Miscellaneous Flashcards
Cat Gut Suture
Broken down by phagocytosis and retains tensile strength for 14-28 days
Nylon Suture
Non-absorbable
PDS (polydioxanone)
How do you treat atrial fibrillation?
Quinidine
Treatment for chronic 3rd degree AV block
Pacemaker
List the shorting acting & most potent to longest acting & lease potent insulin drugs
1) Regular
2) NPH
3) Lente
4) PZI
5) Ultralente
What are some reasons for failure of a flea product to work?
-Owner does not apply properly
-Owner is not treating the environment
-Other pets in the household are not on flea control
Sympathetic innervation to the bladder is provided by which nerve?
Hypogastric nerve
What is type 1 hypersensitivity?
IgE- mediated and results in immune mediated hypersensitivity immediately
What is type II hypersensitivity?
Antibody dependent reaction and occurs due to IgG or IgM made against normal self antigens or some foreign antigen that resembles some molecule on the surface of host cells.
What is type III hypersensitivity reaction?
Immune complex-mediated reaction caused when soluble antigen-antibody form in large amounts and overwhelm the body instead of being normally removed by macrophages in the spleen and liver.
What is type IV hypersensitivity reaction?
Delayed hypersensitivity and cell mediated. T8 lymphocytes will be sensitized to an antigen and differentiate into cytotoxic T-lymphocytes. T helper 1 type T4 lymphocytes become sensitized to an antigen and produce cytokines.
What is the holding layer of the abdomen?
External rectus sheath
What antibiotic is used to indicate methicillin resistance?
Oxacillin
Which animals are induced ovulations?
Cats, rabbits, and ferrets and camelids
A rise in serum creatinine means what?
Decrease in GFR
Which stones are radiolucent on radiographs?
Urate and cysteine
L - asparaginase used to treat which disease?
Lymphoma
What treatment is commonly used for protein-losing nephropathies?
ACE inhibitors - they also help reduce proteinuria by causing dilation of the efferent arterioles of the nephrons
When should you do a urine culture?
When you have isosthenuria (low specific gravity) - since the urine is so dilute it is difficult to identify bacteria so a culture is most sensitive way to determine if an infection is present.
What does the presence of white blood cells in the urine indicate?
Urinary tract infection
What is a TPO (triple pelvic osteotomy) designed to do and what kind of patients should you do it on?
Designed to increase the dorsal coverage of the femoral head, this surgery is typically performed on dogs 6 months to 1 year of age. TPO will not eliminate the progression of arthritis but will lessen it. TPO should only be performed in dogs that are free of Radiographic signs of DJD, otherwise good results will be diminished.
When can you perform a THR (total hip replacement) and what age of dog?
Can be performed as soon as the physes have finished their growth, can be performed as young as 1 year of age, craniodorsal luxation is a common complication associated with THR.
What is the most common side effect of ivermectin?
Neurological toxicity, reversed after stopping medication
CS - mild such as mydriasis and tremors, severe such as seizures and comas, ataxia, head tilt and lethargy
Signs typically resolve after 24-48 hours of stopping medicine
Why does toxicity occur with Collies and ivermectin?
Collies have a ABCB1 (MDR-1) gene mutation that causes toxic accumulation of the drug intracellularly leading to CNS like comas and death
What are the different types of Salter-Harris fractures?
Type I - fracture through physics
Type II - fracture partway through the physics extending up to the metaphysis
Type III - fracture partway through the physics extending down into the epiphysis
Type IV - fracture through the metaphysis, physics, epiphysis
Type V - crush injury to physics
What type of surgery is nitrous oxide contraindicated in?
GI surgery because NO moves into closed gas spaces such as intestines
What is a potential side effect of L-asparaginase?
Anaphylaxis because it is a protein enzyme and may elicit an immune response
What side effects dose Acepromazine cause?
Splenic dilation with corresponding decrease in hematocrit concentration
Which of the following anesthetic agents are known to cause bradycardia and bigeminy?
Xylazine - alpha-2 agonist and causes bradycardia, may also cause first or second degree AV block
thiopental - causes bigeminy most commonly and several arrhythmias, premature ventricular complexes
What are forms of anthrax in humans and which is not?
Forms of anthrax in humans: pulmonary, intestinal, cutaneous
Not a form: ocular
If an animal has pleural effusion, which Radiographic view is the best?
Ventrodorsal
What Radiographic view can you see a GDV the best?
Right lateral recumbency abdominal rads
What is the holding layer for all hollow viscera?
Submucosa
What are the 3 layers of the Meibomian glands and which glands produce each layer?
Mucous - made by conjunctival goblet cells (inner)
Aqueous - lacrimal gland and gland of the 3rd eyelid (middle)
Lipid - meibomian glands (outer)
What is the mean life span of a neutrophil in a dog?
5-9 hours
What drug causes peripheral vestibular disease used in treatment of otitis?
Chlorhexadine implicated in ototoxicity and peripheral vestibular disease
What drug causes central vestibular disease in treatment of otitis?
Metronidazole
Why is silk contraindicated for use in closing the bladder?
Silk is a non-absorbable suture which can lead to nidus for infection
What muscle should be incorporated into the closure of an abdominal incision in a dog?
The preputalis muscle which is usually cut when making a midline incision in males dogs and should be incorporated into the closure to avoid penile deviation
What are the most commonly reported organisms recovered in animals with endocarditis?
Staph, Strep, Corynbacterium, Pseduomonas aeruginosa, Erysipelothrix, E. Coli, Bartonella
When is the most common time for anastomosis failure?
3-5 days post operatively due to degradation of fibrin at the site prior to deposition of sufficient collagen
What is dopamine commonly used for?
To increase arterial blood pressure
What system is ingestion of perilla mint primarily toxic to?
Respiratory
The perilla mint (Perilla frutescens) plant has a pneumontoxin that is metabolized to a toxic intermediate that damages type 1 pneumocytes and bronchiolar epithelial cells
What are the CS of perilla mint toxicity?
CS - acutely dyspneic, open mouth breathing, frothing at the mouth
What is seen on necropsy of perilla mint toxicity?
Wet. heavy, emphysematous lungs
