Neuro 2 final Flashcards

1
Q

Where are globular bushy cells located?

A

posterior ventral nucleus

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2
Q

Where are spherical bushy cells located?

A

anterior nucleus

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3
Q

What do bushy cells relay?

A

frequency

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4
Q

What is the ratio of bushy cells to hair cells in the cochlea?

A

1:1

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5
Q

Where are octopus cells located?

A

dorsal/ventral cochlear nuclei

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6
Q

What do octopus cells detect?

A

interval between frequencies

SPECIFICALLY ONSET AND DURATION

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7
Q

Where do octopus cells send axons?

A

anterior nucleus of the LL

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8
Q

Multipolar cells send information about?

A

intensity

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9
Q

the superior olive detects what?

A

localization of sound and intensity differences from side to side

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10
Q

time lag is

A

interaural time

localizing sound in space; comparing one side to the other

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11
Q

interaural time is the responsibility of what structure?

A

SO

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12
Q

The medial SO has what cells?

A

bipolar

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13
Q

the medial SO detects

A

time lag

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14
Q

the medial SO detects frequencies best

A

< 3 KHz

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15
Q

signals from the ipsilateral side are

A

excitatory

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16
Q

signals from the contralateral side are

A

inhibitory

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17
Q

Where does the medial SO receive axons from?

A

anterior ventral cochlear nucleus (bilateral)

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18
Q

What does the lateral SO detect

A

differences in intensity

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19
Q

the lateral So works best at what frequency?

A

> 2-3 KHz

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20
Q

What nuclei does the IC have

A

central, pericentral, external

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21
Q

the LL goes to what nucleus in the IC?

A

central

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22
Q

Some axons from the LL don’t make it to the ipsilateral central nucleus of the IC, where do they go?

A

cross to the other side via the posterior commissure of probst

the go to contralateral central nucleus of the IC or posterior nucleus of the LL

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23
Q

The axons from the posterior nucleus of the LL have what neurotransmitter?

A

GABA

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24
Q

Where does the central nucleus of the IC recieve axons from?

A

LL

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25
Q

Where do the axons from the central nucleus of IC go?

A

anterior part of MG via brachium of IC

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26
Q

Where does the MG send signals to?

A

area 41 (specific thalamic nucleus)

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27
Q

What are the 2 main functions of the central nucleus?

A
  1. interaural time

2. some intensity of sound

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28
Q

What responds to intesity of sound?

A
  1. multipolar cells
  2. SO lateral
  3. central nucleus of the IC
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29
Q

T or F

pericentral and external nuclei are non-specific?

A

T

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30
Q

What is the pericentral pathway?

A

pericentral—->area 42——>back to superior colliculus

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31
Q

The axons returning to the deep SC allow participation in what>?

A

orientation reflex

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32
Q

the deep SC send what tracts to participate in the orientation reflex?

A

tectospinal
(neck mm)
tectomesencephalic/tectopontine
(extrinsic eye mm)

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33
Q

what is the pathway of the external nucleus of the IC?

A

external nucleus of IC—–>medial MG (large)—–>area 42

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34
Q

Neurons of the MG respond to what?

A

combinations of frequency (not individual)

time intervals between frequencies (speech)

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35
Q

Where does the anterior MG receive from?

A

central nucleus of the IC

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36
Q

Where does the medial MG receive from?

A

external nucleus of IC &

SPINAL CORD AND DCNs DIRECTLY

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37
Q

Where does the posterior MG receive from?

A

pericentral nucleus

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38
Q

Area 41 is broken into what?

A

isofrequency columns

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39
Q

area 41 responds to

A

timing and frequency

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40
Q

What is the pathway of area 41/42?

A

area 41/42—–>area 22—->area 39/40——>area 44/45 (Broca’s= area 44)

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41
Q

T or F

Area 41 is made of slabs of cells with concurrent function.

A

F

alternating

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42
Q

The second letter in the isofrequency column refers to….

A

ipsillateral side (sometimes inhibitory)

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43
Q

The first letter in the isofrequency column refers to….

A

contralateral side (always excitatory)

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44
Q

If Broca’s area is destroyed, what happens?

A

you can hear and understand, but are unable to articulate anything in order to respond

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45
Q

Wernicke’s area is responsible for?

A

semantic speech

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46
Q

What happens if Wernicke’s is destroyed?

A

everything sounds like gibberish

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47
Q

What layer of the retina converts to electrical signal?

A

layer 2

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48
Q

What makes up the outer layer of the eye?

A

sclera and cornea

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49
Q

What makes up the middle layer of the eye?

A

choroid + ciliary body/mm + iris

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50
Q

What layer of the retina is the furthest back?

A

1

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51
Q

Where are photoreceptors found?

A

layer 2

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52
Q

What is the area in layer 2 where photoreceptors are concentrated?

A

macula

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53
Q

Where are the cell bodies for the photoreceptors found?

A

layer 4

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54
Q

Where is light focused at in the retina?

A

fovea

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55
Q

The fovea is made entirely of

A

cones

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56
Q

The center of the fovea is known as

A

foveola

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57
Q

After the light goes to layer 2, it then travels to where?

A

ganglion cells of layer 8

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58
Q

The ganglion cells of layer 8 then send to

A

CN II

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59
Q

Where does CN 2 exit the eye?

A

optic disk

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60
Q

T or F

there are photoreceptors in the optic disk.

A

F

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61
Q

Layer 1 of the retina is known as

A

pigment epithelium

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62
Q

Layer 1 function

A

prevents light from scattering; also stores vitamin A

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63
Q

Layer 2 contains ________; which are specialized endings of _________

A

photoreceptors; dendrites

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64
Q

rods detect ______

cones detect _______

A

rods- black and white

cones- color

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65
Q

T or F cones work better in low light situations.

A

F

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66
Q

Rods and cones operate on the basis of

A

receptive fields

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67
Q

T or F

As you move away from the fovea cone concentration increases.

A

F

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68
Q

What is used for peripheral vision?

A

rods

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69
Q

What is used for night vision?

A

rods

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70
Q

What pigment do rods contain?

A

rhodopsin

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71
Q

What do rods release in the abscence of light?

A

glutamate

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72
Q

T or F

Glutamate released from the rods is inhibitory.

A

T

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73
Q

What increases when in the dark?

A

cGMP increases causing a Na+ influx

this causes a release of glutamate turning the bipolar cell off

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74
Q

How is glutamate released in the dark?

A

tonically

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75
Q

What happens when light hits rods?

A

activates Rhodopsin——>break down cGMP—-> decrease Na+——->decrease glutamate—–>bipolar is on

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76
Q

Cones are described as _______cells

A

photopic

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77
Q

What do long-wavelength cones detect?

A

red

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78
Q

What do medium-wavelength cones detect?

A

green

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79
Q

What do short-wavelength cones detect?

A

blue

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80
Q

What is deuteranopia?

A

green-blind—–brown/gray apperance

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81
Q

What is Deuteranomaly?

A

green-defiecient——must be bright for detection

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82
Q

What is achromatic vision?

A

colorblindness

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83
Q

What is the ratio of rods to ganglion cells?

A

10:1

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84
Q

What is the ratio of cones to ganglion cells?

A

1:1

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85
Q

What layer mediates these connections?

A

layer 6

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86
Q

Layer 6 is made up of what cells?

A

horizontal/amacrine

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87
Q

Horizontal cells detect what?

A

changes between dark and light

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88
Q

Amacrine cells detect?

A

change in the change from dark to light

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89
Q

Ganglion cells are found in

A

layer 8

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90
Q

How many ganglion cells per side are there?

A

900K- 1.2 Million

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91
Q

Where is the optic disk located?

A

15 degrees nasal to the fovea

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92
Q

Why dont we notice this in our visual field?

A

Gestalt closure principle——-filling escatoma

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93
Q

What are the types of ganglion cells?

A
  1. M (y)
  2. P (x)
  3. W
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94
Q

What type of ganglion cell does not use a center surround fashion?

A

W

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95
Q

M (y) ganglion cells recieve mostly from?

A

rods

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96
Q

M (y) cells detect

A

movement and contrast

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97
Q

M (y) are large cells and only do

A

black/white

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98
Q

P (x) receive from ________and detect

A

cones; color

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99
Q

P (x) have _______ receptor fields

A

small

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100
Q

W ganglion cells have slow conduction and go to the

A

SC and pre-tectal nucleus

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101
Q

W cells respond to

A

general images of light/dark

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102
Q

T or F

Upper/Lower visual fields swap, so images are projected upside down on the retina.

A

T

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103
Q

The upper visual field projects where?

A

lower LG

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104
Q

The upper visual field loops around ________, this is called what?

A

the temporal lobe,

meyer’s loop

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105
Q

Where does the lower visual field project?

A

dorsal LG

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106
Q

How much of the visual cortex does the macular visual field occupy?

A

50%

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107
Q

Where do all visual fields project?

A

layer IV of area 17

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108
Q

Where is the primary visual cortex most concentrated?

A

calcarine fissure

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109
Q

How many layers make up the LG?

A

6

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110
Q

Which layers of the LG are magnocellular?

A

1 and 2

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111
Q

Where do layers 1 and 2 receive from, and what do they detect?

A

receive from M (y);

movement and contrast

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112
Q

What layers are parvicellular? Where do they receive from?

A

layers 3-6;

P (x)

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113
Q

What do layers 3-6 detect?

A

detail, color, and shape

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114
Q

T or F

In the LG the layers receive either ipsilateal or contralateral ganglion cells, there is an alternating pattern.

A

T

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115
Q

What is area 17 AKA?

A

striate cortex

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116
Q

What is the bright white band of axons in layer 4 of area 17 called?

A

band of Gennari

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117
Q

T or F

Receptive fields in the LG are oval shaped and stellates in layer 4 have their own receptive fields.

A

F

round receptive fields

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118
Q

The stellates in layer 4 of area 17 have this kind of receptive field.

A

elongated receptive fields with center-surround

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119
Q

T or F

There is a 1:1 ratio of LG axons to cortical cells.

A

F

a convergence of many LG axons to a cortical cell

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120
Q

Cortical receptive fields respond to ______ of light.

A

bars

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121
Q

What do these bars end up representing?

A

a single continuous shape by connecting the contour of the bars of light

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122
Q

What are the alternating pattern of contra/ipsi parts known as in area 17?

A

ocular dominance columns

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123
Q

What is the only termination point of the LG in the cortex?

A

layer 4 of area 17

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124
Q

The other layers of area 17 receive from where?

A

layer 4 of area 17

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125
Q

What is found perpindicular to the ocular dominance columns?

A

orientation columns

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126
Q

which cells have the elongated fields?

A

orientation columns

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127
Q

What are the cells of the orientation columns known as?

A

simple cells

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128
Q

Moving away from layer 4 the cells become _______

A

complex cells (layers 2,3,5,6)

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129
Q

Describe complex cells receptive fields.

A

A convergence of the fields from layer 4

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130
Q

What do complex cells lose because of the convergence of fields?

A

center-surround

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131
Q

T or F

Complex cells are orientation specific and pick up movement/direction.

A

T

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132
Q

What are blobs?

A

clusters of cells between the columns; primarily respond to color.

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133
Q

Where do blobs receive from?

A

LG

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134
Q

Do blobs have on/off capability?

A

no

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135
Q

Are blobs layer-specific?

A

no

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136
Q

T or F

Areas 18/19 are made of simple, complex, and hypercomplex cells.

A

F

no simple cells

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137
Q

How many pathways leave area 17?

A

2 streams of the visual cortical pathway

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138
Q

What are the two streams of the visual cortical pathway?

A
Dorsal pathway (parietal)
Ventral pathway (temporal)
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139
Q

Where does the parietal stream terminate?

A

posterior parietal area (7a)

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140
Q

What does the dorsal stream receive signals from and what do they detect?

A

M (y) ganglion cells;

motion, contrast, and localization

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141
Q

Which stream deals with where something is and if it is moving?

A

dorsal

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142
Q

Where do signals pass through to get to the PPA?

A

mid-temporal area

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143
Q

Where does the temporal stream terminate?

A

inferior temporal area (37)

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144
Q

Where does the ventral stream receive signals and what do they deal with?

A

P (x) ganglion

form/shape +color/detail

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145
Q

What is achromotopsia?

A

a form of colorblindness;

trouble with interpretaion of colors; everything is gray

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146
Q

What is prosopagnosia?

A

loss of ability to recognize form (area 17)

inability to recognize people by their face/ only physical features

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147
Q

What are the two ocular movements for visual tracking?

A

saccades + smooth pursuit

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148
Q

What are saccades?

A

sudden jerking movement of the eyes

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149
Q

What is the purpose of saccades?

A

to bring objects into the fovea for focus

can do up to 700 degrees per second

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150
Q

What is smooth pursuit?

A

following a moving object

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151
Q

How fast does smooth pursuit track?

A

30 degrees a second (much slower)

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152
Q

Which ocular movement involves the vestibular apparatus?

A

smooth pursuit

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153
Q

What does PPRF stand for?

A

paramedian pontine reticular formation

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154
Q

What is the PPRF’s function?

A

horizontal gaze center

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155
Q

What activates the PPRF?

A

the SC

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156
Q

If the ipsilateral lateral rectus muscle contracts, what must the contra do?

A

relax

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157
Q

What happens during staring?

A

SNr shuts of the SC; which in turn shuts down the PPRF so no visual tracking occurs

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158
Q

Does the SC normally have the SC tonically inhibited?

A

yes, until ready to visual track something

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159
Q

What is the island of reil?

A

insula;

island of neocortical tissue formed by deep invagination of the lateral fissure

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160
Q

What is the external capsule?

A

the area between the claustrum and puatmen

161
Q

The external capsule is made of?

A

white matter

162
Q

The extreme capsule is…

A

the area between the claustrum and neocortex

163
Q

What does the limbic system deal with?

A

emotional circuitry and memory

164
Q

What types of memory does the limbic system deal with?

A

short-term, spatial, emotional

165
Q

How does memory strengthen?

A

by repetition….strengthening of synapses

166
Q

T or F

The thalamus is a major output of the limbic system?

A

F

hypothalamus

167
Q

What are the classifications of memory?

A

implicit/non-declarative

explicit/declarative

168
Q

Implicit/non-declarative memory is what>?

A

implicit awareness; the subject is not aware they are learning

169
Q

What 3 classificatins fall under implicit memory?

A

motor
emotional
working

170
Q

What is motor memory?

A

how you do things

171
Q

Motor memory is primarily in

A

cerebellum

172
Q

What is emotional memory?

A

processing and storing emotional memory, especially negative emotions

173
Q

Where is emotional memory primarily achieved?

A

amygdala

174
Q

What is working memory?

A

holding something in your memory until you are done with it

175
Q

Where is working memory primarily achieved?

A

pre-frontal cortex

176
Q

What is explicit/declarative memory?

A

verbal; you know you are learning or memorizing something

177
Q

What are the categories explicit memory?

A

immediate (sensory)
short-term
long-term

178
Q

The immediate memory lasts?

A

only a few seconds

179
Q

Short-term memory lasts?

A

minutes to days

180
Q

Short-term memory usually cant do more then how many items? What does it use?

A

7

hippocampus

181
Q

Where does long-term memory take place?

A

neocortex

182
Q

What is long-term based off?

A

Long-Term Potentiation

183
Q

What does LTP involve?

A

glutamate

184
Q

What principal is involved in long term memory?

A

Hebb;

increase synaptic strength through repetition

185
Q

What is consolidation?

A

turning short-term into long-term…….mostly happens at night

186
Q

What is spatial memory?

A

ability to tell where things are in space

187
Q

Sense of direction is a responsibity of the

A

hippocampus (place cells)

188
Q

Damage to the hippocampus disrupts?

A

loss of short-term; loss of new long-term = Alzheimer’s

189
Q

How long before Alzheimer’s symptoms occur can the ____________ be damaged?

A

2 years

nucleus of meynert

190
Q

What are ways to increase memory?

A

repetition
emotional component
relating
understanding

191
Q

What are the two sets of studies/experiments on the limbic system?

A

Kluver-Bucy

Circuit of Papez

192
Q

What is Kuver-Bucy?

A

a result of bilateral damage to the amygdala, they found a set of 5 traditional symtoms collectivly known as Kluvaert-Bucy syndrome

193
Q

What are the 5 symptoms of Kluver-Bucy

A
  1. psychic blindness
  2. hyperactivity
  3. hyperorality
  4. hypersexuality
  5. emotional changes—fearful or aggressive
194
Q

What is the archicortex?

A

3 consecutive layers of cells

neocortex=6

195
Q

What is the hippocampal formation?

A

hippocampus + dentate gyrus + subiculum

196
Q

T or F

the dentate gyrus and hippocampus both archicortices?

A

T

197
Q

hippocampus AKA

A

Ammon’s Horn

198
Q

How many parts make up the hippocampus?

A

4

199
Q

How many layers of cells does the subiculum normally have?

A

4 or 5======not 3 or 6

200
Q

What is the fornix?

A

tracts leaving the hippocampus/dentate gyrus

201
Q

What is the alvus?

A

starting point of axons

202
Q

What is the crus?

A

where the axons thicken

203
Q

What is the body of the fornix?

A

the tapered end

204
Q

Where does the pre-commissural fornix terminate?

A

in the septal nuclei

205
Q

Where does the post-commissural fornix terminate?

A

MB

206
Q

What are the three septal nuclei?

A
  1. Septum pellucidum
  2. lateral septal nucleus
  3. medial septal nucleus
207
Q

Trace the pathway of the posterior column of the fornix.

A

PC of fornix—–>MB——>AD/AV/AM——->cingulate gyrus

208
Q

What part of the circuit of papez did papez not discover?

A

the afferents of the hippocampus

209
Q

The endorhinal cortex receives from where?

A

cingulate gyrus

pyriform cortex

210
Q

The endorhinal sends to?

A

subiculum

then on to the hippocampus, closing the circuit

211
Q

The rhinal fissure is where?

A

seperating the primative olfactory region from the non-olfactory region

212
Q

What does the rhinal fissure mark?

A

the border between the neocortex and the areas medial to it…..namely the pyriform cortex

213
Q

What is the parahippocampal gyrus?

A

mass of cortical tissue surrounding the hippocampus

214
Q

What is the anterior swelling of the parahippocampal gyrus?

A

uncus

215
Q

What is the limbic lobe?

A

a “C” shaped structure made up of: cingulate +parahippocampal gyrus

216
Q

Where does the parahippocampal gyrus terminate?

A

rostrally in the uncus

217
Q

T or F the entohinal cortex is part of the parahippocampal gyrus?

A

T`

218
Q

Where does the pyriform cortex receive from?

A

cingulate gyrus

219
Q

Where does the pyriform cortex send to?

A

entorhinal cortex

220
Q

What does the anterior commissure connect?

A

one olfactory bulb to the other

221
Q

T or F

Olfaction is strongly tied to emotions and memory?

A

T

222
Q

What loop sends axons to the hippocampus to feed vision into emotional circuitry?

A

Meyer’s loop

223
Q

In alzheimer’s disease damage begins where, and goes to where?

A

hippocampus

neocortex

224
Q

What are accessory limbic structures? Are they considered part of the limbic system?

A

olfactory bulb, Pre-Frontal Cortex, parahippocampal gyrus, and nucleus acumbens

225
Q

Where are negative emotions?

A

amygdala

226
Q

Where are positive emotions?

A

septal nuclei and nucleus acumbens

227
Q

What structures from the diencephalon are from the limbic system?

A

anterior thalamic nuclei

hypothalamus

228
Q

What structures from the telencephalon are part of the limbic system?

A

hippocampus/denate?subiculum/
amygdala
septal nuclei
cingulate gyrus

229
Q

What is the amygdala?

A

the core of the limbic system

230
Q

The amygdala processes emotional memory and is chief processor of ________ _____

A

negative emotions

231
Q

What are the three divisions of the amygdala?

A

CM (corticomedial)
BL (basolateral)
Ct (central)

232
Q

T or F

the BL amygdala is closest to the neocortex?

A

F

CM amygdala

233
Q

T or F

The BL amygdala is a continuation of the claustrum?

A

T

234
Q

Where does the posterior column terminate specifically?

A

medial mamillary body

235
Q

Where does the endorhinal cortex receive from specifically?

A

lateral MB

236
Q

The thalamic tubercle receives from where?

A

hippocampus directly and indirectly from MB

237
Q

What are the afferents of the amygdala?

A
  1. olfactory bulb to CM amygdala

2. pyriform cortex to BL amygdala

238
Q

What are the efferents of the amygdala?

A

all 3 regions of the amygdala send to nucleus acumbens

each region has their own efferents

239
Q

What are the efferents of the CM amygdala?

A
  1. PVN
  2. preoptic
  3. VM nuclei (hypothalamus)
  4. septal nuclei
240
Q

What is the CM amygdala and the septal nuclei connection an example of?

A

negative and positive emotions being linked

241
Q

Pre-optic nucleus supplies….

A

testosterone

242
Q

VM supplies….

A

estrogen

also satiety center

243
Q

PVNmc supplies….

A

oxytocin and ADH vasopressin

244
Q

PVNpc supplies?

A

TRH & CRH

245
Q

The CM amygdala coordinates…..

A

olfactory signal with sexual and feeding behavior

246
Q

The BL amygdala sends to

A
  1. MD (thalamus)
  2. nucleus of Meynert
  3. PFC
247
Q

All the efferents of the CM amygdala make up what tract?

A

stria terminalis

248
Q

T or F

The PFC receives from the amygdala directly from the MD and indirectly by bypassing the thalamus.

A

F

it bypasses the thalamus in the direct pathway and indirectly signals through the MD

249
Q

The BL amygdala is responsible for two things….

A
  1. interpretation of emotion

2. coordinates a mental response to the emotional situation

250
Q

The central nucleus is a ______ ______ ______ which means it is always listening.

A

2 way street

251
Q

The Ct amygdla sends to what places?

A
  1. n. tractus solitarius and parabrachialis
  2. motor nucleus of 5 and CN 7
  3. DMn of 10 and nucleus ambiguus
  4. lateral hypothalamus (1 way street)
  5. RVLM (rostral ventral lateral medulla)
252
Q

What does the efferent to the n. tractus solitarius and parabrachialis influence?

A

blood pressure and breathing (emotional)

253
Q

What does the efferent to the motor nucleus of 5 and CN 7 influence?

A

masseter and mm. of facial expression (emotion)

254
Q

What does the efferent to the DMn of 10 and N. ambiguus influence?

A

digestion and excretion (emotion parasympathetic)

255
Q

What does the efferent to the lateral hypothalamus influence?

A

symapthtic emotional influence (1-way)

256
Q

What does the efferent to the RVLM influence?

A

sympathetic hub…..direct to lateral horn

257
Q

The efferents of the BL amygdala and the Ct amygdala make up what?

A

Ventro-amygdalofugal pathway

258
Q

What does the lateral fissure seperate?

A

frontal/parietal lobes from temporal lobe

259
Q

What the central fissure separate?

A

frontal from parietal

260
Q

What does the calcarine fissure separate?

A

nothing, deep medial surface fissure

261
Q

What does the rhinal fissure separate?

A

inferior temporal gyrus from parahippocampal gyrus on medial side

262
Q

What is the order of sulci, fissures, and gyri starting with pre-central sulcus?

A
  1. pre-central sulcus
  2. pre-central gyrus
  3. central fissure
  4. post-central gyrus
  5. post central sulcus
263
Q

post-central gyrus AKA

A

anterior parietal lobule

264
Q

What areas form the anterior parietal lobule?

A

3,1,2 and 43

265
Q

Areas 3,1,2 AKA

A

primary somatosensory cortex

266
Q

T or F

the map of the body in the somatosensory cortex is ipsilateral and upside down.

A

F

It is contralateral and upside down

267
Q

What is comitted the largest areas in 3,1,2?

A

face and hands

lips more specifically

268
Q

T or F

Area 43 is contralateral and is not upside down. (referring to body map)

A

F

it is bilateral and NOT upside down

269
Q

What is space alotted based on?

A

size of area; not importance

270
Q

T or F

Area 43 has a gustatory and slow pain function.

A

T

a small part for gustation and retroinsular for slow pain

271
Q

Area 5/7 receives from

A

LP of thalamus

272
Q

Area 41/42 (heschl) optimal frequency

A

800-3500 Hz

273
Q

Area 17 location

A

upper and lower lip of the calcarine fissure

274
Q

50% of Area 17 is

A

the representaion of the fovea

275
Q

Area 18/19 surrounds area ____ and receives from

A

17;

pulvinar

276
Q

Area 4 aka

A

primary motor area

277
Q

area 4 location

A

frontal lobe

278
Q

area 4 mainly for

A

individual muscles

279
Q

area four concentration

A

distal extremities

280
Q

T or F

Area 4 focuses more on the hand than the face as in Area 3,2,1.

A

T

281
Q

What is the main area in area 4 concerning the face?

A

tongue

282
Q

T or F

Area 4 is bilateral somatotopic map.

A

F

contralateral

283
Q

What area is in front of area 4?

A

Area 6

284
Q

T or F

Both the medial and lateral area 6 have complete somatotopic maps.

A

T

285
Q

Area 6L is known as

A

pre-motor area

286
Q

Area 6L controls

A

axial and proximal limb musculature

setting the posture of movement
pre-motor

287
Q

Area 6M is known as

A

supplementary motor area

288
Q

Area 6M function

A

helps to assemble a sequence of movements

intentional preparation

289
Q

What is the Pathway for mm movement?

A

PFC——>6M (SMA)—–>area 4 and 6L——>corticospinal tract ——>laminae 9———->skeletal mm

290
Q

Area 8 is for

A

frontal eyefield or voluntary eye movements; visual tracking

291
Q

T or F

visual tracking is a voluntary movement

A

F

292
Q

What layer of the neocortex is well developed in sensory areas?

A

layer 4

293
Q

What layer of the neocortex is well developed in motor areas?

A

layer 5

294
Q

Name the 6 layers of the neocortex.

A
  1. molecular layer
  2. external granular layer
  3. external pyramidal
  4. internal granular layer
  5. internal pyramidal
  6. multiform layer
295
Q

What layer is the outer band of baillarger in?

A

layer 4

296
Q

What layer of the neocortex contains medium and large pyramidal cells?

A

layer 5

297
Q

What layer receives the specific thalamic nuclei?

A

layer 4

298
Q

What layer is mostly stellate cells?

A

layer 4

299
Q

What layer of the neocortex contains very few neurons?

A

layer 1

300
Q

What connects layer 3 to layer 2?

A

corticocortico axons

301
Q

corpus callosum aka

A

interhemispheric commisure

302
Q

What does the frontooccipial longitundinal fasiculus hook up?

A

visual areas to PFC

303
Q

What does the uncinate fasiculus hook up?

A

anterior temporal lobe to PFC

304
Q

what are the main areas associated with the term uncommitted cortex?

A

Areas 5 and 7

305
Q

What is Broca’s area?

A

Area 44 on left=motor speech

306
Q

Broca’s area does what in speech?

A

connecting phonemes of speech

not mm. movement

307
Q

What does damage to left area 44 cause?

A

Broca’s aphasia (difficulty with speech articulation

308
Q

Area 44 on the right is used for?

A

spatial perception

309
Q

What is Wernicke’s area?

A

22 main

39/40

310
Q

Area 22 aka

A

superior temporal gyrus

311
Q

area 39 aka

A

angular gyrus

312
Q

area 40 aka

A

supramarginal gyrus

313
Q

area 39 function

A

supports reading, calculations, etc

314
Q

What does Wernicke’s area on the left do?

A

semantic speech (meaning)

315
Q

What is Wernicke’s aphasia and what side being damaged to cause?

A

no trouble speaking, but speech makes no sense

left

316
Q

What is the right side of Wernicke’s area involved in?

A

prosody (non-verbal aspect of speech)

317
Q

What does damage to the right side of Wernicke’s area cause?

A

aprosodia

failure to pick up non-verbal clues of speech

318
Q

What is aphasia?

A

inability to speak

319
Q

What is apraxia?

A

inability to write

320
Q

What is amusia?

A

can’t pick up music—-only noise

321
Q

What is agnosia?

A

loss of sensory knowledge “not-knowing”

322
Q

What is prosopagnosia, and what causes it?

A

failure to recognize people by their face;

damage to inferior temporal region (area 37 and fusiform gyrus)

323
Q

What is asomatognosia and what causes it?

A

a failure to recognize your own body

from damage to right inferior parietal region (usually)

324
Q

What is the last part of the brain to myelinate?

A

PFC

325
Q

What layers are most well-developed in the PFC?

A

2 and 3

326
Q

The PFC has a strong connection with what system?

A

limbic

327
Q

What does the PFC work with?

A

storing-working memory and retrieving other memory

328
Q

What does the orbitofrontal PFC specialize in?

A

motivation, socialization and emotional control

329
Q

What does the dorsal PFC specialize in?

A

matching, decision making, and prediction (prognostication)

330
Q

The left side of the brain has what characteristics?

A
  1. more blood supply
  2. tends to be more analytical
  3. sequential
  4. detailed

considered scientific

331
Q

What are the characteristics of the right side of the brain?

A
  1. intuitive
  2. holistic
  3. parallel (many thoughts at the same time)

considered creative

332
Q

T or F

In regards to ascending spinal tracts, short tracts are confined to the spinal cord.

A

T

interspinal/intersegmental

333
Q

Long ascending spinal tracts do what?

A

connect the spinal cord to something above like the brain

334
Q

What are the neuron bodies of the DCs?

A

DRGs

335
Q

What does the DC/ML system carry?

A

2 pt touch, proprioception, pressure and also tactile vibration

336
Q

T or F

The DC/ML system is the only system to relay tactile vibration.

A

T

337
Q

Where are the destinations for the DC/ML system?

A

conscious-area 3,1,2

unconscious- cerebellum

338
Q

Where does gracilis bring sensation from?

A

lower body (foot, leg, etc.) more medial

339
Q

Where does cuneatus bring sensation from

A

from upper body (gets larger above T6)

340
Q

At T1 which is larger cuneatus or gracilis?

A

cuneatus

341
Q

After the ML decussation where is cuneatus located?

A

Lateral to gracilis

342
Q

T or F

Fibers from the external band of baillarger originate in the ML.

A

T

343
Q

T or F

some axons from the ML terminate in the non-specific nuclei of the CM.

A

T

344
Q

Where do axons from gracilis terminate?

A

lateral VPL (lower body)

345
Q

Where do axons from cuneatus terminate?

A

medial VPL (upper body)

346
Q

Where do axons from trigeminothalamic tract terminate?

A

VPM (face)

347
Q

What does area 3a detect?

A

muscle stretch

348
Q

What does area 3b detect?

A

slow-adapting cutaneous receptors

349
Q

what does area 2 detect?

A

joints/mm. fascia

350
Q

What is a primary order neuron?

A

psudounipolar neuron of the DRG

351
Q

The primary order neuron makes up the ______s.

A

DCs

352
Q

What does the secondary neuron do?

A

Goes from DCNs to VPL

makes up ML

353
Q

What does tertiary order neuron do?

A

goes from VPL to neocortex

354
Q

What does quaternary order neuron do?

A

it remains in neocortex (areas 3,2,1 and 43)

355
Q

What does the anterolateral ascending spinal pathway carry?

A

pain, temp, and crude touch

356
Q

Trace the pathway of anterolateral ascending spinal pathway from impulse to lateral spnothalamic tract.

A

psudounipolar cell sensation——>terminate in laminae 1-3 (primarily 2)—–>most signals to lamina 5——->anterolateral movement across white commissure——->anterior lateral funiculus—–>lateral spinothalamic tract

357
Q

T or F
The segment of entry in the anterolateral ascending spinal pathway is normally 3 to four segments above the beginning segment.

A

F

1 to 2 segments above

358
Q

T or F

In the lateral spinothalamic tract the lower body is medial and upper body is lateral.

A

F

vice versa

359
Q

T or F

lateral spinothalamic tract crosses in the cord whereas the ML crosses in the brain.

A

T

360
Q

T or F
The spinoreticular, spinotectal, lat. spinal thalamic, spinal mesencephalic, and spinoolivary are all part of posterolateral ascending spinal pathway?.

A

F

anterolateral

361
Q

T or F

The map systems of the ML and anterolateral ascending spinal pathway are reversed in orientation once at the thalamus.

A

F

indentical at thalamus

362
Q

What is the procedure done when a patient is experiencing chronic severe pain?

A

anterolateral cordotomy

363
Q

T or F

An anterolateral cordotomy will only last about 3 years.

A

T

364
Q

What is the destination of the spinomesencephalic tract?

A

PAG

this tract is considered spinoreticular

365
Q

What is the sensation of the neospinalthalamic tract?

A

1st pain and crude touch

1st pain pathway is very well localized, well tolerated, and very rapid

366
Q

What is the destination of the neospinalthalamic tract?

A

VPLc—->Areas 3,1,2 (SS1)

367
Q

What does the paleospinothalamic tract carry?

A

2nd pain and temp

pain is poorly localized and poorly tolerated
“suffering pain”

368
Q

What is the destination of the paleospinalthalamic tract?

A

post. nucleus of the thalamus—->retroinsular area of area 43—–>anterior insula—–>amygdala/entorhinal—–>hippocampus

369
Q

What kind of axons carry slow pain?

A

C

370
Q

What kind of axons carry fast pain?

A

A delta

371
Q

What tracts are involved in pain gating?

A

raphespinal

372
Q

Trace the pain-gating pathway.

A

Anterolateral ascending spinal pathway—–>PAG—(descending)—–>Raphe magnus—–>raphespinal trcats—–>lamina 2

373
Q

What do neurons leaving the PAG secrete?

A

enkephalins

374
Q

Are enkephalins excitatory or inhibitory?

A

inhibitory

375
Q

Neurons from raphe magnus terminate on lamina 2 and _____. These neurons secrete ______.

A

5

secrete serotonin

376
Q

How does serotonin affect lamina 2?

A

excitatory

377
Q

How does serotonin affect lamina 5?

A

inhibitory

378
Q

What is the purpose of serotonin exciting lamina 2?

A

When lamina 2 is excited it will inhibit lamina 1,2,5 using endorphins.

379
Q

T or F

Endorphins and Enkephalins are the body’s natural painkillers.

A

T

380
Q

Why does putting pressure on a wound relieve pain?

A

The Aa and Ab that ascend the spinal cord as cuneatus and gracilis give a branch to lamina 2. The pressure excites lamina 2 and releases endorphins. endorphins shut down pain

381
Q

What is referred pain?

A

When class B fibers from the splachnic nn. bring in pain and temp from viscera. Lamina 5 cannot distinguish between B axons and C/Ad axons. so pain can be misinterpreted

382
Q

What is the most lateral tract of the spinal cord?

A

spinocerebeller tract.

383
Q

What sensation does the spinocerebellar tract carry?

A

discrimination touch, light louch, pressure, proprioception

384
Q

Tract the spinocerebellar tract from origin of sensation to the inferior cerebellar pedunkle.

A

primary stretch receptor—->DRG—–>medial lamina 7 (nucleus of clarke)——>posterior lateral funiculus—–>posterior spinocerebellar tract—–>inferior cerebellar pedunkle

385
Q

Which is larger, posterior spinocerebellar tract, or ant.?

A

posterior

386
Q

Nucleus of clarke goes from where to where?

A

C8-L3

387
Q

What is the nucleus of clarke?

A

a relay for the spinocerrebellar tract.

388
Q

After entering the inferior cerebellar pedunkle what happens to the spinocerebellar tract?

A

inferior cerebellar pedunkle—(now MOSSY FIBERS)–>cerebellar granule cells–(PARALLEL FIBERS)–>ends on purkinje cells (ipsilateral vermis and paravermis)

389
Q

T or F

axons will ascend in fasiculus cuneatus below L3 until they reach a segment where a nucleus of clarke is present.

A

F

they ascend in fasiculus gracilis below L3

390
Q

What happens above C8? (regarding spinocerebellar)

A

it will not descend to look for clarke.

it ascends in cuneatus until reaching the accessory cuneate nucleus in the medulla

391
Q

The axons leaving the accessory cuneate nucleus then do what?

A

enter the cerebellum through the inferior cerebellar pedunkle

392
Q

What is the tract from the accessory cuneate nucleus to the cerebellum called?

A

cuneocerebellar tract

393
Q

What tract creates the posterior external arcuate fibers?

A

cuneocerebellar tract

394
Q

Where is the anterior spinocerebellar tract found?

A

coccygeal, sacral, and lumbar region (nothing above L1)

395
Q

T or F

Anterior spinocerebellar tract axons have a synapse at the n. of clarke.

A

F

any neuron in lamina 7 except clarke

396
Q

Do Anterior spinocerebellar tract axons go to the contralateral cerebellum?

A

Yes, 85-90% of the time

397
Q

Where do axons from the Anterior spinocerebellar tract axons enter the cerebellum?

A

superior cerebellar pedunkle

398
Q

parvermis aka

A

intermediate lobe