Module 3 drugs Flashcards

1
Q

Salvarsan

A

organic arsenic compounds used to treat syphilis and trypanosomiasis; discovered at turn of 20th century

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Prontosil

A

sulfanilamide; pro-drug sulfa antibiotic. First sulfa drug.
Drug gets converted into sulfanilamide in body
Inhibits folic acid synthesis in bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

mercury compounds

A

used to be injected intraurethrally to treat syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

sulfadiazine

A

modern sulfa antibiotic; one of main ingredients in silver sulfadiazine cream used extensively for burns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

sulfamethoxazole

A

sulfa antibacterial; one of main ingredients in Septra and Bactrim combination antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

penicillin V

A

“pen-vee”; acid stable penicillin so can be given orally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

amoxicillin

A

aminopenicillin; very similar to ampicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

ampicillin

A

aminopenicillin; very similar to amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Bicillin

A

penicillin antibiotic; given by IM or IV; first mass produced antibiotic in US (in 1940s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ticarcillin

A

4 gen penicillin; antipseudomonal penicillin given by IM or IV; has extended spectrum of action against gram negative bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Augmentin

A

amoxicillin/clavulanate combination; used against B-lactamase producing bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

penicillins

A

bind to penicillin-binding proteins on bacteria cell wall and stop cell wall synthesis; have B-lactam rings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

quinolones

A

interfere with genetic duplication of bacteria by interfering with DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV (the enzymes that untwist DNA so it can be read then fold it back up)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

aminoglycosides

A

inhibit bacterial protein synthesis; most given parenterally or topically and usually in hospital from kidney toxicity and hearing issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

streptomycin

A

first aminoglycoside discovered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

gentamicin

A

modern prototype aminoglycoside; used systemically by parenteral admin for gram negative species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

cephalosporins

A

have B-lactam ring that interferes with bacterial cell wall synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Keflex

A

cephalexin; first gen cephalosporin. Good for staphylococcus and streptococcus infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Ceclor

A

cefaclor; second gen cephalosporin. Good for staphylococcus and streptococcus infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Rocephin

A

ceftriaxone; third gen cephalosporin. Good for STIs like chlamydia and gonorrhea (admin into urethra is painful so often given with lidocaine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

carbapenems and monobactams

A

B lactam antibacterials that inhibit cell wall synthesis; used for complicated infections caused by organisms resistant to other agents
Only parenteral admin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Azactam

A

aztreonam; best known monobactam. Works great against gram negative bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

tetracyclines

A

inhibit protein synthesis; the original broad-spectrum antibiotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

tetracycline

A

one specific drug in tetracycline family; sometimes used for treating acne but causes GI upset so often not well tolerated
*has high affinity for Ca2+ and can cause teeth staining in young children; cannot be taken with milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Minocin

A

minocycline; tetracycline antibiotic that causes less side effects than tetracycline and used more often

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Vibramycin

A

doxycycline; tetracycline antibiotic that causes less side effects than tetracycline and used more often

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

fluoroquinolones

A

broad spectrum antibiotics that inhibit DNA synthesis directly (not through folic acid inhibition). Some of best outpatient antibiotics for not run of the mill infections; used for severe eye infections, kidney, sinus, or anthrax infections
*but conclusively linked to tendinitis and tendon rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Cipro

A

ciproflaxacin; fluoroquinolone antibiotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Levaquin

A

levoflaxacin; fluoroquinolone antibiotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

macrolides

A

erythromycin-like drugs; broad-spectrum antibiotics that interfere with bacterial protein synthesis
Have large ring structures
*Alternative to penicillins (when they are allergic) and used orally mostly for common infections of skin and upper respiratory tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

erythromycin

A

macrolide antibiotic; not used much anymore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

ketolide antibiotics

A

work by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

spinoff macrolides

A

synthetically produced and are much better than regular macrolides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Zithromax

A

azithromycin; synthetic macrolide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Biaxin

A

clarithromycin; synthetic macrolide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

vancomycin

A

used to treat MRSA (methicillin resistant S. aureus); oral or IV
Kind of toxic so not used much besides MRSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Flagyl

A

metronidazole; for anaerobic infections (such as vaginitis or skin infections), but will also treat protozoan infections like Giardia lamblia (‘Bever Fever’)
Makes GI very upset, so bad drug to take systemically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Cleocin

A

clindamycin; bacterial protein synthesis inhibitor; common topical acne medication
Another alternative to penicillin for allergic people
Have very large ring structures
Treat anaerobic infections like those that cause vaginitis or skin infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

clavulanic acid

A

clavulanate; B-lactam, but is suicide substrate for B-lactamase and has even greater binding affinity than penicillin so can block B-lactamase so B-lactams can actually work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Septra DS

A

trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole; combination antibiotic used to treat uncomplicated UTIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Bactrim

A

trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole; combination antibiotic used to treat uncomplicated UTIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

trimethoprim

A

antibiotic that stops dihydrofolatase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

imipenem-cilastatin

A

carbapenem antibiotic; given by IM or IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

timentin

A

combination antibiotic; ticarcillin/clavulanic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

sulfisoxazole

A

sulfonamide antibiotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

chloramphenicol

A

bacterial protein synthesis inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

methicillin

A

synthetic drug that is resistant to B-lactamase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

neomycin

A

aminoglycoside antibiotic; used in many antibiotic ointments (too toxic for internal use)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

bacitracin

A

topical antibiotic in ointments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

polymyxin B

A

topical antibiotic in ointments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Claforan

A

cefotaxime; third gen cephalosporin used in ED a lot for treating STIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

piperacillin

A

fourth gen penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

tazobactam

A

B-lactamase inhibitor like clavulanic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

antibiotic families and mechanisms

A

fluoroquinolones; direct inhibition of DNA/RNA synthesis
sulfonamide; folate synthesis inhibition to stop DNA synthesis
tetracycline, macrolides, aminoglycosides; inhibition of protein synthesis
penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems, monobactams; cell wall synthesis inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Symmetrel

A

amantadine; first of antivirals to prevent influenza

Too many side e’s so not used much anymore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Relenza

A

zanamivir; neuraminidase inhibitor to treat flu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Tamiflu

A

oseltamivir; neuraminidase inhibitor to treat flu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

IIV3 and IIV4

A

two inactivated flu vaccines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

LAIV; Fluzone

A

FluMist; new quadrivalent live vaccine (two types of influenza A and B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

TIV

A

trivalent influenza vaccine; good against two types of influenza A and one of B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Zovirax

A

acyclovir; treats herpes infections like Herpes Simplex Virus type 1 (cold sores/fever blisters) and type 2 (genital herpes). Originally a topical cream applied to sores, then more effect 5/day pill came out.
Does not cure disease, but makes break outs heal in 3-4 days instead of 2-3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Valtrex

A

valacyclovir; much more popular herpes drug than Zovirax b/c it is 1-2 pills a day instead of 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Famvir

A

famciclovir; much more popular herpes drug than Zovirax b/c it is 1-2 pills a day instead of 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

NRTIs

A

nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors; nukes; prevent HIV replication through inhibiting RNA to DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

AZT

A

zidovudine; first NRTI found to be effective for lessening severity of AIDS

66
Q

NNRTIs

A

non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors; bind directly to reverse transcriptase (at a site different than the nucleoside binding site)

67
Q

PIs

A
protease inhibitors; target viral protease enzyme needed in final stages of viral replication to get proteins into correct forms to yield new viruses
Most potent class of HIV antiviral drugs
68
Q

HAART

A

highly active antiretroviral therapy; combination of NARTIs, NNARTIs, and PIs;

69
Q

Atripla

A

two nukes and one non-nuke AIDS combination; created to reduce pill burden and simplify dosing schedule but very expensive

70
Q

ribavirin

A

synthetic nucleoside anti-metabolite drug that interferes with gene duplication of viruses; used to treat deadly viruses like RSV, hemorrhagic fevers (like ebola), Hantavirus (hantavirus pulmonary syndrome), and Hepatitis C (used in combination with interferons)

71
Q

interferons

A

produced by WBCs to modulate immune system and used to treat diseases like hep C or MS (B-interferon)

72
Q

B-interferon

A

used to treat diseases like MS, but very expensive

73
Q

Megace

A

megestrol; progesterone-like hormone that is an appetite stimulator used for pts. with cachexia

74
Q

Marinol

A

dronabinol; THC drug that stops nausea/vomiting and increases appetite equal to actual marijuana; used for pts. with cachexia

75
Q

Nystatin

A

one of first antifungals; never given systemically b/c very toxic
*not absorbed in GI well, so can be given orally for local effect along GI tract w/o entering systemic ciruclation

76
Q

miconazole

A

azole antifungal; good for topical use (like thrush, vaginal yeast infections, and ringworm), don’t use systemically

77
Q

clotrimazole

A

azole antifungal; good for topical use (like thrush, vaginal yeast infections, and ringworm), don’t use systemically

78
Q

Lotrisone

A

betamethasone and clotrimazole; combo of two potent drugs to treat either allergy or fungal infection
Basically no side e’s from topical use

79
Q

betamethasone

A

corticosteroid; potent drug

80
Q

Lamisil

A

terbinafine; azole systemic antifungal; treats toenail fungus as go-to oral systemic antifungal
Well tolerated and OTC

81
Q

Sporanox

A

treats toenail fungus as systemic oral antifungal

82
Q

Difulcan

A

fluconazole; azole systemic antifungal, well tolerated and common go-to

83
Q

amphotericin B

A

“amphoterrible”; first antifungal for systemic infections, but so toxic that it is not used except for the very worst infections

84
Q

Gardasil vaccine

A

antiviral vaccine that prevents development of human papilloma virus, which causes cervical cancer

85
Q

loop diuretics

A

Treats CHF; inhibit Na/water reabsorption in ascending loop of Henle; cause huge loss of K so must be given with K supplement
LT: change Na balance in walls of vasculature of kidneys that eventually leads to relax of arteries and decrease in their resistance

86
Q

thiazide diuretics

A

treats HTN; sulfa drugs that work on early part of DCT; cause moderate K loss, so often combined with K sparring diuretic to even K out
LT: change Na balance in walls of vasculature of kidneys that eventually leads to relax of arteries and decrease in their resistance

87
Q

K sparring diuretics

A

treats HTN; work on late part of DCT and collecting ducts; cause rise in K levels in blood

88
Q

HCTZ

A

hydrochlorothiazide; prototype thiazide diuretic

89
Q

chlorathalidone

A

prototypical thiazide-like diuretic

90
Q

Lasix

A

furosemide; loop diuretic that lasts six hours

91
Q

K-lyte; Slow-K

A

K supplements; given to patients on loop diuretics to avoid hypokalemia. Given orally unless emergency then IV; Rx preparations have 10x the absorbable K as a banana

92
Q

Dyrenium

A

triamterene; K sparring diuretic

93
Q

Inderal

A

propranolol; non-selective B blocker

94
Q

Coreg

A

carvedilol; B-1 blocker often used to treat CHF mainly

95
Q

cardioselective B blockers

A

selectively block B1 to slow down heart and decrease sympathetic output to make people be less anxious/fearful; good for CHF, HTN, and PTSD
Have negative chronotropic and positive inotropic effect on heart

96
Q

CCBs

A

calcium channel blockers; block Ca channels in walls of heart and BVs to relax smooth muscle to decrease BP and increase BF
angina/MI: decrease BP, decrease HR, and increase coronary BF
dysrhythmia: slows HR and suppresses aberrant activity
Good for those with CAD or HTN
Also used for migraines
Has low side effects

97
Q

Calan

A

verapamil; CCB

98
Q

Norvasc

A

amlodipine; most commonly Rx’ed CCB b/c of long lasting effect

99
Q

ACE-Is

A

ace-inhibitors; stop formation of angiotensin II to lower BP; causes cough
Increases survival of pts. after MI (only Capoten, Vasotec)

100
Q

Capoten

A

captopril; first ACE-I; ACE I used to increase pt. survival post MI

101
Q

Zestril

A

lisinopril; ACEi go to, often used with diuretic

102
Q

ARBs

A

angiotensin 2 receptor blockers; directly block the rc so have similar effect to ACEi but do not cause cough

103
Q

RASi

A

renin-angioensin-[aldosterone[-system inhibitors; ACE-Is and ARBs

104
Q

Cozaar

A

losartan; ARB

105
Q

irbesartan

A

ARB

106
Q

Tenormin

A

atenolol; selective B1 blocker

107
Q

Lopressor

A

metoprolol; B1 blocker

108
Q

Tenoretic

A

atenolol and a thiazide diuretic combination

109
Q

NO

A

nitroglycerine; used for angina mostly but also for severe HTN

110
Q

Apresoline

A

hydralazine; direct arterial vasodilator used for HTN and angina

111
Q

BilDil

A

NO and hydralazine combination; race-based drug for black males with CHF or HTN

112
Q

Rogaine

A

minoxidil; topical K channel opener vasodilator with too many side e’s to use systemically routinely, but used as OTC hair loss treatment

113
Q

Capozide

A

captopril, diuretic, and HCTZ combination for HTN

114
Q

zestoretic

A

denotes combination of Zestril and mild diuretic

115
Q

HTN drug summary

A

RASi, ss, thiazide-like diuretic (step 2); B-blockers and combinations (step 3); big vasodilators like NO or hydralazine (step 4)

116
Q

CAD drug summary

A

nitrates, B blockers, CCBs, platelets inhibitors, lipid-lowering agents (like statins)

117
Q

HF drug summary

A

loop diuretics, specific B blockers (carvedilol), vasodilators like RASi’s, and sometimes big vasodilators (like NO or hydralazine), aldosterone antagonists, and digoxin

118
Q

dysrhythmia drug summary

A

B-blockers, CCBs, and digoxin to slow HR, and atropine to increase HR

119
Q

spironolactone

A

aldosterone antagonist; treats HF

120
Q

NTG

A

nitroglycerin; potent vasodilator. Admin sublingual, as topical cream, long-acting capsules, or IV

121
Q

Isordil

A

isosorbide dinitrate; longer acting NTG preparation

122
Q

Nitrostat

A

emergency NTG; sublingual

123
Q

B blockers

A

angina/MI: lower HR and make heart pump more efficiently, reducing its need for oxygen (CCB used when there are other comorbidities though)
dysrhythmia: slows HR and stabilizes twitchy myocardium areas
Other uses: migraines, CHF (some B blockers), PTSD, and HTN

124
Q

Procardia

A

nifedipine; CCB

125
Q

Lanoxin

A

digoxin; most common cardiac glycoside; prevents calcium moving ATPase enzyme so more Ca stays in sarcomeres available for contraction so contraction strength is increased
Very low TI; mainly just used as backup therapy for CHF if patient does not respond to diuretic, RASi’s, or carvedilol
No effect on quantity of life, but improves quality
Negative chronotropic effect, positive inotropic

126
Q

Vasotec

A

enalapil; ACE-I used to increase pt. survival post MI

127
Q

ASA

A

acetylsalicylic acid; given prophylactically for those with previous MI and used in emergency situations by chewing two 325 mg tablets before help can arrive

128
Q

epinepherine

A

positive chronotropic and inotropic effect on heart

129
Q

atropine

A

prototype anticholinergic drug; increases HR

130
Q

statins

A

HMG Co-A reductase inhibitors; enzyme that produces cholesterol gets blocked.
This block lowers LDL and increases HDL
Good side e profile, but must watch liver and muscle toxicity

131
Q

Lipitor

A

atorvastatin; HMG Co-A reductase inhibitor

132
Q

Zocor

A

simvistatin; HMG Co-A reductase inhibitor

133
Q

Bile acid sequestrants

A

bile-acid binding resins; bind fat in gut before it can be absorbed to lower body lipid levels
“inert” b/c it is neither digested or absorbed, it just binds things in gut hen comes out the other end

134
Q

Questran

A

cholestyramine; bile acid sequestrant

135
Q

oameal

A

has similar action to bile acid sequestrants

136
Q

omega 3 fatty acids

A

found in fish mostly; lower blood cholesterol levels, raise HDL levels, and are mild anticoagulants

137
Q

Niaspan

A

niacin time release; raises HDL and lowers LDL and triglycerides
Lowers risk of MI
When used with a bile-acid binding resin or a statin, this can slow down plaque build up in arteries

138
Q

vitamin B3

A

niacin

139
Q

CV drugs with significant vasodilator properties

A

NTG, diuretics, L-type CCBs, ACEi, ARBs, and niacin

140
Q

Plavix

A

clopidogrel; thienopyrindine drug that is more hardcore than ASA and often used if person has already can MI
Big selling, high cost drug that inhibits platelets and helps prevent stroke and recurrent MI

141
Q

dopamine

A

sympathetic agonist that functions like epinepherine which increases BP through vasopressor action

142
Q

dobutamine

A

sympathetic agonist that functions like epinepherine which increases BP through vasopressor action
Also has positive inotropy effect

143
Q

Duramorph

A

morphine; used to treat pain and anxiety of heart attack

144
Q

cardioplegia solution

A

high potassium solution used to induce cardiac arrest in open heart surgery

145
Q

Activase

A

alteplase; first tissue-type plasminogen activator

Very expensive and dangerous clot-busting drug only used in ED or cath lab after a MI is diagnosed

146
Q

antiplatelet drugs

A

inhibit the initiation of a clot; prevent platelet activation so they do not aggregate and stick together (do not effect the deep coagulation cascade)
Increased bruising and nosebleeds

147
Q

anticoagulant drugs

A

prevent the formation of mature clots by hindering one or more of the soluble clotting factors that lead to enzymatic conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
Increased deep bleeding (do effect deep coagulation cascade)

148
Q

thrombolytic drugs

A

dissolve clots that have already formed by augmenting action of natural tPA’s found in the body
*must be very careful when giving to stroke patient b/c stroke may be from clot or bleeding

149
Q

tPA

A

tissue plasminogen activators; drugs that dissolve clots by converting plasminogen into plasmin which breaks apart clots.
Must be given within 3 hours of first symptoms of MI/stroke or detriments outweigh benefits
Works on large artery occlusions, lacunar strokes, and pts. with frostbite (reduces number of amputations)

150
Q

NSAIDs

A

have antiplatelet effect, but ASA has the most pronounced effect

151
Q

heparins

A

best in the moment anticoagulants (only 2 minutes for effect) and given as soon as bleeding is under control from initial injury
Stimulates antithrombin III of deep clotting cascade; inhibits the intrinsic coagulation cascade (measured by aPTT test)

152
Q

Coumadin

A

warfarin; ‘rat poison’; anticoagulant inhibits formation of vitamin K dependent clotting factors made in liver (mainly factor VII) for the extrinsic pathway
Can be given orally and used long-term (unlike heparin); measured by INR (PT) test
*very low TI and hundreds of drug interactions so patients require close checking in on

153
Q

Pradaxa

A

dabigatran; direct thrombin inhibitor (inhibits the final common coagulation pathway)

154
Q

unfractioned heparins

A

heparins of differents molecular sizes; always required hospital stay b/c used to be given by IV and required monitoring by aPTT

155
Q

LMWH

A

low molecular weight heparins; better than unfractioned heparins b/c they can be given by IM one/two times a day and can be done at home, so patients don’t have to stay at hospital just b/c they need anticoagulation

156
Q

Lovenox

A

enoxaparin; LMWH

Stimulates antithrombin III; natural deep clotting cascade anticoagulant

157
Q

vitamin K injection or FFP admin used for…

A

vitamin K IM/IV injections or fresh frozen plasma admin helps counter warfarin overdose. Coumadin inhibits vitamin K so giving more overpowers it, or supplying more anticoagulants in plasma helps pts. to clot even with warfarin

158
Q

Xarelto

A

rivaroxaban; oral factor Xa inhibitor (anticoagulant)

159
Q

Eliquis

A

apixaban; oral factor Xa inhibitor (anticoagulant)

160
Q

factor Xa inhibitors

A

new group of anticoagulants; have started to replace warfarin as standard oral outpatient anticoagulant

161
Q

DTIs

A

direct thrombin inhibitors; new anticoagulant group

162
Q

streptokinase

A

earliest thrombolytic; produced naturally by B-hemolytic streptococcal bacteria, but is highly antigenic and yields high allergic reaction rates