Neonatology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the features of congenital rubella syndrome?

A

Absent red reflex
Widespread pupiric rash (ITP)
Sensoryneural hearing loss
PDA.

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2
Q

What is the treatment for hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy?

A

Therapeutic hypothermia

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3
Q

Describe the process of therapeutic hypothermia for treatement of HIE

A

Reduction of core body temperature to 33.5°C for 72 hours followed by a slow rewarming phase (0.5°C/hour increase) over 6 hours.
Start within 6 hours of birth!

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4
Q

What does RDS and a scaphoid abdomen suggest?

A

congenital diaphragmatic hernia

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5
Q

What is the first line anti-convulsant medication in neonates?

A

Phenobarbitol

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6
Q

What is pathagnomic x-ray finding for necrotising enteroclitiis and what does it look like?

A

Pneumatosis intestinalis.
Gas within bowel wall, dark lines around bowel loops
(also may have air under diaphragm)

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7
Q

What are the potential causes of sudden new O2 requirment in intubated and ventialted neonate?

A

Displaced ET tube
Obstructed ET tube
Pneumothorax
Equipment failure

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8
Q

What does bruising and oedema on neonates head, above the periosteum and over the suture lines, but well demarcated suggest?

A

Caput Succedaneum
A/W Ventouse delivery

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9
Q

What does swelling of neonates head confined to suture lines suggest?

A

Cephalohaematoma

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10
Q

When should premature babies recieve vaccinations?

A

Same as all babies.
If born <28 weeks gestation requires in hosptial vaccination and 48-72 hour monitoring as increased risk of apnoea

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11
Q

What population of babies are at greater risk of RDS secondary to surfactant deficiency disease?

A

Babies of mothers with poorly controlled diabetes.

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12
Q

Define Potters Syndrome

A

Caused by Oligohydraminos + subsequent compression of foetus
P-Pulmonary hypoplasia
O -Oligohydramnios
T -Twisted skin (wrinkly skin)
T -Twisted face (Potter facies: flattened ‘parrot-beaked’ nose, low-set cartilage-deficient ears, retrognathia, hypertelorism)
E -Extremity deformities (limb deformities: club hands and feet, joint contractures)
R -Renal abnormalities (bilateral renal agenesis, obstructive uropathy, autosomal-recessive polycystic kidney disease or dysplastic kidneys)

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13
Q

When is hypospadias corrected?
What do parents need to know?

A

6-12 months
do NOT circumcise

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14
Q

How would you investigate Brachial nerve palsy?

A

chest x-ray to r/o a clavicle or humeral fracture or diaphragmatic palsy

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15
Q

What are the 3 types of brachial nerve palsy? What berve roots are effected?

A

Erb’s palsy = C5, C6, +/- T1
Klumpke’s palsy = C8, T1
Total palsy C5-T1

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16
Q

What is the difference in clinical presentation of Erb’s and Kumpke’s palsy?

A

Erbs: arm is adducted and internally rotated with elbow extended, forearm is in pronation and wrist is flexed
Klumpke: Claw hand. a/w horners

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17
Q

What is first line treatment of Erb’s Palsy?

A

Rest and careful hadnling for 1-2 weeks, then physiotherapy.
70-80% resolution in 6 weeks.

18
Q

Which pregnant ladies are offered antenatal steroids?

A

All women between 24+0 and 33+6 weeks of pregnancy who are at risk of preterm delivery within 7 days. Deliver 1-7 days after administration

19
Q

What are the features of a haemodynamically significant PDA?

A

pansystolic and pandiastolic murmur -machinery type mumur
acitve pericordium with a wide pulse pressure
Cardiac failure symptoms

20
Q

What are the characteristic clinical findings of NEC?

A

Abdominal distension, bilious aspirates and blood with mucus in the stool are all characteristic findings

21
Q

Define Grade 1 IVH

A

germinal matrix haemorrhage with or without IVH (less than 10% of ventricle filled with blood)

22
Q

Define Grade 2 IVH

A

IVH (10%–50% of ventricle filled with blood), typically without ventricular dilation.

23
Q

Define Grade 3 IVH

A

IVH (greater than 50% of ventricle filled with blood) typically with ventricular dilation

24
Q

Define Grade 4 IVH

A

periventricular haemorrhagic infarction.

25
Q

Which babies get screened for ROP?

A

<32 weeks gestational age or < 1501 g birth weight

26
Q

What is treatment for ROP?

A

Laser ablation
Intraocular injections of anti-VEGF agents such as bevacizumab for central ROP

27
Q

How is the clinical severity of PPHN calculated?

A

Using the oxygenation index
Fi O2 x Mean arterial pressure / post-ductal PaO2

28
Q

How do you manage hypoglycaemic neonate with blood glucose < 1?

A

IV bolus 10 % dextrose
Also: blood glucose, insulin, cortisol, growth hormone, fatty acids, ketone bodies, carnitine, acylcarnitine profile, amino acids, ammonia, lactate.
urine ketones and organic acids

29
Q

How do you mange hypoglycaemic yet asymptomatic baby with Blood glucose of 2.5?

A

Help to establish feeding

30
Q

How do you manage hypoglycaemic yet asymptomatic baby with blood glucose 1- 1.9?

A

Buccal dextrose gel.
Help to establish feeding.

31
Q

How do you manage hypoglycaemic neonate with BM > 1 yet is symptomatic?

A

IV bolus 10 % dextrose
Also: blood glucose, insulin, cortisol, growth hormone, fatty acids, ketone bodies, carnitine, acylcarnitine profile, amino acids, ammonia, lactate.
urine ketones and organic acids

32
Q

What is second line treatment for neonatal seizures?

A

Phenytoin

33
Q

At what level of thrombocytopenia would you consider platelet transfusion in neonate?

A

25x 10^(9)/l

34
Q

In neonate with absent thymic shadow, what do you need to consider?

A

Di George Syndrome!

35
Q

Where do you measure pre-ductal sats?

A

Right hand

36
Q

What can cause persistent pulmonary hypertension of the neonate?

A

meconium aspiration syndrome
severe sepsis
congenital pneumonia
respiratory distress syndrome
congenital diaphragmatic hernia

37
Q

What suggests PPHN?

A

Evidence of somethign that can cause PPHN
Big pre and post ductal saturation difference
Low O2 sat and normal CO2
Cardiac echo

38
Q

How do you treat PPHN?

A

Inhaled nitric oxide 20 ppm
ECMO

39
Q

What is investigation of choice for malrotation + volvulous?

A

Upper Gi contrast study

40
Q

What artery is most likely occluded in maltoration?

A

Superior messenteric artery

41
Q
A