MSK: Osteoporosis, Osteopenia, and AVN Flashcards

1
Q

Osteomalacia

A

Soft bone due to excessive unmineralized osteoid, usually related to vitamin D issues (e.g. renal failure, liver disease, etc.)

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2
Q

Imaging findings of osteomalacia

A
  • Ill-defined trabeculae
  • Ill-definted corticomedullary junction
  • Bowing of the bones
  • Looser zones (a subtype of insufficiency fracture)
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3
Q
A

Looser zones (lucent bands that run perpendicular to the cortex with surrounding sclerosis)

Note: These are a type of insufficiency fracture commonly seen at the femoral neck and pubic rami.

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4
Q
A

Looser zones (a type of insufficiency fracture)

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5
Q

Differential for looser zones

A
  • Osteomalacea
  • Rickets
  • Osteogenesis imperfecta (rare)
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6
Q

Imaging findings of osteoporosis

A
  • Thin sharp cortex
  • Prominent trabecular bars
  • Lucent metaphyseal bands
  • Spotty lucencies
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7
Q

What are the most common fractures in the setting of osteoporosis?

A
  • Spine (most common)
  • Hip (2nd)
  • Wrist (3rd)
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8
Q

What is the DEXA T score relative to?

A

A young adult

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9
Q

What is the T score that defines osteoporosis?

A

T score less than -2.5

Note: T score of -1.0 to -2.5 is osteopenia.

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10
Q

What should a normal DEXA T score be?

A

Above -1.0

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11
Q

What is the DEXA Z score relative to?

A

An age-matched database

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12
Q

Common cause of a false positive DEXA

A

Absence of normal structures (e.g. laminectomies)

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13
Q

Common causes of false negatives on DEXA

A
  • Including high density things that shouldn’t be included (e.g. Sclerosis, osteophytes, dermal calcifications, metal objects, etc.)
  • Including too much of the femoral shaft while measuring the hip
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14
Q

What does the FRAX tool estimate?

A

10-year probability of a major fracture

Note: Pts with an elevated FRAX might benefit from therapy even if they are only osteopenic.

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15
Q

What is considered an elevated FRAX score (meaning treatment should be considered even though they aren’t osteoporotic)?

A

> 3% risk of hip fracture

Or

> 20% risk of major fracture

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16
Q

What are the most common sites involved in reflex sympathetic dystrophy (AKA complex regional pain syndrome)?

A

Hands and shoulders

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17
Q

Chronic right hand pain following a remote fracture…

A

Reflex sympathetic dystrophy (AKA complex regional pain syndrome)

Note: Periarticular osteopenia distal to a right radial fracture.

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18
Q

Chronic left wrist pain

A

Reflex sympathetic dystrophy (AKA complex regional pain syndrome)

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19
Q

Imaging findings of reflex sympathetic dystrophy (AKA chronic regional pain syndrome)

A
  • Regional severe osteopenia with preserved joint spaces
  • 3 phase hot region on bone scan (intraarticular uptake is classic due to increased vascularity of the synovial membrane)
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20
Q

What are the two major types of transient osteoporosis?

A
  • Transient osteoporosis of the hip
  • Regional migratory osteoporosis
21
Q

30 y/o F with third trimester pregnancy

A

Transient osteoporosis of the hip

Note: This will resolve in a few months.

22
Q

Third trimester pregnancy

A

Transient osteoporosis of the hip

Note: This will resolve in a few months.

23
Q

Third trimester pregnancy

A

Transient osteoporosis of the hip

Note: This will resolve in a few months.

24
Q

50 y/o M with joint pain associated with focal osteoporosis that gets better, but then shows up again in a different joint…

A

Regional migratory osteoporosis

Note: This is self-limiting and more common in males than females.

25
Q
A

Avascular necrosis of the right femoral head

26
Q
A

Avascular necrosis of the left femoral head

27
Q
A

Subchondral insufficiency fracture

Note: Avascular necrosis should have a more serpiginous dark line that doesn’t parallel the subchondral bone.

28
Q

Post contrast

A

Malignant vertebral compression fracture

Note: Avid enhancement that extends beyond the deformed bone with an expanded posterior convex border. Osteoporotic compression fractures typically result in a more band-like appearance.

29
Q
A

Benign vertebral compression fracture

Note: There is a linear, horizontal fracture line. If there were nonlinear abnormal marrow signal with involvement of the posterior margin, then you should think about malignancy.

30
Q
A

Think malignant replacement of bone marrow

Note: Normally the vertebral body bone marrow should be brighter than adjacent intervertebral discs on TI.

31
Q

Next step:

A

Image the entire spine (looking for other metastases)

32
Q

Osteochondritis dissscans

A

Aseptic separation of an osteochondral fragment from the underlying bone that can lead to gradual fragmentation of the articular surface and secondary osteoarthritis

Note: Most of the time this is secondary to trauma or avascular necrosis.

33
Q

Osteochondritis dissecans is most common in what pt population?

A

Males under age 18

34
Q

What is the most classic location for osteochondritis dissecans?

A
  • Femoral condyle
  • Patella
  • Talus
  • Capitellum
35
Q

What is the staging system for osteochondritis dissecans?

A

Stage 1: Stable (covered by intact cartilage, continuous with host bone)

Stage 2: Stable on probing, partial discontinuity with host bone

Stage 3: Unstable on probing, complete discontinuity of lesion

Stage 4: Dislocated fragment

36
Q

What imaging feature should you look for to suggest that an osteochondral lesion is unstable?

A

High T2 signal between the osteochondral fragment and underlying bone

Note: Edema can cause a false positive.

37
Q

What is a common location for osteochondritis dissecans in pitchers?

A

The capitellum of the dominant arm (specifically the anterior convex margin)

Note: Image shows osteochondral dissecans (yellow arrow) and loose body formation (red arrow).

38
Q
A

Pseudo-defect of the posterior capitellum

Note: The posterior capitellum can appear to have an osteochrondral defect on coronal images when you are actually just seeing the non-articular portion of the capitellum (look at sagittal images to confirm).

39
Q

Panner disease

A

Osteochondrosis of the capitellum (developmental disorder of the growing capitellum epiphysis)

Note: This occurs in younger males (7-12 y/o) compared to osteochondritis dissecans, which usually occurs in males age 12-16.

40
Q

9 y/o male pitcher with lateral elbow pain

A

Panner’s disease (developmental disorder of the growing capitellum epiphysis)

Note: This involves the entire capitellum and occurs in younger males (7-12 y/o) compared to osteochondritis dissecans, which usually occurs in males age 12-16.

41
Q

Osteochondroses

A

Developmental disorders of a growing epiphysis/apophysis with findings of collapse, sclerosis, and fragmentation (suggesting avascular necrosis)

Note: These are seen in childhood.

42
Q

Male 4-6 y/o

A

Kohl’s disease (osteochondrosis of the taller navicular)

Note: Treatment is not surgical.

43
Q

Adolescent female

A

Freiberg infraction (osteochondrosis of the second metatarsal head)

Note: This can lead to secondary osteoarthritis.

44
Q
A

Sever’s disease (AKA calcaneal apophysitis)

Note: This represents osteochondrosis of the calcaneal apophysis. Some people think this is a normal finding.

45
Q

Pediatric pt age 4-8

A

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease (osteochondrosis os the femoral head)

46
Q

Adults age 20-40

A

Kienbock disease (osteochondrosis of the lunate)

Note: This is associated with negative ulnar variance.

47
Q
A

Scheuermann disease (osteochondrosis of the thoracic spine leading to wedging of 3 adjacent levels and exaggerated thoracic kyphosis)

48
Q

Pediatric pt age 10-15

A

Osgood-Schlatter disease (osteochondrosis of the tibial tubercle)

Note: This is commonly seen in kids who jump and kick a lot.

49
Q

Pediatric pt age 10-15

A

Sinding-Larsen-Johansson disease (osteochondrosis of the inferior patella)

Note: This is commonly seen in kids who jump a lot.