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NAVEL Study Q's > Canines > Flashcards

Canines Flashcards

1
Q

What is type 2 disc herniation?

A

Type 2 is slow and chronic

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2
Q

What is type 1 disc herination?

A

Dachshunds are predisposed to disc herniation, usually is acute

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3
Q

Cricopharyngeal Dysphagia

A

Congenital disorder characterized by in-coordination of the swallowing reflex leading to the signs described. Will have a history of regurgitation after eating, repeatedly attempting to swallow and bring up food, sometimes will cough or sneeze concurrently. Thoracic rads will be normal.

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4
Q

Treatment of DKA - diabetic ketoacidosis

A

IV fluids, regular insulin (CRI or IM) until patient is eating and hydrated then can switch to long acting insulin to be given SQ

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5
Q

What drug administration may cause yellow discoloration of the teeth?

A

Tetracycline

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6
Q

Which drug should you avoid using in a patient with Demodex?

A

Prednisone because it causes immune suppresion

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7
Q

Which CBC/CHEM values will you see with a dog with Hyperadrenocorticism?

A

Cholesterol will be elevated, BUN will be low, ALT will be increased, SAP increased and T4 low

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8
Q

Pyometra usually occurs when a dog is primarily under the influence of which hormone?

A

Progesterone - it promotes endometrial growth, suppress myometrial activity, and inhibit leukocyte response to infection.

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9
Q

What stage of the estrous cycle does pyometra almost always occur?

A

Occurs during diestrus when progesterone is high and estrogen is low

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10
Q

What dose of ibuprofen can cause neurological signs and death in dogs?

A

> 400 mg/kg - Neurological
600 mg/kg - Death

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11
Q

What dose of ibuprofen can cause GI signs and renal failure in dogs?

A

GI: 100-175 mg/kg
Renal failure: 175-300mg/kg

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12
Q

What dose of ibuprofen can cause GI signs and renal failure in dogs?

A

GI: 100-175 mg/kg
Renal failure: 175-300mg/kg

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13
Q

What is the risk with methicillin resistant staph pseudointermedius in dogs with people?

A

The risk is low to humans since staph is host adapted to dogs, good hygiene should be performed after contact with the dog

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14
Q

What is the difference between a canine and feline esophagus?

A

Canine esophagus is entirely striated muscle while a cat’s esophagus is 2/3 striated and 1/3 smooth

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15
Q

What will you see with cutaneous lymphoma?

A

Lymphocytes with mitotic figures and multiple nucleoli (Markers of malignancy)

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16
Q

What drug is used to induce emesis in dogs?

A

Apomorphine - dopamine agonist
Uncommon side effects - CNS depression, hyper excitability, tachycardia or bradycardia or respiratory depression
Reversal - naloxone

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17
Q

What treatment is used for demodex commonly in dogs?

A

Ivermectin - good oral bioavailability, effectiveness and ease of use. Start at low dose (0.1mg/kg) and gradually increase to therapeutic levels (0.6mg/kg)

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18
Q

What is emphyseamtous cystitis?

A

Caused by the presence of gas forming bacteria in bladder. This is usually due to an underlying cause such as cushingings, diabetic meilletus or chronic urinary tract infections, or bladder stones. Once the underlying cause is treated, the cystitis should resolve.

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19
Q

What is the most important medical treatment for EPI (exocrine pancreatic insufficiency)?

A

Enzyme supplementation, have adequate protein and a more digestible diet would be appropriate

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20
Q

What does Giardia affect and what does it look like?

A

Giardia affects young, immunodeficiency grouped animals. Causes malabsorbed and maldigestive diarrhea. Will see protozoal organism swimming in falling leaf motion on 40X and will have concave disc, pear shaped, binucleate and 15 X 8 micro = trophozoite

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21
Q

Which stage is infectious in Giardia? Cyst or throphozite?

A

Cyst

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22
Q

What is Blastomycosis?

A

Dimorphic fungus generally occurs in Missouri, Mississippi, Tennessee or Ohio river valleys. Usually effects BELLS (bone, eyes, lungs, LN, skin), can also affect CNS and UT.

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23
Q

What is the drug of choice for treatment of DCM?

A

Enalapril (ACE inhibitor) - which blunts adverse effects of the RAAS system reducing sodium and fluid retention

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24
Q

What do ACE-inhibitors do?

A

Blunt the adverse effects of RAAS, reducing sodium and fluid retention, cause mild vasodilation by preventing the production of angiotensin-II which reduced ventricular afterload. They are also protective to cardiac muscle by blunting aldosterone.

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25
Q

What antidote is used for treatment of ethylene glycol toxicity in dogs?

A

4-Methylpyrazole - used to inhibit alcohol dehydrogenase, Give over 36 hour period -> dose 20mg/kg slow IV 15-30 mins, 15mg/kg at 12 & 24 hours, 5mg/kg at 36 hours. NOT EFFECTIVE IN CATS

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26
Q

What is the treatment of choice for pulmonic stenosis in dogs?

A

Ballon valvuloplasty - performed by inserting a catether into a jugular vein or femoral vein and advancing it into the region of stenosis at the pulmonic outflow tract.

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27
Q

Which area of the heart is most commonly affected by infective endocarditis?

A

Mitral and aortic valves

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28
Q

What is highly suggestive of pyelonephritis in the urine?

A

Bacteria or white blood cell casts are highly suggestive of a past or present bacterial infection of kidneys

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29
Q

What is highly suggestive of pyelonephritis in the urine?

A

Bacteria or white blood cell casts are highly suggestive of a past or present bacterial infection of kidneys

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30
Q

What are the CS associated with pyelonephritis? How can you definitively diagnose?

A

CS - fever, anorexia, depression, vomiting
Definitely diagnose by renal biopsy and culture

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31
Q

What is the treatment of choice for Nasal aspergillosis in dogs?

A

Topical antifungal therapy (Clotrimazole)

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32
Q

What organism causes hydatid cyst disease in humans?

A

Echinococcus granulosus - hydatid tapeworm in dogs which is non-pathogenic in dogs but zoonotic and highly pathogenic to fatal in humans. Infection is acquired by dog eating raw sheep meet or visceral infected with parasite. If dog suspected to have this, treat with praziquantel.

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33
Q

What is canine degenerative myelopathy and what breed does it affect the most?

A

Progressive, degenerative spinal cord disease most common seen in GSD 5-9 years of age. It causes random atonal degeneration in all spinal cord segments usually seen most severe at thoracic cord. Commonly mistaken for hip dysplasia.

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34
Q

What is canine degenerative myelopathy and what breed does it affect the most?

A

Progressive, degenerative spinal cord disease most common seen in GSD 5-9 years of age. It causes random atonal degeneration in all spinal cord segments usually seen most severe at thoracic cord. Commonly mistaken for hip dysplasia.

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35
Q

What are common causes of hemopericardum?

A

Idiopathic hemorrhagic effusion and neoplasia

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36
Q

What age group is most suspectible to parvovirus?

A

6 weeks to 6 months
Have a few weeks of maternal antibodies at beginning of life

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37
Q

What breed is predisposed to Progressive Retinal Atrophy?

A

Toy and minanture poodles

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38
Q

What is Progressive Retinal Atrophy?

A

Also called progressive retinal degeneration which is an inherited retinal disease
Age of onset is variable
CS - night blindness progressing to complete blindness, bumping into things more at night. Fundic exam has tapetal hyperreflectivity, gray, vermiform lines on the fundus, retinal vascular attenuation, and pale optic disc.

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39
Q

What type of urine are struvite stones most likely in?

A

Produced in alkaline urine, struvite crystals are rectangular in shape. Goal is to acidify the urine.

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40
Q

What does a Malassezia infection look like in a dog?

A

CS - biting at the nails (sign of pruritus), multiple claws infected, red-brown discoloration of the claws, other symptoms of allergy (pruritus in summer months)

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41
Q

What is Collie Eye Anomaly?

A

A congenital ocular anomaly characterized by choroidal Hypoplasia, manifested by varying degrees of visual dysfunction with signs of large bizarre choroidal vessels visible on Fundic exam. Seen in up to 80% of the breed. Other signs include optic disc coloboma, retinal hemorrhage, and retinal separation.

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42
Q

What kind of eye diseases are cocker spaniels predisposed to?

A

Predisposed to cataracts, distichiasis, retinal abnormalities, and primary glaucoma.

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43
Q

What kind of eye diseases are cocker spaniels predisposed to?

A

Predisposed to cataracts, distichiasis, retinal abnormalities, and primary glaucoma.

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44
Q

What is the treatment of choice for VPCs (ventricular premature complexes)?

A

Lidocaine which is an anti-arrhythmic

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45
Q

How do dogs become infected with Dipylidium caninum?

A

They become infected by swallowing fleas that carry tapeworm eggs, fleas are a required intermediate host. Finding segments of the tapeworm in feces or perianal indicates the dog has fleas.

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46
Q

What is the drug of choice for treatment of perianal fistula?

A

Cyclosporine

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47
Q

What are side effects of Azathioprine?

A

Acute pancreatitis, hepatotoxicty, bone marrow suppression, and GI upset, GI is most common

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48
Q

What are CS of a snake bite without evidence of fang punctures in a dog?

A

Presence of echinocytes, thrombocytopenia, prolonged PT and PTT, and unilateral painful muzzle

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49
Q

What type of urinary stone is most likely to form in an animal being treated with too much allopurinol?

A

Xanthine - inhibits enzyme xanthine oxidase which metabolizes xanthine
Allopurinol is used for TX of urate stones in Dalmatians

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50
Q

What does dark red vaginal discharge indicate in a bitch 3 weeks after whelping?

A

Normal response that commonly occurs for up to 6 weeks after whelping

51
Q

What does melanoma look like on cytology in nail bed?

A

Cells with large nuclei, stippled chromatin with prominent and sometimes multiple nucleoli, some cells will have dark green black melanin granules.

52
Q

What is pemphigus vulgaris?

A

Autoimmune disorder causing vesicles, ulceration and crusting. Can affect the whole body but especially affects the mucocutaneous junctions and oral mucosa. Can be acute or chronic. Caused by an IgG antibody that binds to intracellular adhesions molecules causing a loss of cohesion between keratinocytes resulting in acantholysis, vesicle formation, and eventually ulceration. TX - immunosuppressive therapy with corticosteroids in addition to immunosuppressives like Azathioprine. Treatment is long term, causes serious side effects and prognosis is poor, euthanasia is often done

53
Q

What is tetralogy of Fallot in a dog?

A

Congenital defect of the heart which includes pulmonic stenosis, dextro-positioned aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and ventricular septal defect. It causes shunting of the venous blood across the VSD into the arterial circulation which leads to hypoxemia, and an increased drive for erythropoiesis, causing polycythemia.

54
Q

What is megaesophagus usually caused by?

A

Caused by myasthenia gravis, which is commonly seen with thymomas. Tx for thymomas is surgical excision. Myasthenia gravis will typically resolves after removal of the thymoma.

55
Q

What is canine thrombopathia? What breed is it seen in?

A

Autosomal recessive trait seen in Basset Hounds where platelets fail to aggregate and secrete their granules in response to normal stimuli. These dogs are at an increased risk for bleeding spontaneously, and an injury or surgical procedure could cause excessive hemorrhage. Platelets numbers and coagulation parameters are normal in this condition, issue of function not number.

56
Q

What are the most common serovars that play a role in canine lepto?

A

Grippotyphosa, Pomona, Bratislava

57
Q

What are the CS of leptospirosis and what is the standard diagnostic test used?

A

CS - anorexia, pyrexia, vomiting, dehydration, PU/PD, anuria, or oliguria
Standard diagnostic test is microscopic agglutination test (MAT)

58
Q

A oxygen saturation on SPO2 of 98-100% corresponds to how many mm Hg oxygen in arterial blood?

A

> 100 mg Hg

59
Q

A oxygen saturation on SPO2 of 95% corresponds to how many mm Hg oxygen in arterial blood?

A

80 mm Hg

60
Q

A oxygen saturation on SPO2 of 90% corresponds to how many mm Hg oxygen in arterial blood?

A

60 mm Hg

61
Q

A oxygen saturation on SPO2 of 50% corresponds to how many mm Hg oxygen in arterial blood?

A

30 mm Hg

62
Q

A oxygen saturation on SPO2 of 10% corresponds to how many mm Hg oxygen in arterial blood?

A

10 mm Hg

63
Q

What is the typical ultrasonography appearance of the abdomen in a dog with pancreatitis?

A

Hypoechoic pancreas (darker) with hyperechoic (brighter) surrounding mesentery

64
Q

What is a pheochromocytoma?

A

Tumor of the adrenal medulla, causes hypertension, tachyarrhythmias, seizures, and collapse. They secrete catecholamines.

65
Q

What are the two part of the adrenal gland?

A

Adrenal cortex (outer) - divided into Zona glomerulosa (aldosterone production), Zona fasciculata (glucocorticoid production like cortisol), and Zona reticularis (androgen production)
Adrenal medulla (inner) - consists of chromaffin cells (responsible for making catecholamines like Epinephrine and noreepinephrine)

66
Q

What are the classical electrolyte abnormalities found in Addisons dog?

A

Hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, azotemia, anemia, acidosis, hypoglycemia, low ACTH stim test and low resting cortisol

67
Q

What is a key clinical finding in dogs with parvovirus?

A

Will see leukopenia, decrease in WBC below normal

68
Q

What is a perianal hernia?

A

Results from a weakened pelvic diaphragm, hormonal component. Most likely seen in older intact male dogs such as Boxers, Collies, Kelpies, Pekingese, and Boston terriers.

69
Q

What does a uveal cyst look like in a dog?

A

Brown round circular masses FREE FLOATING in the anterior chamber, will transilluminate UNLIKE melanoma which is it commonly mistaken for which is not free floating, fleshy looking and will NOT transilluminate

70
Q

What is the treatment of glaucoma (primary or secondary) in a dog?

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

71
Q

What does Xylitol toxicity in dogs cause? CS? Treatment?

A

Cause: rapid insulin release -> resulting in hypoglycemia (DOGS)
CS - vomiting, weakness, ataxia, depression, decreased K, seizures, coma
Less commonly - also can cause liver issues (run coags and liver values, start SAMe)
Treatment - fluids and dextrose

72
Q

How do you treat bleach toxicity in SA?

A

Dilute bleach with milk! DO NOT FORCE VOMITING (corrosive) causes more damage
Tx - gastric protectants

73
Q

What does a black widow bite cause? CS? Treatment?

A

Cause: acetylcholine binds Ca channels leading to ascending motor paralysis and destroyed peripheral nerves
CS: recumbent, vocalization, pain, rigidity with mm spasms
Tx - none, leads to respiratory/cardiovascular failure and death

74
Q

What are the 4 different types of rodenticides active ingredients?

A

Warfarin, brodifacum, cholecalciferol, bromethalin

75
Q

What does warfarin rodenticide toxicity cause in SA? Treatment?

A

It is an anticoagulant that affects coagulation factors 2,7,9,10.
Will see prolonged PT (prothrombin time) -> factor 7 (shortest half-life, extrinsic system)
Tx - give Vit K 1, plasma transfusion

76
Q

What does brodifacoum rodenticide toxicity cause? Treatment?

A

Vit K antagonist (epoxide reductase)
Tx - give Vit K 1, monitor PT

77
Q

What does cholecalciferol rodenticide toxicity cause? What will you see on chemistry? Treatment?

A

It is an active Vit D so it cause fatal hypercalcemia
Chem: increase Ca, increase P = metastatic mineralization of soft tissues (renal/cardiac/GI damage)
Tx - diuretics, pred, bisphosphonates, salmon calcitonin

78
Q

What does bromethalin toxicity cause? Treatment?

A

It is a CNS toxin that uncouples oxidative phosphorylation
Tx - give mannitol, IV lipids to bind in blood
Grave prognosis once symptomatic

79
Q

What does ethylene glycol toxicity cause? CS? Treatment?

A

Causes Ca oxalate crystals, increase in anion gap, azotemia, metabolic acidosis, increased glucose, decreased calcium
CS - Ataxia, nausea, PUPD, at 24-72 hours show signs of renal failure
Tx - 4-MP (4-methylpyrazole) or ethanol (if no 4-MP)
If treat within 8-12 hours of ingestion = good prognosis
After 8-12 hours = poor/grave prognosis

80
Q

What does organophosphate toxicity cause in SA? Treatment? CS?

A

Inhibits acetylcholinesterase -> leads to muscarinic signs (hypersalivation, incoordination, bloat)
Tx - atropine or 2-PAM (pradlidoxime = anticholinesterase)

81
Q

What do fleet enemas cause? CS? Tx? In SA

A

They are high in phosphorous -> increased Na (colon absorption) , decreased Ca = weakness, shock, tremors, seizures
Tx - calcium gluconate, P binders, if severe increase K (insulin + dextrose)

82
Q

What does Strychnine (snail bait) toxicity cause? CS? Tx?

A

Antagonizes glycine -> lose impulse contractility of spinal cord/brainstem
Affects striated muscle -> tremors!
TX - methocarbamol (for convulsions), decreased stimulation

83
Q

What is the main ingredient in chocolate toxicity? CS? Tx?

A

Main ingredient - methylxanthines (theobromine, caffeine)
CS - CSN excitation, tachycardia, vasoconstriction
Tx - vomiting
Highest concentration in unsweetened baking chocolate

84
Q

What does pyrethrin toxicity cause in CATS? CS? Tx?

A

It alters Na channels -> increases depolarization length
CS - depression, hypersalivation, ataxia, mm tremors
Tx - methocarbamol, bathe (remove product)

85
Q

What does acetaminophen toxicity cause in CATS? CS? Tx?

A

Cats lack glutathione and glucoronyl transferase -> methemoglobinemia (dark brown blood = oxidation damage to Hg)
Will see Heinz bodies
Tx - N-acetylcysteine

86
Q

What causes Heinz body anemia?

A

Methylene blue, molybdenum deficiency, rye grass, brassica family
Zinc (pennies after 1983), Copper, onions
Onions cause hemolytic anemia, hemoglobinemia/uria, Heinz body anemia (oxidative damage)

87
Q

What causes renal failure in cats and dogs?

A

Grapes and raisins - don’t know why
Lillies in cats
Peace Lilly, Cala Lilly -> ca oxalate
Stargazer Lilly in cats -> acute renal failure
Day Lilly, Easter Lilly, tiger lilly = renal toxin
Ma Huang

88
Q

What is the Lilly of the valley in dogs and cats?

A

Cardiotoxin

89
Q

What does Ma Huang toxicity cause? CS? Tx?

A

CS- hyperthermia, tachycardia, tremors
Contains pseudoephedrine and ephedrine (like Sudafed)

90
Q

What is hypothyroidism caused by in dogs? CS? DX? Tx?

A

Seen in DOGS, older and large breed
Causes: immune mediated lymphocytic thyroiditis (Most commonly), idiopathic atrophy, suppression of pituitary gland from glucocorticoids (2 hypothyroidism)
CS: weight gain (slow metabolism), skin changes (hyperpigmentation, alopecia/rat tail, pyoderma, seborrhea), lethargy, cold intolerance
DX: free T4 (equilibrium dialysis) T3 not useful
TX: Sodium levothyroxine (keep T4 slightly above normal and resolve clinical signs)

91
Q

What is Diabetic Ketoacidosis in cats and dogs? CS? DX? Tx?

A

Diabetic that goes into metabolic acidosis
CS: PU/PD, weight loss, normal to increase food intake, lethargy, vomiting
DX: Urinalysis will have ketones and lots of glucose in urine.
Monitor: electrolytes, BG (make sure not hypoglycemic)
Bloodwork: metabolic acidosis (decreased TCO2 - ketones acts as acids), decreased Na, CI, K, hyper osmolality (increase glucose/BUN), pre-renal azotemia (dehydration)
Tx: Initially correct acidosis (bicarb), electrolyte abnormalities (IV fluids, K, P supplemtation, hypoosmolality). Give regular insulin (humulin-R) which is potent and short acting. Give multiple times until they are stable then can switch to longer acting insulin. Later regulate glucose, get animal to eat, control obesity/concurrent disease.

92
Q

What do you do if you diagnose DKA in a controlled diabetic?

A

Look for underlying causes of sudden poor glycemic control
Ex. Pancreatitis, cardiac disease, infection

93
Q

What additional disease is commonly seen in DKA cats? What about DKA dogs?

A

Hyperthyroidism common in DKA cats
Cushings common in DKA dogs

94
Q

What are the common clinical signs in Diabetes Mellitus in dogs and cats? What is the difference?

A

CS in dogs: Bilateral cataracts! Also PU/PD, polyphagia, weight loss, glucosuria -> polyuria
CS in cats: polyphagia, weight loss, dull haircoat, PU/PD, pelvic limb weakness, plantigrade stance (dropped hocks), difficulty jumping, (amyloid deposition in cats, transient DM after excision of Insulinoma)
Cats don’t get diabetic cataracts!

95
Q

How insulin dependent are dogs and cats?

A

Cats: insulin dependent 70% of the time, non-insulin dependent 30% of the time
Dogs: Almost always insulin dependent

96
Q

At what value does glucose spill into the urine in diabetic cats and dogs?

A

Dogs: 180
Cats: 200-280

97
Q

Distemper: Agent? Signalment? Transmission? CS? DX? TX?

A

Agent: Paramyxovirus
Signalment: 3-6 month old puppies susceptible (esp with poor vaccine regions)
Transmission: Aerosal spread, very contagious!
CS: Trio - GI (diarrhea), Neuro (seizures), Respiratory (pneumonia).
Also can see enamel Hypoplasia - pathognomic for dogs infected with distemper as puppies (infected before eruption of permanent teeth)
DX: IFA on affected epithelium - tracheal, vaginal, respiratory; serology for distemper IgM, increased CSF/serum virus specific IgG

98
Q

What is Pythium in dogs? CS? Prognosis? TX?

A

Aquatic organism that inhabits ponds of the southeast United States. Different cell wall than regular fungi so harder to treat. CS - multiple subcutaneous nodules on limb. Prognosis: poor
Tx: amputation with antifungal therapies
Postoperative recurrence is common

99
Q

Which species is most commonly affected by pythium?

A

Dogs are most commonly affected but cats, humans and horses can also be affected.

100
Q

What is the treatment of choice for severe hyperextension injuries to the carpus?

A

Carpal arthrodesis
Accomplished by debridement of the articular cartilage of the joints, implantation of the cancellous autograft into the debrided joint spaces, fixing a bone plate across the injured joints

101
Q

What are signs of Yersinia pestis in dogs?

A

CS - fever, lymphadenopathy, large, bipolar staining coccobacilil
Transmitted by ingesting infected rodents or via flea bites

102
Q

What radiographically view is best to see a GDV?

A

Right lateral which will show the pylorus is gas-filled, suggestive that it has rotated to the left side

103
Q

What is Hansen’s type 1 disc disease?

A

Usually involves chondrodystrophic dogs (Dachshunds, Corgis, Shih-Tzus)
Usually acute, painful and should be considered an emergency

104
Q

What is Hansen’s Type 2 disc disease?

A
105
Q

What is the most common method of transmission of Toxocara canis?

A

Transplacentally so all puppies should be treated for it.

106
Q

What is the best test to characterize azotemia as pre-renal, renal, post-renal?

A

USG is the best test, it will determine if the kidneys are able to concentrate urine.
USG - normal or high (concentrated) = kidneys are working so pre-renal or post-renal
USG - lower (dilute) = kidneys are not working so most likely renal

107
Q

What is SARDS? Signalment? CS?

A

SARDS - sudden acquired retinal degeneration syndrome
Signalment - obese female spayed dogs
CS - acute blindness , retinal vascular attenuation, tapetal hyperreflectivity
No optic or fundoscopic lesions

108
Q

What is the most likely side effect of KBr therapy in epileptic dogs?

A

Sedation most commonly
Other CS: PU/PD, polyphagia, vomiting, ataxia, skin reactions, pancreatitis

109
Q

Most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism in dogs?

A

Adenoma of the parathyroid glands

110
Q

GFR is most reliably assessed by which test?

A

Serum creatinine
Increased creatinine is proportional to a fall in GFR

111
Q

What are anesthetic-related causes of sinus tachycardia?

A

Ketamine, anticholineragics, inadequate depth of anesthesia, pain, or response to surgery

112
Q

Which drug is effective at inducing emesis in dogs?

A

Apomorphine

113
Q

What is an estrogen secreting tumor (Sertoli cell tumor or seminoma)?

A

Estrogen excess in male dogs that leads to male feminization such as gynecomastia (breast swelling), pendulous prepuce, bilateral truncated alopecia, bone marrow suppresion (anemia and thrombocytopenia)

114
Q

What are cryptorchide dogs most commonly predisposed to?

A

Prone to testicular tumors

115
Q

What is Campylobacteriosis and what does it look like?

A

Gram negative motile, thin, S shaped or gull shaped rod
C. Jejuni most commonly isolated
Dx: fresh fecal swabs on campylobacter blood agar plates

116
Q

Which dog is most likely predisposed to having subaortic stenosis? CS? Tx?

A

Large breed dogs (ex. Newfoundland)
CS - systolic heart murmur on the left heart base, mild left cardiomegaly and left atrial enlargement and segmental enlargement of the ascending aorta
Tx - beta blockers such as atenolol (reduce myocardial oxygen demand, lessened frequency of ventricular arrhythmias and provide cardiac muscle protection
At increased risk for developing infective endocarditis

117
Q

DCM is most common in which breed?

A

Dobermans
Great Danes are also commonly affected

118
Q

How should you feed a patient with megaesophagus?

A

Feed a HIGH calorie diet - allows less food volume
Feed in upright position at 45-90 degree angle from the floor and sit for 10-15 mins

119
Q

What Signalment is MMVD most likely seen in? What kind of murmur? Dx? CS?

A

Small dogs over 10 years old
CavilerKing Charles Spaniels are predisposed
Location of murmur: left lateral thorax systolic
Dx: baseline thoracic rads then echo rechecks
CS: affected dogs do not usually show signs until they progress to congestive heart failure

120
Q

What is the most likely cause of hypertrophic osteopathy (HO)? CS?

A

Primary or metastatic pulmonary neoplasia
Will see periosteal proliferation in the diaphyses of affected bones, usually the metacarpal and metatarsal bones affect first then long bones
CS - lameness, pain, and swelling
Joint unaffected

121
Q

What is the long term survival of a patient with heptaocellular carcinoma if surgery is pursued? Prognosis?

A

Approximately 1400 days
Hepatocellular carcinomas are primary liver masses
Good prognosis after surgery

122
Q

What is the most common liver tumor of dogs?

A

Hepatocellular carcinomas
2nd most common liver tumor in cats

123
Q

How should you treat a dyspneic patient?

A

Supportive care first - oxygen, IV fluids, analgesia
After stable - thoracic rads, thoracocentesis, BW

124
Q

Which organism is ivermectin effective against?

A

Nematodes

NAVEL Study Q's (16 decks)

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