Neurological Trauma Flashcards

1
Q

How does injury occur in an acceleration/deceleration injury?

A

compression, tension and shearing injuries

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2
Q

name for brain tissue injury directly at the site of impact and at teh pole opposite of the site of impact?

A

coup-countrecoup injury

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3
Q

Blast injuries primarily affect which part(s) of the brain?

A

hippocampus and brain stem

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4
Q

How does hyperventilation lower ICP?

A

causes cerebral vasoconstriction

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5
Q

When is hyperventilation used in the treatment of a brain injury?

A
  • when symptoms of brain herniation are present or if ICP is severely high
  • causes vasoconstriction by reducing PaCO2
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6
Q

What is the goal PaCO2 when hyperventilating a patient with suspected herniation?

A

25-30 mmHg

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7
Q

What is the goal SBP for 50-60 y/o with brain injury?

A

> 100 mmHg

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8
Q

What is the goal SBP for > 15 y/o with brain injury?

A

> 110 mmHg

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9
Q

What does AVPU stand for when assessing neuro status?

A
  • Awake
  • responds to Verbal stimuli
  • responds to Painful stimuli
  • Unresponsive
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10
Q

What does the glasgow coma scale assess?

A
  • eye opening
  • verbal response
  • motor response
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11
Q

What is the score range for the GCS?

A
  • 3-15
  • 3 = worst score
  • 15 = best scores
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12
Q

A patient is considered comatose with a GCS score of?

A

8 or less

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13
Q

Term for flexion of upper extremities with inward rotation and extension of lower extremities

A

decorticate

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14
Q

term for rigidity and abnormal extension of upper extremities and lower extremities

A

decerebrate

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15
Q

What condition should be considered when pupils are sluggish, unequal or enlarged with no response?

A

increased intracranial pressure or herniation

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16
Q

What labs should be drawn on a TBI patient?

A
  • tox screen
  • CBC
  • BMP or CMP
  • Coagulation panel
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17
Q

What is the initial imaging study for a TBI patient?

A

non-contrast CT

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18
Q

What are the categories of injury related to TBI?

A
  • primary head injury
  • skull fracture
  • brain injury
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19
Q

What is the most common head injury?

A

scalp laceration

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20
Q

What are signs of hypolemia?

A
  • increased HR

- decreased BP

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21
Q

How to treat a scalp laceration?

A
  • monitor for hypovolemia
  • assess for skull fracture then apply direct pressure
  • suture/staple
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22
Q

Lidocaine 1% with epinephrine should not be use where on the head?

A

nose or ears

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23
Q

Types of skull fractures?

A
  • simple
  • depressed
  • basilar
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24
Q

Description of a simple skull fracture?

A

no displacement of bone or interface of the outside environment with the intracranial contents

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25
Q

Description of a depressed

A

bone tables and fragments depressing the thickness of the skull with exposure of the intracranial contents with the outside environment

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26
Q

Type of skull fracture with no displacement of bone or interface of the outside environment with the intracranial contents

A

simple skull fracture

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27
Q

Type of skull fracture where the bone tables and fragments depressing the thickness of the skull with exposure of the intracranial contents with the outside environment

A

depressed bone fracture

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28
Q

Treatment of a depressed bone fracture?

A
  • surgery often required
  • prophylactic broad-spectrum antibiotics
  • tetanus is indicated
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29
Q

Description of a basilar fracture?

A

fracture in the anterior or posterior skull base

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30
Q

Raccoon eyes are associated with which type of fracture?

A

basilar fracture with anterior skull based compartment involvement

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31
Q

Term for periorbital ecchymosis related to an anterior skull base fracture?

A

raccoon eyes

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32
Q

Term for mastoid ecchymosis related to a posterior skull basilar fracture?

A

battle sign

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33
Q

Battle sign is associated with which type of fracture?

A

basilar fracture with posterior skull base involvement

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34
Q

Signs of a basilar fracture?

A
  • raccoon eyes
  • battle signs
  • otorrhea
  • rhinorrhea
35
Q

Treatment of a basilar fracture?

A
  • lumbar drain to divert CSF and minimize ICP
  • surgical repair
  • prophylactic antibiotics
  • intubation and OG
36
Q

What are considerations for placement of a gastric tube in a patient with a skull fracture?

A
  • use oral gastric tube and intubation

- avoid nasal route

37
Q

Term for transient, reversible alteration in brain function?

A

concussion

38
Q

What is the most common location of a concussion?

A

the temporal lobe

39
Q

Consider imaging of a concussed patient if?

A
  • GCS < 15 at 2hr
  • GCS < 14 anytime
  • EtOH/drugs suspected/noted
  • concern for skull fracture
  • age > 60 or < 16
  • coagulopathy suspected
  • focal deficit
  • Loss of consciousness > 5 min
  • seizure activity noted
  • vomiting > 2 times
  • persistent, severe HA
40
Q

Term for regions of hemorrhagic necrosis and bruising of the brain

A

contusion

41
Q

Most common sites of contusion lesions in the brain?

A

orbitofrontal or anterior temporal regions

42
Q

Consider starting which types of prophylaxis treatment for brain contusions?

A

antiepileptic and seizure precautions

43
Q

Bleeding into the epidural space between the skull and dura mater is called?

A

epidural hematoma

44
Q

Lenticular shape that does not cross suture lines noted on a brain CT is indicative of?

A

an epidural hemorrhage

45
Q

Evaluation and treatment of an epidural hematoma?

A
  • noncontrast CT
  • neurosurgical consult
  • medical therapy
  • surgical intervention
46
Q

bleeding between the dura mater and arachnoid or pia layers?

A

subdural hematoma

47
Q

What is the most frequent type of intracranial bleeding?

A

subdural hematoma

48
Q

How long does it take for an Acute subdural hematoma to develop?

A

minutes to hours

49
Q

How long does it take for a chronic subdural hematoma to develop?

A

days or weeks, generally in the elderly

50
Q

Caused by the accumulation of blood between the arachnoid and pia surface?

A

subarachnoid hemorrhage

51
Q

Symptoms of a epidural hematoma?

A
  • initially unconscious, wakes up without deficit and then deteriorates
  • deterioration may be rapid
52
Q

S/S of an acute subdural hematoma?

A
  • drowsiness
  • agitation
  • confusion
  • HA
  • unilateral or bilateral pupil dilation
  • hemiparesis
53
Q

S/S of a chronic subdural hematoma?

A
  • usually in the elderly
  • HA
  • memory loss
  • personality changes
  • incontinence
  • ataxia
54
Q

S/S of traumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage?

A
  • HA
  • reduced LOC
  • nuchal rigidity
  • hemiplegia
  • ipsilateral pupil abnormalities
55
Q

Diffuse axonal injury is commonly observed with which type of movement?

A

rapid acceleration/deceleration of the head d/t shearing forces

56
Q

Mild coma r/t a diffuse axonal injury lasts?

A

6-24 hrs

57
Q

Moderate coma r/t a diffuse axonal injury lasts?

A

> 24 hrs

58
Q

Severe coma r/t a diffuse axonal injury lasts?

A

prolonged and with decorticate/decerebrate posturing

59
Q

Blown pupils are indicative of what type of brain injury?

A

cerebral herniation

60
Q

What are the signs of Cushing triad r/t TBI?

A

1 ) HTN with widening pulse pressure

2) decreased RR
3) bradycardia
- elevated ICP is a late sign

61
Q

Treatment of cerebral edema/elevated ICP/herniation?

A
  • elevate HOB > 30 degrees
  • opioids to lower ICP
  • drain CSF
  • hypothermia
  • paralysis
62
Q

Preferred choice of sedation in treatment of cerebral edema/elevated ICP/herniation?

A
  • short acting opioids
  • fentanyl
  • remifentanil
63
Q

What is the max dose of propofol for the treatment of cerebral edema/elevated ICP/herniation?

A

5mg/kg/hr

64
Q

What is the dosage for a fentanyl gtt to treat cerebral edema/elevated ICP/herniation?

A

2-5 mcg/kg/hr

65
Q

What is the dosage of propofol in the treatment of cerebral edema/elevated ICP/herniation?

A

20-75 mcg/kg/hr

66
Q

Dexmedetomidine (precedex) gtt dosage in the treamtne of cerebral edema/elevated ICP/herniation?

A

0.2-0.7 mcg/kg/hr

67
Q

Midazolam (versed) gtt dosage in the treatment of cerebral edema/elevated ICP/herniation?

A

0.2-1 mg/hr

68
Q

diazepam (valium) dosage in the treatment of cerebral edema/elevated ICP/herniation?

A

2.5-10 mg single dose

69
Q

lorazepam (ativan) dose in the treatment of cerebral edema/elevated ICP/herniation?

A

0.5-2 mg single dose

70
Q

Cisatracurium (Nimbex) dosage in the treatment of cerebral edema/elevated ICP/herniation?

A
  • 0.1-0.2 mg/kg bolus

- 1- 10 mcg/kg/min continuous

71
Q

Nimbex is titrated to?

A

train of four

72
Q

Why is Mannitol the drug of choice in an emergency situation when brain herniation is pending?

A
  • creates an osmotic gradient across the blood-brain barrier that pulls water from the CNS into the intravascular space
  • decreases blood viscosity
73
Q

Hyperosmolar therapy with Mannitol to treat brain herniation should be avoided in what patients?

A
  • in shock
  • HF
  • significant renal disease
74
Q

What does CPP stand for?

A

cerebral profusion pressure

75
Q

Prophylactic anti-seizure treatment should last no longer than how many days?

A

7 days

76
Q

How many cervical vertebrae are there?

A

7

77
Q

How many thoracic vertebrae are there?

A

12

78
Q

What are the parts of the spinal cord?

A
  • ascending tracks
  • descending tracks
  • gray matter
  • white matter
  • meningeal layer
79
Q

What are the parts of the meningeal layer?

A
  • pia mater
  • arachnoid
  • dura mater
80
Q

Types of spinal injury?

A
  • complete

- incomplete

81
Q

Types of incomplete spinal cord injuries?

A
  • Anterior cord syndrome
  • Posterior cord syndrome
  • Central cord syndrome
  • Brown-Sequard syndrome
  • Cauda equina syndrome
82
Q

Anterior cord syndrome is cause by what type of injury?

A

hyperflexion injury

83
Q

What is tested for in a BMP?

A

a. Bicarb
b. BUN
c. Creatinine
d. Calcium
e. Chloride
f. Glucose
g. Potassium
h. Sodium

84
Q

What is tested for in a CMP?

A

a. Albumin
b. Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
c. ALT
d. AST
e. Bicarb
f. Bilirubin
g. BUN
h. Creatinine
i. Calcium
j. Chloride
k. Glucose
l. Potassium
m. Sodium
n. Total protein