Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Certified Medical Assistant > Module 11: Testing and Laboratory Procedures > Flashcards

Module 11: Testing and Laboratory Procedures Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

most commonly tested specimen in ambulatory care setting

A

urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

random urine

A
  • pt urinates in clean and nonsterile container
  • used for screening purposes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

first morning specimen

A
  • pt collects first specimen of the morning in clean container
  • more concentrated
  • pregnancy testing, analytes (protein, nitrites) evaluations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

clean catch midstream

A
  • perineal cleaning
  • begins urinating and collects midstream in sterile urine container
  • used for cultures, when noncontaminated specimen is desired
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

24-hour urine sample

A
  • container with preservatives
  • discards first morning specimen
  • collects all specimens for next 24 hr, including first of second day
  • qualitative analysis of components like protein when analyzing kidney function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

catheterized urine collection

A
  • when sterile urine sample needed
  • if pt can’t provide specimen on their own
  • insertion of sterile catheter through urethra into bladder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

fecal occult blood test

A
  • stool sample
  • screen for blood in stool
  • pt must avoid some medications and foods for 3 days prior
  • collects three separate specimens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

tape test

A
  • detects pinworms
  • typically in small children
  • tape placed over anus before getting up in the morning
  • brought to provider for analysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

ova and parasite testing (O&P)

A
  • detects presence of parasites and their eggs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

obtaining sputum specimen

A
  • sterile container
  • pt produces deep and productive cough for specimen from deep within lungs
  • best collected early in the morning before eating or drinking
  • pt should avoid mouthwash before collection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are specimens for cultures collected in

A

sterile containers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

reminders for specimen collection

A
  • collect at appropriate time
  • collect from site of suspected infection
  • minimize transport time to lab
  • collect appropriate quantity
  • use appropriate containers and label correctly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what federal agency determines the complexity of tests performed in the lab

A

food and drug administration (FDA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

CLIA waived testing

A
  • clinical laboratories improvement amendments
  • simplest lab procedures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

pregnancy testing

A
  • urine screened for human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) antibodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

rapid streptococcus testing

A
  • throat swabs screen for group A streptococcus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

dipstick, tablet, or multi-stick urinalysis

A
  • urine screened for analytes excreted in urine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

hemoglobin

A
  • machine screens for hemoglobin in blood
  • capillary puncture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

spun hematocrit

A
  • fingerstick
  • centrifuged and evaluated for percentage of RBC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

blood glucose

A
  • blood analyzed in glucometer for glucose level
  • screening for diabetes
  • capillary puncture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

hemoglobin A1c

A
  • capillary blood test
  • shows diabetes control over approx 3 months
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

cholesterol testing

A
  • lipids evaluated
  • capillary blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

helicobacter pylori

A
  • blood sample
  • screens for H. pylori
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

mononucleosis screening

A
  • capillary blood
  • screens for Epstein-Barr virus in blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

nasal smear for influenza types A and B

A
  • qualitative test for influenza antigens using nasal swab
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

drug testing

A
  • substances detected in urine and blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

when was CLIA established

A

1988

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

moderate and high complexity tests

A
  • nonwaived
  • must have CLIA certificate and undergo inspections
  • typically performed in reference or hospital laboratory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

provider performed microscopy procedures

A
  • form of moderate complexity testing
  • approved for screening of some specimens (urine or body excretions)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

COLA

A
  • commission on office laboratory accreditation
  • independent accreditor for labs
  • focuses on meeting CLIA regulations and providing best care
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

quality assurance

A
  • comprehensive
  • relates to policies and procedures that must be implemented for reliability of test results
  • ex: policies related to rotating stock to put newest container in the back of the storage area, policy of checking lab fridge temperature
32
Q

quality control

A
  • included in quality assurance but more specific
  • test reliability and accuracy while uncovering and eliminating errors
  • ex: reviewing expiration of urine multi-sticks, checking temp of lab fridge and documenting on log
33
Q

controls

A
  • quality control samples
  • known results used to compare results of pt sample and confirm validity of test
  • ex: blue strip on fecal occult test
34
Q

what does incorrect specimen labeling contribute to

A

lab error

35
Q

medicare access and CHIP reinforcement act of 2015 (MACRA)

A
  • payment for healthcare under direction of the CMS
  • control credentialing for computerized provider order entry
36
Q

information required in lab requisition form

A
  • pt demographics
  • providers signature
  • specific tests needed
  • source of specimen
  • date and time of specimen collection
37
Q

panel

A
  • groups of tests that are connected to one body system
  • aka profile
38
Q

information required when labeling lab specimens

A
  • pts name
  • date and time of collection
39
Q

information that MAY be required when labeling lab specimens

A
  • pt date of birth
  • provider name
  • initials of person collecting specimen
40
Q

where should you label a specimen container

A

the actual container and not the lid

41
Q

department running culture and sensitivity

A

microbiology

42
Q

what lab test looks for nitrite

A

urinalysis

43
Q

department running fasting blood sugar test

A

chemistry

44
Q

department running type and cross match test

A

blood bank

45
Q

department running pap smear

A

cytology

46
Q

department running WBC test

A

hematology

47
Q

most effective means of preventing spread of infection

A

hand washing

48
Q

chain of custody

A
  • when collecting and handling specimens for drug testing for employment or a court subpoena
  • ensures security and accuracy
  • signature of everyone who has contact with specimen is requried
49
Q

how to handle urine specimen testing for bilirubin

A
  • protection from light
  • dark container
50
Q

processing nonblood specimens

A
  • may need to be processed prior to transport to maintain specimen integrity
  • making sure swabbed specimen is moist, proper storage
51
Q

how to process urine sample for microscopic analysis

A
  • can require centrifuging before transport with supernatant fluid removed
52
Q

storing nonblood specimens

A
  • some require refrigeration (urine)
  • refrigeration to avoid chemical changes or biological breakdown of specimen
  • some require body temp storage (swabs for STDs)
  • cooling of this specimen can kill organism
53
Q

transporting nonblood specimens

A
  • appropriate packaging
  • if container could break add padding and protection from leakage
  • wrap in absorbent material and put in biohazard bag
  • biohazard identification on outside to alert handlers of infectious material
54
Q

disposal of nonblood specimens

A
  • red biohazard waste bags
  • sharps container for anything that would break or splinter
  • designated sink for urine specimens
55
Q

what to do if getting critical value call from lab

A
  • ensure accuracy by repeating test results back to lab personnel
  • notify provider immediately
  • document communication and actions taken
56
Q

hyperopia

A
  • difficulty seeing things up close
  • farsightedness
57
Q

myopia

A
  • difficulty seeing things far away
  • nearsightedness
58
Q

presbyopia

A
  • gradual age-related loss of eyes’ ability to focus actively on nearby objects
59
Q

near vision testing

A
  • screens for presbyopia or hyperopia
  • uses near vision acuity chart
  • pt reads material of various sizes 14 to 16 inches away
  • no corrective lenses
  • test each eye separately and then both together
60
Q

distance vision testing

A
  • screens for myopia
  • pt stands 20 ft from chart
  • test eyes separately and together
  • pt wear corrective lenses
  • pt can miss one item and still pass line
  • recorded as fraction, 20/20 is normal
61
Q

who is more commonly affected by color blindness

A

males

62
Q

most common type of color blindness

A

red-green deficiency

63
Q

color vision testing

A
  • 11 plates within ishihara book
  • pt misses four or more then they may have a color deficiency
  • further testing to warrant diagnosis
64
Q

visual field testing

A
  • aka perimetry testing
  • detects eye diseases like glaucoma
  • pt looks straight ahead and responds when they see light flash or hand or fingers in their peripheral vision
65
Q

tympanometry

A
  • records movement of tympanic membrane (affected by pressure in middle ear)
  • changing air pressure measured
  • determines presence of fluid and infection in middle ear
  • normal tympanogram produces peak on graph and abnormal produces flat line
66
Q

audiometry

A
  • raise hand when various tones are heard through headphones
67
Q

normal adult hearing level

A

25 decibels

68
Q

normal child hearing level

A

15 decibels

69
Q

tuning fork

A
  • determines pt ability to hear tones transmitted through air and bone conduction
  • placed on top of head or on mastoid process
70
Q

scratch testing

A
  • diluted allergen applied to scratch or prick on surface of skin
  • wheal in first 15 mins can be possible allergen and warrant intradermal testing
  • the larger the wheal, the more significant the allergy
71
Q

intradermal testing

A
  • diluted allergen injected intradermally
  • initial wheal is expected
  • inflamed with with induration (raised, hard area) can be identified as allergen
72
Q

RAST testing

A
  • radioallergosorbent testing
  • checks blood for antibodies that could indicate allergy
  • more invasive than skin testing
  • safer by avoiding potential allergic reation
73
Q

challenge testing

A
  • detects specific allergies (food)
  • prescribed if scratch or intradermal tests are positive and pt (usually child) has suspected life-threatening food allergies
  • receives increasing amount of suspected food allergen
  • conducted in controlled environment where treatment is available for acute allergic reactions
74
Q

peak flow testing

A
  • monitor lung function in the home
  • especially for pts with chronic respiratory diseases (asthma)
  • measures forced expiratory volume, indicates effectiveness of airflow out of lungs
75
Q

pt instructions for peak flow testing

A
  • wear nonrestrictive clothing
  • begin with marker at bottom of scale on mete
  • upright sitting or standing postibio
  • take deep breath and forcefully blow out of mouth secure around mouthpiece of machine
  • record number where marker is located at end of test
  • repeat two or three times
76
Q

spirometry

A
  • automated test that produces graphic result
  • similar to peak flow test
  • apply clip to pts nose to avoid nose-breathing
  • lift chin and extend neck to reduce breathing resistant
77
Q

pt preparation for spirometry

A
  • no large meals 2 hr before test
  • no smoking 1 hr before test
  • discontinue use of bronchodilators or breathing therapies (inhaler, nebulizer) for at least 6 hr before test

Certified Medical Assistant (40 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions