Molecular Applications Flashcards
1
Q
- What is generally considered a significant change in a patient’s HIV-1 viral load?
a. 0.2 log10 copies/mL
b. 0.3 log10 copies/mL
c. 0.5 log10 copies/mL
d. 1.0 log10 copies/mL
A
b. 0.3 log10 copies/mL
2
Q
- For nucleic acid testing of CT and NG, how long do NAATs
remain positive after successful treatment of patients?
a. 1 day
b. 1 week
c. 3 weeks
d. 3 months
A
3
Q
- Which is a gene target used extensively in taxonomic
metagenomics studies?
a. 5S rRNA
b. 16S rRNA
c. 23S rRNA
d. 30S rRNA
A
4
Q
- Which of the following is the most common mutation
identified in the CFTR gene?
a. p.Arg68Cys
b. p.Arg117His
c. p.Ile507del
d. p.Phe508del
A
5
Q
- Which of the following HTT genotypes would be diagnostic for Huntington disease? CAG repeats of:
a. 17 and 34
b. 19 and 45
c. 12 and 15
d. 14 and 27
A
6
Q
- Whole exome sequencing is most useful in patients:
a. with a constellation of findings associated with a
known microdeletion syndrome
b. with a phenotype suspected to be the result of a balanced translocation
c. with a constellation of findings that are not associated with any known disorder
d. with a phenotype suspected to be related to a mutation in a single gene
A
7
Q
- What is the most common ctDNA used for clinical tests
in cancer patients?
a. methylated DNA
b. integrated DNA
c. amplified genomic DNA
d. mutation in DNA of gene exons
e. viral DNA
A
8
Q
- In nasopharyngeal carcinoma patients, what viral ctDNA
is of clinical utility?
a. Herpes virus
b. Papilloma virus
c. EB virus
d. HIV virus
A
9
Q
- In non-small cell lung cancer patients, what cancer mutation and detection method is most frequent and FDA
approved for ctDNA monitoring of the respective targeted therapy?
a. BRAF
b. EGFR
c. KRAS
d. P53
A
10
Q
- What are the main benefits of CTCs analysis?
a. It is easy, standardized, and high throughput
b. It can give valuable prognostic and predictive information for the presence of active metastasis in cancer
patients both at the DNA, and at the gene expression
level
c. CTCs are directly comparable with the primary
tumor
d. CTCs are all identical and thus easy to detect at very
low levels
A
11
Q
- Cell free-fetal DNA
a. is predominantly cleared via the maternal kidneys
b. is predominantly shorter than the maternally derived
cell-free DNA in maternal plasma
c. shows a peak size of 246 bp
d. is the predominant species of cell-free DNA in maternal plasma
e. is predominantly derived from the fetal liver
A
12
Q
- Analysis of cell-free fetal DNA
a. using maternal serum is preferred over maternal plasma
b. is only applicable during the second trimester of
pregnancy
c. could only be achieved by the detection of chromosome Y
d. is important to assess the fetal fraction
e. cannot be based on massively parallel sequencing due
to its scarce quantity
A
13
Q
- Noninvasive fetal chromosomal aneuploidy assessment
by circulating cell-free fetal DNA analysis
a. is only applicable to trisomy 13
b. could be preceded by conventional maternal serum
biochemistry screening
c. shows equal performance for chromosome 21 and
the sex chromosomes
d. is not applicable to the deletion of fetal microdeletion
e. is restricted to the third trimester of pregnancy
A
14
Q
- The most sensitive method for routine molecular monitoring of response to TKI therapy in chronic myelogenous leukemia patients is
a. fluorescence in situ hybridization
b. massively parallel sequencing
c. RT-qPCR
d. karyotyping
A
15
Q
- TP53 loss of function mutations confer a poor prognosis
in hematopoietic malignancies as TP53 generally plays
the role of
a. receptor tyrosine kinase
b. tumor suppressor
c. RNA splicing molecule
d. chromatin modifier
A