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NAVEL Study Q's > Equine > Flashcards

Equine Flashcards

1
Q

What is Guttural Pouch Mycosis

A

Will see epistaxis and dysphagia, caused by Aspergillus nidulans

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2
Q

What is the treatment for persistent epistaxis from guttural pouch mycosis?

A

Occlusion of appropriate artery or arteries

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3
Q

What does the Yellow star thistle (Centaurea solstitalis) cause in horses?

A

If a horse eats it will will develop nigropallidal encepholamacia. There is a loss of upper motor ganglia which results in loss of inhibition and dystonia, making it impossible for animal to eat (slow starvation). This grows in dry fields in California.

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4
Q

Which electrical rhythms are normal to find in healthy race horses?

A

Second degree AV block & 1st degree AV block - usually resulting from high vagal tone.

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5
Q

Which aminoglycoside is most nephrotoxic to horses?

A

Neomycin

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6
Q

What is purpura hemorrhagica?

A

Possible squeal of strep equi infection exposure or vaccinations, it develops from type 3 hypersensitivity resulting from immune complex deposition in blood vessels walls and Vasculitis. CS - urticaria (hives), edema of the extremities, petechiation of mm, stiff gait, and anemia. Most horses will have a normal platelet count (not thrombocytopenic). You may find anemia, hyperproteinemia, hyper fibrinogen is, hyperglobunemia, and neutrophilia.

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7
Q

What is purpura hemorrhagica?

A

Possible squeal of strep equi infection exposure or vaccinations, it develops from type 3 hypersensitivity resulting from immune complex deposition in blood vessels walls and Vasculitis. CS - urticaria (hives), edema of the extremities, petechiation of mm, stiff gait, and anemia. Most horses will have a normal platelet count (not thrombocytopenic). You may find anemia, hyperproteinemia, hyper fibrinogen is, hyperglobunemia, and neutrophilia.

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8
Q

What are the functions of the cerebellum?

A

Responsible for coordination and regulation of range, rate, and strength of movement along with balance and posture. CS associated with cerebellar disease include intention tremors, hypermetria, hypometria, and ataxia

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9
Q

What is vesicular stomatitis?

A

Characterized by vesicle lesions on the tongue, inside the mouth, teats, and feet. Cattle, sheep, goats, and pigs are also susceptible to the disease. The absence of papules and pustules allows us to differentiate vesicular stomatitis from horse pox.

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10
Q

What is right dorsal colitis associated with?

A

Administration of NSAIDS (chronically). CS - inappetence, intermittent colic and hypoproteinenmia

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11
Q

What is guttural pouch tympany?

A

Condition where the pouch becomes distended with air thought to be due to a defect in the Eustachian tube or pharyngeal tissues. Leads to a non-painful air-filled swelling. TX - fenestrating the membrane between normal and affected pouch.

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12
Q

What is Equine Eosinophillic granuloma

A

Also known as nodular necrobiosis of collagen or collagenolytic granuloma
Similar to eosinophillic granulomas in cats, they are nodular, non-ulcerative and not pruritic
Believed to be caused by insect bites or trauma
TX - systemic antibiotics, surgical excision, sublesional corticosteroid injections

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13
Q

How long is colostrum indicated after birth to treat failure of passive transfer?

A

Less than 24 hours after birth

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14
Q

What animal develops a marked increase in serum biliruin from fasting or anorexia?

A

Equine

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15
Q

What is African Horse Sickness?

A

Viral disease of equine that is transmitted by insects, primarily Culicoides. CS usually develop 5-7 days after infection and begin with fever and conjuctivitis. Will see swelling of the supraoribtal fossa, indentation above the eye. There is a pulmonary and cardiac form of this disease.

Pulmonary - acute respiratory distress, coughing, sweating, foaming from the nostrils = fatal
Cardiac - edema of the head and neck, abdominal pain and depression = 50% die from heart failure

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16
Q

What is Horner’s and what are the CS of Horner’s syndrome in a horse?

A

Horner’s is caused by a disruption of the vagosympathic trunk. CS - sweating (head and neck), enophthalmos (sinking of eye ball), ptosis (drooping of eye), and miosis (constricted pupil) , prolapsed third eyelid.

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17
Q

What is Theiler’s disease associated with?

A

Administration of tetanus antitoxin or equine plasma

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18
Q

What is Potomac’s Horse Fever?

A

Caused by Neorickettsia ristcii, causes diarrhea in warmer summer months where horses are near bodies of water. Frequently also see this causes laminitis. TX - oxytetracycline for 7 - 10 days

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19
Q

What organism is normally found in the guttural pouch of horses?

A

Strept equi zooepidemicus

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20
Q

What Radiographic findings would you see with a foal that has a Rhodococcus Equi infection?

A

An alveolar pattern with multiple nodular regions (abscesses) causing suppuration Pyogranulomatous pneumonia

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21
Q

What is Rhodococcus equi and how do you treat it?

A

Infection caused by Cornebacterium that leads to respiratory signs such as cough and wheezes. Happens in foals 2-4 months of age. Tx is Rifpamin and macrolides.

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22
Q

What is Oxyuris equi?

A

Equine pinworm. Use a scotch tape test to determine if there are eggs attached to the hair. The female laying eggs causing intense pruritus.

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23
Q

What is seedy toe?

A

Also known as hollow wall or dystrophin ungulae. Characterized by a change in character of the horn such that the inner surface is crumbly and there may be a cavity due to loss of substance. Tx - remove any necrotic or infection hormone to establish drainage. Prognosis is good if diagnosed early and before laminitis occurs.

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24
Q

What is founder?

A

Common name for laminitis

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25
Q

What is sheared heels?

A

Condition of heel asymmetry due to acquired imbalance of the foot

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26
Q

What is bog spavin?

A

Swelling of the tibiotarsal joints

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27
Q

What is throughpin?

A

Effusion of the tarsal sheath (sheath of deep digital flexor)

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28
Q

How long is the incubation period of tetanus after a puncture wound?

A

10-14 days, usually about 2 weeks to grow spores which produce toxins

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29
Q

What are the two most common side effects of NSAIDS in horse?

A

Right dorsal colitis and renal papillary necrosis

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30
Q

What is Parascaris equorum?

A

A roundworm that undergoes migration through the lung, common in foals. During migration it can damage the lower respiratory tract and carry bacteria

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31
Q

What is Dictyocaulus arnfieldi?

A

Equine lungworm that causes cough and respiratory signs in adult horses, not foals

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32
Q

What breed of horse is predisposed to the development of combined immunodeficiency?

A

Arabian

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33
Q

What is combined immunodeficiency?

A

Lack of production of functional lymphocytes in Arabian foals, there is no curative treatment. Foals will have recurrent infections which will be treated with antimicrobials and response but when they are removed, the infection returns.

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34
Q

What is the Coggin’s test?

A

Agar immunodeficiency to detect serum antibodies against the retrovirus causing infectious anemia
Always confirm with a Coggin’s test after a positive ELISA

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35
Q

What is the Coomb’s test?

A

Used to diagnose immune mediated hemolytic anemia

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36
Q

What is the treatment for Onchocerca cervicalis?

A

Ivermectin or Moxidectin will bring improvement in 2-3 weeks after skin lesions that are created by migrating microfliria

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37
Q

What is the treatment for bog spavin?

A

No treatment is necessary

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38
Q

What causes Canthardin toxicity in horses?

A

Blister beetles which results in endotoxin shock and renal failure. Horses will be found dead, colicking or in cardiovascular shock. There may be cardiac arrhythmias, watery feces, and vesicles in the mouth and tongue.

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39
Q

What are examples of blue-green algae that cause hepatotoxicity?

A

Microcystis, Aphanizomenon, and Anabaena

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40
Q

What is cerebellar abiotrophy?

A

Usually observed in foals less than one year of age (1-6 months), this is seen in Arabian, Oldenburg, and Gotland breeds. There is not treatment. CS - intention tremors, lack of menace, hypermetria and ataxia

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41
Q

What is the most common cerebellar disease found in horses?

A

Cerebellar abiotrophy

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42
Q

What is right dorsal colon displacement?

A
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43
Q

What side is the cecum on in horses?

A

Right side

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44
Q

What is the treatment for an eye laceration in a horse?

A

Saline lavage, 2 layer closure, NSAID (phenylbutazone), tetanus toxoid immunization

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45
Q

What clinical signs does Equine Herpes Myeloencephalopathy have?

A

Hindlimb ataxia, hypotonia of the tail/anus, and urinary incontinence

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46
Q

What side do horse teeth need to be floated?

A

Maxilla buccal and mandible lingual

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47
Q

What is the most common equine arrhythmia?

A

Atrial fibrillation

48
Q

What is the treatment for atrial fibrillation?

A

Quinidine

49
Q

What is sesamoiditis usually caused by?

A

Tearing of the ligamentous attachments

50
Q

What are the main modes of transmission of equine infectious anemia?

A

Blood-sucking flies that act as vectors and contaminated instruments

51
Q

What is made by progesterone that prevents estrus from occurring?

A

A persistent corpus luteum

52
Q

What will you see in a granuloma cell tumor?

A

One ovary will be large and the other will be small

53
Q

What is gonadal dysgenesis?

A

Chromosomal abnormality where the mare would not have a normal pregnancy

54
Q

What is urticaria most commonly caused by in horses?

A

Caused by an allergic reaction such as toxic plants, insect bites, medications, chemicals, heat, sunlight, stress, or genetic abnormalities. It is caused by localized edema in the dermis. TX - parenteral fast acting steriods such as dexmethasone.

55
Q

What is the most optimal treatment for fungal keratitis in horses?

A

Topical direct ophthalmic administration

56
Q

What is western equine encephalitis?

A

Will see progression CNS signs such as hyperesthesia, propulsive walking and head tilt. CSF fluid will show Hugh protein (75) with mononuclear pleocytosis

57
Q

What is equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (myelitis)

A

Can be seen at any age and is caused by Sarcocystis neurona. It is a multi-focal disease of the central nervous system and the horse will have asymmetrical neurological signs

58
Q

What causes thiamine deficiency in horses?

A

Thiamine containing plants such as bracken fern and results in loss of coordination and may lead to twitching, seizures, and tremors

59
Q

What is Wobbler’s Syndrome?

A

As known as Cervical vertebral malformations. Seen primarily in horses under a year of age.

60
Q

What is degenerative myelopathy in horses?

A

Seen in horses primarily under one year of age and causes symmetrical ataxia

61
Q

What is quinidine?

A

Class 1A sodium channel blocker that has vagolytic properties which prolong the refractory period of the myocardium

62
Q

What are the side effects of quinidine?

A

Oral ulcers, hypotension, and allergic reactions

63
Q

What will you see on an ECG strip with atrial fibrillation?

A

Irregular R-R interval and fibrillation wave of the base line

64
Q

What is lidocaine used for?

A

Sodium channel blocker used primarily for ventricular arrhythmias

65
Q

What is atropine used for?

A

Anticholinergic used primarily for supraventricular bradyarrhythmias

66
Q

What breed is predisposed to the development of recurrent uveitis and equine night blindness?

A

Appaloosa

67
Q

Which drug is the most effective at reducing gastric acid and increasing gastric pH

A

Omeprazole, which is a proton pump inhibitor

68
Q

What is the preferred treatment for sacroiliac luxation or subluxation?

A

Generally considered untreatable - use NSAIDS and rest (supportive care)

69
Q

What is a flehmen response in horses?

A

It helps animals trap pheromones scents in the vomeronasal organs (pheromones that are chemical signals emanating from other animals). The horse can be seen curling up his lip and tilting his head up.

70
Q

What is glanders?

A

Bacterial disease caused by Burkholderia mallei. It is endemic in regions of the Middle East, Asia, Africa, and South America. Horses can become chronic or occult carriers which is a potentially pathogenic problem. There are 3 forms of glanders: nasal, pulmonary, and cutaneous. Horse can present with mucopurlent nasal discharge, lethargy, depression and enlarged mandibular LN.

71
Q

Are rabies vaccines in horses mandatory?

A

No but they are recommended by law in endemic areas

72
Q

What is the test of choice for confirming equine infectious anemia?

A

Immunodiffusion (Coggin’s Test)

73
Q

What is the treatment for a choked horse?

A

Sedate the horse and pass a stomach tube to gently push the bolus aborally. Most cases resolve in 12-24 hours. Usually resolves on its own after putting horse in empty stall. Main complication is inhalation pneumonia.

74
Q

What is the dental formula for horses?

A

2 (I3/3 C1/1 P3-4/3 M3/3

75
Q

What is a mesenteric rent?

A

It can result in a strangulating intestinal obstruction.

76
Q

What is stringhalt in horses?

A

Myoclonic disease one or both pelvic limbs. It causes spasmodic hyperflexion of the leg. Etiology is unknown maybe sweet pea poisoning. Treatment - tenectomy of the lateral digital extensor

77
Q

How is eastern equine encephalomyelitis transmitted and what CS will you see?

A

Transmitted by mosquitos and will see CNS such as head pressing, altered mentation, paresis, paralysis, convulsions, circling, ataxia, and death (2-3 days after onset of CS)

78
Q

At how many hours after parturition is a mare’s placenta considered retained?

A

After 3-6 hours, the mare will not eat her placenta unlike other species

79
Q

What does Equine herpesvirus 3 (coital exanthema) cause?

A

Causes balanoposthitis (Inflammation of the penis and prepuce), also causes papules, pustules, and ulcers on the vestibular mucosa, vulva skin and also the skin (less common).

80
Q

How is equine herpesvirus 3 transmitted and treated?

A

Transmitted by sexual contact and fomites such as contaminated equipment and rectal sleeves. Tx is sexual rest and appropriate sanitation of equipment.

81
Q

What nerve is responsible for providing motor innervation to the muscles of facial expression?

A

Facial Nerve - damage to this nerve may result in inability to blink, muzzle deviation, ear droop, lack of nostril flare, and a loss of the menace and palpebral response.

82
Q

What is the oculomotor nerve responsible for?

A

Involved in motor innervation to the dorsal, medial, and ventral rectus muscles. Also in relates the palpebral lavatory, which is responsible for raising the upper eyelid.

83
Q

What is the trochlear nerve responsible for?

A

It innervation the dorsal oblique muscle to the eyeball. If injured there will be a dorsomedial strabismus.

84
Q

What is the trigeminal nerve responsible for?

A

Provides sensation to most of the face and also motor innervation to the muscles of mastication.

85
Q

What is the abducens nerve responsible for?

A

Provides motor innervation to the lateral rectus and part of the retractor bulbi muscles

86
Q

What are urticaria (hives) most commonly caused by in horses?

A

An allergic reaction and caused by a localized edema in the dermis. Cutaneous lesions can be elevated, flat topped and multi focal. Tx - Paraenteral fast-acting steriods such as dexamethasone.

87
Q

What is the Coggin’s test?

A

Test for an antibody in equine infectious anemia. It can effectively diagnose infection in chronic asymptomatic carriers but not acute causes since production of antibodies in acute cases is not adequate enough.

88
Q

What other disease can resemble dudoenitis-proximal jejunitis?

A

Small intestinal obstruction. They both present with similar clinical signs. CS include acute colic with increased respiratory rate, heart rate, and pain and lots of gastric reflux. TX - surgical for small intestine obstruction and medically for DPJ. Decompression of stomach via nasogastric intubation and removal of excess gastric/intestinal fluid will make horse more comfortable.

89
Q

What are the 3 key A findings in Equine Protozoal Myleomyositis?

A

Asymmetry (laterializaton of signs), Ataxia, and atrophy - usually gradual

90
Q

Treatment options for equine protozoal myelomyositis?

A

1) Ponazuril (Marquis) antiprotozoal paste
2) Diclazuril (Protazil) antiprotozoal paste
3) Nitazoxanide (Navigator) antiprotozoal paste
4) Sulfadiazine-pyrimethamine combo

91
Q

What is herpes myeloencephalitis?

A

Caused by EHV1 and often has an acute onset following episode of fever, cough, and nasal discharge or following abortions on a farm. Usually affects more than one horse on the farm. The ataxia and weakeness is SYMMETRIC.

92
Q

What are CS of Verminous myeloencephalitis?

A

Sudden onset with rapid deterioration and death

93
Q

What are the CS of polyneuritis equi?

A

More commonly seen in mature horses and starts with hyperesthesia progressing to anesthesia. There is progressive paralysis of the tail, rectum, bladder, and urethra leading to urine dribbling.

94
Q

What are the CS of cervical vertebral stenosis myelopathy (Wobblers syndrome)?

A

Cause SYMMETRIC signs with hind limbs a grade worse than forelimbs. There can also be flexing or hyperextending of the neck.

95
Q

What is the most common side effect assiocated with acepromazine in horses?

A

Hypotension, may also cause paraphimosis in male horses

96
Q

What is best treatment for chronic lamitis?

A

Deep digital flexor tenotomy

97
Q

What is the treatment for persistent superficial digital flexor contracture?

A

Proximal check desmotomy

98
Q

What is the treatment for persistent deep digital flexor contracture?

A

Distal check desmotomy

99
Q

What occurs if the foramen ovale fails to close within 48 hours into a foal’s life

A

Blood will be shunted from the right atrium to the left atrium (RA will have higher pressure than the left)

100
Q

What test is used to diagnose Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis infection with internal abscesses in horses?

A

Synergistic hemolysis inhibition test
-Clinical path supportive of internal abscess would include leukocytosis, hyperfibrinogemia and hyperglobulinemia

101
Q

What is a KOH test used to diagnose?

A

Dermatophytes

102
Q

Which test evaluates for failure of passive transfer?

A

Zinc sulfate turbidity test

103
Q

What is the most common way EHV-1 is transmitted?

A

By inhalation

104
Q

What is the treatment of fungal keratitis in horses?

A

Direct ophthalmic administration such as itraconazole drops

105
Q

What are the classic signs of tendinitis in horses?

A

Intermittent lameness and bulge at the metacarpals, heat and tenderness may be felt as well

106
Q

What is Canthardin toxicity and what is it caused by?

A

Caused by blister beetles and results in endotoxin shock and renal failure in horses
CS - vesicles in mouth or tongue, watery feces, cardiac arrhythmias
May present with colic, cardiovascular shock or sudden death

107
Q

What are 3 types of blue-green algae that cause hepatotoxicity in horses?

A

Anabaena, Aphanizomenon, and Microcystis

108
Q

What is Foal Heat Diarrhea?

A

It is transient and not associated with CS and it is self-limiting. It is associated with the mare’s first estrous cycle after parturition typically 8-12 days after parturition. Exact cause is unknown.

109
Q

What are indications for a healthy foal?

A

Normal gestation period 330-360 days
Serum IgG > 800
Nursing 4-6 times every hour

110
Q

What is chronic synovitis of the tibiotarsal joint known as?

A

Bog spavin or tarsal hydraarthrosis. Often due to poor confirmation and can result in increased synovial fluid formation. Both hind limbs will be affected.

111
Q

What is Bone spavin?

A

Osteoarthritis of the hock

112
Q

What is curb in horses?

A

Thickening of the plantar tarsal ligament due to strain

113
Q

What is Sweeney?

A

Supraspinatous contracture

114
Q

What is stringhalt?

A

Myoclonic disease affecting one or both pelvic limbs. It causes spasmodic hyperflexion of the leg. Etiology unknown but sweet peas associated. DX - electromyography to confirm TX - Tenectomy of the lateral digital extensor

115
Q

What does Trichostrongylus axei in horses?

A

Causes chronic gastritis. It is a small stomach worm (hairworm) of horses. It can cause weight loss and chronic gastritis. TX - benzimidazoles or ivermectin. Horses cannot vomit. Also affects ruminants.

116
Q

What is the treatment for horses with equine protozoal myeloencephalitis?

A

TMS and pyrimethamine

NAVEL Study Q's (15 decks)

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