post-transfusion RBC survival of more than:

A

75%

78
Q

What is the lowest allowable pH for a platelet component at outdate?

A

6.2

79
Q

Which of the following occurs during storage of red blood cells?

A

pH decreases

80
Q

Which of the following is approved for bacterial detection specific to extending the expiration of apheresed platelets to 7 days?

A

Pan Genera Detection (PGD) test

81
Q

Which of the following is the most common cause of bacterial contamination of platelet products?

A

Entry of skin plugs into the collection bag

82
Q

The INTERCEPT pathogen reduction system uses which of the following methods?

A

Amotosalen and UV light

83
Q

examples of hemolytic blood rxns

A

intravascular and extravascular

84
Q

examples of non hemolytic blood rxn

A

allergic, febrile, circulatory overload

85
Q

what happens when a facility losses it’s license or accreditation

A

affect the financial reimbursement

86
Q

if blood has CPD added to it how long can it be stored

A

21 days

87
Q

if blood has CPDA added to it how long can it be stored

A

35 days

88
Q

if blood has Adsol added to it how long can it be stored

A

42 days

88
Q

if blood has Adsol added to it how long can it be stored

A

42 days

89
Q

what kind of plasma is separated from a unit of blood within 6-8 hrs of donation and rapidly frozen

A

fresh frozen plasma

90
Q

what temp and how long is plasma frozen

A

less than -18 degree C for up to 1 year

91
Q

what part of blood is associated with genetic make up

A

ag and platelets

92
Q

how many human blood groups are there

A

36

93
Q

how many RBC ags are there

A

346

94
Q

how many platelet ags are there

A

33

95
Q

how many blood ag do we deal with on a daily basis

A

27

96
Q

def? 2 genes are equally expressed when both are present

A

codominant

97
Q

what does the hardy weingberg law state

A

genotype frequencies in a pop remain constant from gen to gen unless there are specific influences

98
Q

what is the hardy Weinberg equation

A

p^2 + 2pq + q ^2 = 1

99
Q

what does p= in the the hardy Weinberg equation

A

gene frequency of the dominant allele

100
Q

what does q= the hardy Weinberg equation

A

gene frequency of the recessive allele

101
Q

T or F: if a pop is large it can change the genotype frequencies

A

T

102
Q

T or F: if mating among all individuals is random it can change the genotype frequencies

A

T

103
Q

T or F: if mutation occurring in parents or offspring can change the genotype frequencies

A

F

104
Q

T or F: if there is no migration, differential fertility, or mortality of genotypes it can change the genotype frequencies

A

T

105
Q

can IgM pass through the placenta

A

no

106
Q

what form is IgM

A

pentamer

107
Q

what temp does IgM react

A

room temp or lower

108
Q

what immunoglobulin is usually seen in the first phase of Ab detection testing

A

IgM

109
Q

what form is IgG

A

monomer

110
Q

what is the most common immunoglobulin in sera

A

IgG

111
Q

what shape is IgG

A

y shaped

112
Q

can IgG pass through the placenta

A

yes

113
Q

rank in order subtypes of IgG from greatest to least readily binding to complement

A

IgG33> IgG1> IgG2> IgG4

114
Q

what temp does IgG react at

A

body temp

115
Q

what is a rare immunoglobulin

A

IgA

116
Q

what form does IgA come in

A

dimer or trimer

117
Q

how does IgA join monomers together

A

J chain

118
Q

what immunoglobulin protects the underlying epithelium from bacterial/viral penetration

A

IgA

119
Q

T or F: IgA binds to complement

A

F

120
Q

what happens to a pt with anti-IgA transfused with plasma containing products

A

death

121
Q

what blood tube color is blood bank

A

pink

122
Q

what department has purple top tubes

A

hematology

123
Q

what department has red top tubes

A

chem

124
Q

if a pink top tube is not available what other tube can blood bank use

A

purple or red

125
Q

what anticoagulant is in a purple top tube

A

EDTA

126
Q

what form of EDTA is dried form coated along sides of plastic specimen tube

A

K2 EDTA

127
Q

what form of EDTA is liquid found in glass and prevent blood from clotting

A

K2 EDTA

128
Q

how does EDTA prevent blood from clotting

A

binds to Ca2+ in the blood

129
Q

what kind of testing can a purple top be used for in blood bank

A

RBC ag typing

130
Q

what anticoagulant is in a red top

A

none

131
Q

what part of blood is used for ab detection and ID

A

serum

132
Q

what test is done on RBC in red top

A

blood typing

133
Q

what anticoagulant is in a pink top

A

K2 EDTA

134
Q

what bb reagent category possess ab of known specificity

A

antisera

135
Q

what bb reagent category have RBCs that posses ag of known specificity

A

red cell reagents

136
Q

what bb reagent category detects IgG and complement of RBCs

A

antiglobilin reagents

137
Q

what bb reagent category are used to increase ab uptake to the corresponding ag or enhance RBC agglutination

A

potentiator/ enhancement media

138
Q

what bb reagent category is plant extract that react to specific human RBC ags

A

lectins

139
Q

what are red cell reagents used with

A

pt’s sera

139
Q

what are red cell reagents used with

A

pt’s sera

140
Q

what immunoglobulin is in the saline antisera media

A

IgM or IgG

141
Q

what immunoglobulin is in the potentiator antisera media

A

IgG

142
Q

what kind of antisera is usually an immune response

A

polyclonal

143
Q

what kind of antisera is produced by multiple B- cells lines

A

polyclonal

144
Q

what kind of antisera has broader specificity

A

polyclonal

145
Q

what kind of antisera is produced by a single B cell

A

monoclonal

146
Q

what kind of antisera has specificity firecteda single epitope

A

monoclonal

147
Q

what kind of antisera has identical ab molecules

A

monoclonal

148
Q

function of albumin in potentiating media

A

allows ab coated cells to come close together

149
Q

T or F: potentiating media is a low ionic strength solution

A

T

150
Q

function of polyethylene glycol in potentiating media

A

remove water for more conc of Ab

151
Q

what affects the strength of hemagglutination

A

titer of ab or the affinity of the ab

152
Q

def?Cell division that produces two daughter cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell

A

mitosis

153
Q

When a recessive trait is expressed:

A

two genes carrying the trait were present.

154
Q

t or f: in a pedigree Deceased family members have a line crossed through the symbol.

A

T

155
Q

Which of the following nitrogenous bases make up DNA?

A

Adenine, cytosine, guanine, thymine

156
Q

t or f: A frameshift mutation at the beginning of the coding sequence is most likely to result in a phenotypic change.

A

T

157
Q

def? The noncoding region of a gene

A

intron

158
Q

t or f: Silica particles bind DNA under high salt concentrations.

A

T

159
Q

The purpose of transcription is to:

A

Synthesize RNA using DNA as a template.

160
Q

When a male possesses a phenotypic trait that he passes to all his daughters and none of his sons, the trait is said to be:

A

X-linked dominant.

161
Q

When a female possesses a phenotypic trait that she passes to all of her sons and none of her daughters, the trait is said to be:

A

x-linked recessive

162
Q

How is tRNA different from other types of RNA?

A

It recognizes amino acids and nucleic acids.

163
Q

t or f:mRNA delivers the amino acids to the growing peptide chain during elongation.

A

F

164
Q

The pattern of inheritance most commonly expressed by blood group genes is:

A

Autosomal codominant.

165
Q

what does A compliance program evaluate

A

how effectively the facility meets regulatory requirements

166
Q

The quality system essentials are applied to:

A

The blood bank’s path of workflow

167
Q

cGMP refers to:

A

Manufacturing blood components

168
Q

Internal and external failure costs are Controlled through

A

prevention and appraisal

169
Q

An example of a remedial action is:

A

Resolving the immediate problem

170
Q

The DMAIC methodology is used for:

A

Problem resolution

171
Q

___________________________ is a set of planned actions that ensure that systems and elements that influence the quality of service are working as expected.

A

Quality assurance

172
Q

The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) developed an alternative quality control option, an individualized quality control plan (IQCP). How is the minimum frequency of running quality controls determined?

A

by the manufacture

CLS 306 (19 decks)

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