OMA Flashcards

1
Q

What is the procedure for reporting a bird strike?

A

Inform ATC & Complete ASR, Contact MOC, Fill out birdstrike form and insert into tech log.

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2
Q

What is the regulatory authority of the commander?

A

The operator shall take all reasonable measures to ensure that all persons carried in the aircraft obey all lawful commands given by the commander for the purpose of securing the safety of the aircraft and of persons or property carried therein.

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3
Q

What are the regulatory responsibilities of the commander?

A

Be responsible for the safety of all crew members, passengers and cargo on board, as soon as the commander arrives on board the aircraft, until the commander leaves the aircraft at the end of the flight

Be responsible for the operation and safety of the aircraft from the moment the aeroplane is first ready to move for the purpose of taxiing prior to take-off, until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight and the engines are shut down.

Have authority to disembark any person, or any part of the cargo, that may represent a potential hazard to the safety of the aircraft or its occupants;

Not allow a person to be carried in the aircraft who appears to be under the influence of alcohol or drugs to the extent that the safety of the aircraft or its occupants is likely to be endangered;

Ensure that all passengers are briefed on the location of emergency exits and the location and use of relevant safety and emergency equipment;

Not permit any crew member to perform any activity during critical phases of flight, except duties required for the safe operation of the aircraft;

Ensure that the pre-flight inspection has been carried out;

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4
Q

What are the company responsilbilties of the commander

A

Flight deck door locked when engines are running

All passengers and crew seated for take off and landing

If deemed necessary, consideration is given to adding greater safety margins, including aerodrome-operating minima.

Uniform standards

Post flight debrief as required

Listening watch 121.5

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5
Q

Who can carry fire arms?

A

Domestic police protection officers on domestic flights in the UK, Germany, Italy and Spain

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6
Q

When do cabin security searches need to be carried out?

A

Tidy:
In the UK came from UK
In the EU and came from EU, UK or TLV

Search:
In the UK and came from outside UK
In the EU and came from outside UK and EU
All flights to TLV
Cold aircraft
Aircraft left outside critical area
Crew have reason to believe security compromised

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7
Q

What are the disruptive passenger classifications?

A

Level 1. Non compliance, irrational & disorderly.

Level 2. Physically disruptive in damage to aircraft. Physical assault of pax or crew.

Level 3. Life threatening behaviour incl any weapons and attempts to open aircraft exits.

Level 4. Attempted breach of flight deck door inc violence directed at the door.

Level 3 & 4. Do not open flight deck door.

Police called for level 2, 3 & 4

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8
Q

Explain all about bomb threats.

What do you do if a message is found on board?

A

Green. Non credible. No action required.

Amber. Doubtful credibility. consider options. On stand - consult duty manager. Not used in flight or taxiing.

Red. Credible and specific requiring immediate protective measures.
On stand - disembark - no slides.
Taxiing - taxi to quiet area and evacuate.
In flight - Divert

Warning message discovered in flight:
1. Confirm search carried out prior to departure
2. Contact ICC
3. Continue Green if unable to contact ICC unless further notes found.
4. Do not take action until assessed by ICC.
5. Preserve message - fingerprints etc.

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9
Q

Does easyJet have dangerous good approval?

A

No. However, ICAO allows a limited number of items for pax and crew.

Exceptions: Airworthiness and operational items such as fire extinguishers, portable oxygen etc.

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10
Q

Do we have ETOPS approval?

A

No. We must remain within 1hr flying time of adequate aerodrome.

Max 60min one engine cruise:

A319 380nm
A320 / 321 400nm

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11
Q

What is the relevant part of RVR for take off and landing?

A

Take off: RVR for acceleration to V1 followed by reject and deceleration to approx 60kts

Landing: RVR for landing down to speed of 60kts approx.

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12
Q

What is the approach ban?

A

1000’ AGL or FAF where DH is more than 1000’

Cannot continue past ban point if relevant RVR less than minima

If, after passing 1000’ RVR decreases, approach may be continued.

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13
Q

Max No of approaches?

A

No more than two approaches may be flown when there has been a go-around due to weather unless there has been a significant improvement or state of emergency exists.

In exceptional circumstances a third approach may be flown when a go-around has been carried out for non weather related reasons providing that the commander is satisfied that landing is assured.

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14
Q

What is the approach policy?

A

Use the highest level of approach guidance available. It is permissible to carry out an approach using a lower level of guidance.

E.g practice non precision when ILS available.

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15
Q

What is the automation policy?

A

Use the highest level of automation appropriate to the phase of flight and airspace.

To do any manual flying with automatics out: Both pilots must have completed two duties as operating pilots in the preceding 14 days.

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16
Q

Wake turbulence approach separation minima

A

Final approach:

A380: 7nm
Heavy: 5nm
Upper Medium: 4nm

Landing behind 380 also 3 minutes

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17
Q

Wake turbulence departure separation minima

A

Same position. 380 - 3 min. Heavy 2 min

Intermediate position. 380 4 min. Heavy 3min

Medium. None required.

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18
Q

What separation should a thunderstorm have?

A

5000’ Vertical (If you can avoid overflying)

Lateral:

30,000’ - 20nm

25,000’ - 15nm

20,000’ - 10nm

Terminal area - 3nm

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19
Q

What equipment is needed for RVSM?

A

-Two primary altimeters
-One autopilot with altitude hold
-One altitude alerting system
-Secondary surveillance radar transponder

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20
Q

When can you substitute a conventional nav aid with RNAV?

A

RNAV substitution ok when FMGC announces:

SID/EO SID - GPS PRIMARY / Nav Accuracy High

STAR / Transition above FAP or FAF - Nav Accuracy High

Missed approach - Nav Accuracy High

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21
Q

What is the daily check validity?

When can it be done?

A

48hr in addition to remaining part of the day if done late at night.

Done after last flight of day and after 1800UTC

e.g Daily done at 2245 on 17th. Validity commences 0001 18th, and expires 2359 19th.

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22
Q

Difference between a Level 1 and Level 2 defect in the tech log?

A

Level 1 - Airworthiness. e.g might affect landing capability. For example RA Inop

Level 2 - Non airworthiness. For example dirty carpets.

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23
Q

What certificates must be carried on board?

And which on EFB?

A

On board Originals:
- Certificate of airworthiness
- Airworthiness review certificate
- Certificate of registration

EFB
- Air Operator Certificate
- Noise Certificate
- Radio Licence
- Third party insurance certificate

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24
Q

What are the passenger classifications?

Are unaccompanied minors allowed?

A

Adults are 12yrs and above

Child. 2 years and above

Infant. Less than 2 years

No unaccompanied minors under 16 unless approved by ICC

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25
Q

What do you do if alcohol suspected on a crew member?

A

Advise crew that they will be stood down.

Advise duty pilot of suspicion via ICC

Contact crewing for a replacement

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26
Q

Total flight time limitations

A

100hrs in 28 days

900hrs in a calendar year

1000hrs in 12 consecutive months

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27
Q

Using discretion, how long can an FDP be extended for?

A

2 hours

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28
Q

Define a suitable aerodrome

A

The aerodrome is adequate for the operation and is weather permissible.

This means MET at or above operating minima and runway surface conditions indicate a safe landing can be made.

Aerodrome also equipped with necessary ancillary services such as ATC, lighting, comms, nav aids, emergency services etc.

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29
Q

Crew alcohol limit

A

None 10hrs before

Prior to this in moderation

30
Q

Pilots recency for qualification

A

Can’t operate unless in the preceding 90 days, 3 take offs, approaches and landings in an aircraft or a full flight sim

31
Q

How many 3* cabin crew can you fly with?

A

3 Cabin Crew. Max 1x 3*

4 Cabin Crew. Max 2x 3*, working at opposite ends of cabin

32
Q

Max age for pilots and any restrictions?

A

Max age 65

Not more than one flight crew over 60

33
Q

Visual Approach Minima

A

2500’ cloud ceiling or circling minima if higher.

5000m VIS

34
Q

What is the route MORA and what clearance does it give us?

A

Minimum Off Route Altitude.

MFAs depicted on OFPs are based upon route MORA and provide 1000ft of clearance for terrain up to 5000ft and 2000ft of clearance above 5000ft within 20nm of the route.

The minimum MFA value depicted on OFP’s is 2000ft.

35
Q

What is the minimum grid altitude and what clearance does it give us?

A

MGA represents the lowest safe altitude which can be flown off-track. The MGA is calculated by rounding up the elevation of the highest obstruction within the grid area to the next 100ft and adding an increment of:

1000ft for terrain up to 6000ft

2000ft for terrain above 6000ft

36
Q

When does the MEL no longer apply?

A

MEL no longer applies when the a/c starts to move under it’s own power for the purpose of flight e.g taxiing.

37
Q

When do headsets need to be worn?

A
  • On ground for ATC clearance
  • From engine start to top of climb and from top of descent to parked
  • When one pilot on flight deck
  • When communicating with cabin crew via inter phone or using VHF 2 in flight.

-Whenever deemed necessary by the commander

38
Q

What does CAVOK mean?

A

Cloud and visibility OK.

10km VIS, NO CB or TCU and no cloud below 5000’ or MSA, whichever is greater

39
Q

What is RVSM airspace

A

RVSM is 29000 to 41000

Reduced vertical separation minima

40
Q

Minimum crew for boarding?

A

Not applicable to 319 operating with 3 cabin crew.

One flight crew on flight deck

Cabin Manager on board

No refuelling

One CC at back, One in middle. for 320/319

One extra by mid emergency exit for 321.

Max 50pax per cabin crew.

41
Q

What category is the 320 aircraft and what does it mean?

A

Category C - approach speed between 121 and 140kts.

42
Q

What is the definition of a safe landing?

A

In the context of fuel schemes, a landing at an adequate aerodrome with no less than the final reserve fuel remaining and in complicate with the applicable operational procedures and aerodrome operating minima.

43
Q

What is an airworthiness review certificate?

A

All Part 21 aircraft types that qualify for a Part 21 Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A) are issued with a non-expiring C of A, which is validated annually with an Airworthiness Review Certificate (ARC).

44
Q

How long is a tempo forecast expected to last?

A

30min or more but less than 60 minutes

45
Q

Where would you find a list of dangerous goods?

A

OMA Section 9

46
Q

What is the radio monitoring policy?

A

VHF 1. On at all times.
VHF 2. 121.5 in cruise all times, climb or descent as appropriate.

47
Q

Are there any temperature corrections for MSA?

A

Yes, in very cold temperatures. Use the high altitude temperature correction table in OMA.

48
Q

When do we need a temperature correction for approach?

A

Surface temp -10 or below

49
Q

Can the Destination and the Alternate both be based on PBN ?

A

No one of the two has to be equipped with an instrument approach other than GNSS

OMA 8.1.2.2.2.5

50
Q

What are the aerodromes categories ?

A

Category A:

Non-complex and can be treated as routine.

Category B:

Complexity requiring specific briefing, e.g. audio visual briefing, aerodrome brief in the Aerodrome Briefing Supplement.

Category B Restricted:

Complexity and threat levels requiring specified restrictions but not requiring an aerodrome visit or specific training.

Category C:

Special crew qualification required which can be achieved by an aerodrome visit or specific training.

51
Q

What are the requirements to replace an incapacitated SCCM while away from base?

A

Use a qualified SCCM crew, if none available, use the most senior with the minimum requirement of 12 months and 20 sectors on the A/C. Should be replaced when transiting via transit base, but if none available can continue to originating base.

52
Q

What altimeter accuracy do you need in RVSM airspace?

A

The primary altimeters must agree within 200ft before entering, and whilst operating in RVSM airspace.

53
Q

What are the requirements for refueling with pax ?

A

Aircraft

  • Emergency Exit Lights serviceable
  • All doors must remain disarmed. Door 1 Left must be open and the steps or airbridge must be in position.
  • A clear evacuation route from the aircraft must be available, via an airbridge or steps.
  • The rear passenger door should be open with steps in position, however it may remain closed with no steps attached, provided the slide is serviceable. The ground area below door must be kept clear.
  • Fuel bowser not in the way of a potential evacuation.

Cabin Crew

  • The procedure is not permitted when operating with reduced cabin crew.
  • All crew must be on board. At least one cabin crew member must be in attendance at each set of main exits
  • The cabin crew must brief the passengers not to smoke at any time on the ground and to keep seatbelts unfastened
  • Use of toilets by passengers must be limited, so there is no queuing in the aisles.

Operational

  • If required by the local national or airport authority, air traffic control and the aerodrome fire services are to be advised that fuelling will be taking place with passengers on board (Check CCI/AOI)
  • A pilot must remain in the right-hand seat with unobstructed view of apron (if view become obstructed, stop fuelling unless nominated person outside with unobstructed view and in communication with flight deck);
  • Display the “Refuelling with PAX in Progress” sign on the pedestal and open the cockpit door;
  • Open the RHS cockpit window sufficiently for outside ambient sound to be heard (if can’t open window, don’t fuel with pax on board! Or nominate someone outside with unobstructed view who can communicate with flight deck);
  • Place the Fuel Card in the RHS window with refuelling with passengers on board signal showing;
  • Ensure acknowledgement of the Fuel Card by the refueller; this establishes communication

Emergency

If fuel vapour detected, or other emergency, procedure on back of QRH

54
Q

What is the minimum age to travel ?

A

2 weeks

55
Q

How many infant per adult can be carried ?

A

2

56
Q

Until what week of pregnancy can a pregnant woman travel ?

A
  • Pregnant mothers can be accepted for travel up to the end of the 35th week for single pregnancies.
  • Pregnant mothers expecting more than one baby (e.g. twins) can only be accepted for travel up to the end of the 32nd week.

Medical certification is not required for expectant mothers to travel.

57
Q

Can a flight be operated as VFR ?

A

Normally always IFR and with ATC and generally not allow, VFR only when authorized by the duty pilot

58
Q

For landing which wind information source should be used with regards to wind limits?

A

All references to tailwind limitations and maximum demonstrated crosswinds in Operations Manuals and FCOMs are referenced to the ATC reported wind.

59
Q

Does easyJet hold the approval to flight all NAT HLA route ?

A

NAT HLA Operations are approved on special routes only:

  • Blue Spruce Routes between Europe and Iceland
  • Tango Routes between Northern Europe and Spain/Canaries/Lisbon FIR

Refer to Lido eRM GEN Part RSI NAT RAR section 2.2.2.13.2.2 Routes within the NAT HLA

60
Q

How are aircraft longitudinally separated in the NAT HLA?

A

Time.

ETA at common waypoints and Constant Mach technique.

61
Q

What should be done prior to enter NAT HLA ?

A

A Time check shall be done. Flight Crew shall ensure that Aircraft main clock is set to GPS time if available.

A NAV accuracy check shall be done if not GPS Primary.

An RVSM Altimeter check.

A SELCAL check shall be done (if HF is to be used for primary communication).

As applicable an Oceanic Clearance shall be obtained and acknowledged prior to NAT HLA entry, on VHF if possible.

62
Q

Before entering RVSM airspace what is the max altimeter difference ?

A

200ft before entering

63
Q

What has precedence over a TCAS RA ?

A
  • Stall
  • Windshear
  • GPWS
64
Q

What are the rules for controlled rest ?

A
  • One at a time
  • Less than 45min
  • Recovery 20min
  • Should terminate at least 30min before top of descent
  • Commander shall inform SCCM via interphone of the intention to use controlled rest. CC phone at least every 20 mins.
  • Fatigue report
65
Q

What are the two way to recognise crew incapacitation ?

A
  • Crew member does not respond appropriately to two verbal communications
  • Crew member does not respond to a verbal communication associated with a significant deviation from a standard flight profile
66
Q

Bomb threat, what should you do if you receive a Red bomb threat in flight?

A
  • Captain will be informed via ACARS or VHF
  • Follow QRH checklist
  • On taxiing, taxi away from terminal, evacuate in a controlled way with cabin baggage
  • In flight, declare an emergency and divert to nearest appropriate airport
  • If landing not immediately possible make a search and if suspicious item found move to the Least Risk bomb location
67
Q

Bomb threat, what should you do in case of Amber alert while on the ground?

A

Contact the network duty manager who will liaise with the duty security manager and decide the action

68
Q

What should you do if an explosive device is found while in flight ?

A
  • Do not touch or move object
  • Move pax away and ask them to keep head down (below the top of the seat)
  • Remove from location portable oxy bottle, alcohol, first aid kit
  • Fire extinguisher readily available
  • If immediate landing can be made, leave device in place and pack around with items of clothing
  • If immediate landing cannot be made, move device to LRBL (Door 2R)
69
Q

What should you do in case of hijack ?

A

Squawk 7500

Inform ATC ASAP

Switch seat belt sign on and brief CC by interphone

Find somewhere safe to land

Avoid violent manoeuvre

70
Q

When is the latest LVP’s should be initiated?

A

Ceiling less that 200ft or RVR less than 600m