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NAVEL Study Q's > Canines > Flashcards

Canines Flashcards

1
Q

What is type 2 disc herniation?

A

Type 2 is slow and chronic

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2
Q

What is type 1 disc herination?

A

Dachshunds are predisposed to disc herniation, usually is acute

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3
Q

Cricopharyngeal Dysphagia

A

Congenital disorder characterized by in-coordination of the swallowing reflex leading to the signs described. Will have a history of regurgitation after eating, repeatedly attempting to swallow and bring up food, sometimes will cough or sneeze concurrently. Thoracic rads will be normal.

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4
Q

Treatment of DKA - diabetic ketoacidosis

A

IV fluids, regular insulin (CRI or IM) until patient is eating and hydrated then can switch to long acting insulin to be given SQ

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5
Q

What drug administration may cause yellow discoloration of the teeth?

A

Tetracycline

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6
Q

Which drug should you avoid using in a patient with Demodex?

A

Prednisone because it causes immune suppresion

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7
Q

Which CBC/CHEM values will you see with a dog with Hyperadrenocorticism?

A

Cholesterol will be elevated, BUN will be low, ALT will be increased, SAP increased and T4 low

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8
Q

Pyometra usually occurs when a dog is primarily under the influence of which hormone?

A

Progesterone - it promotes endometrial growth, suppress myometrial activity, and inhibit leukocyte response to infection.

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9
Q

What stage of the estrous cycle does pyometra almost always occur?

A

Occurs during diestrus when progesterone is high and estrogen is low

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10
Q

What dose of ibuprofen can cause neurological signs and death in dogs?

A

> 400 mg/kg - Neurological
600 mg/kg - Death

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11
Q

What dose of ibuprofen can cause GI signs and renal failure in dogs?

A

GI: 100-175 mg/kg
Renal failure: 175-300mg/kg

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12
Q

What dose of ibuprofen can cause GI signs and renal failure in dogs?

A

GI: 100-175 mg/kg
Renal failure: 175-300mg/kg

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13
Q

What is the risk with methicillin resistant staph pseudointermedius in dogs with people?

A

The risk is low to humans since staph is host adapted to dogs, good hygiene should be performed after contact with the dog

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14
Q

What is the difference between a canine and feline esophagus?

A

Canine esophagus is entirely striated muscle while a cat’s esophagus is 2/3 striated and 1/3 smooth

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15
Q

What will you see with cutaneous lymphoma?

A

Lymphocytes with mitotic figures and multiple nucleoli (Markers of malignancy)

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16
Q

What drug is used to induce emesis in dogs?

A

Apomorphine - dopamine agonist
Uncommon side effects - CNS depression, hyper excitability, tachycardia or bradycardia or respiratory depression
Reversal - naloxone

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17
Q

What treatment is used for demodex commonly in dogs?

A

Ivermectin - good oral bioavailability, effectiveness and ease of use. Start at low dose (0.1mg/kg) and gradually increase to therapeutic levels (0.6mg/kg)

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18
Q

What is emphyseamtous cystitis?

A

Caused by the presence of gas forming bacteria in bladder. This is usually due to an underlying cause such as cushingings, diabetic meilletus or chronic urinary tract infections, or bladder stones. Once the underlying cause is treated, the cystitis should resolve.

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19
Q

What is the most important medical treatment for EPI (exocrine pancreatic insufficiency)?

A

Enzyme supplementation, have adequate protein and a more digestible diet would be appropriate

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20
Q

What does Giardia affect and what does it look like?

A

Giardia affects young, immunodeficiency grouped animals. Causes malabsorbed and maldigestive diarrhea. Will see protozoal organism swimming in falling leaf motion on 40X and will have concave disc, pear shaped, binucleate and 15 X 8 micro = trophozoite

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21
Q

Which stage is infectious in Giardia? Cyst or throphozite?

A

Cyst

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22
Q

What is Blastomycosis?

A

Dimorphic fungus generally occurs in Missouri, Mississippi, Tennessee or Ohio river valleys. Usually effects BELLS (bone, eyes, lungs, LN, skin), can also affect CNS and UT.

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23
Q

What is Blastomycosis?

A

Dimorphic fungus generally occurs in Missouri, Mississippi, Tennessee or Ohio river valleys. Usually effects BELLS (bone, eyes, lungs, LN, skin), can also affect CNS and UT.

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24
Q

What is the drug of choice for treatment of DCM?

A

Enalapril (ACE inhibitor) - which blunts adverse effects of the RAAS system reducing sodium and fluid retention

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25
Q

What do ACE-inhibitors do?

A

Blunt the adverse effects of RAAS, reducing sodium and fluid retention, cause mild vasodilation by preventing the production of angiotensin-II which reduced ventricular afterload. They are also protective to cardiac muscle by blunting aldosterone.

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26
Q

What antidote is used for treatment of ethylene glycol toxicity in dogs?

A

4-Methylpyrazole - used to inhibit alcohol dehydrogenase, Give over 36 hour period -> dose 20mg/kg slow IV 15-30 mins, 15mg/kg at 12 & 24 hours, 5mg/kg at 36 hours. NOT EFFECTIVE IN CATS

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27
Q

What is the treatment of choice for pulmonic stenosis in dogs?

A

Ballon valvuloplasty - performed by inserting a catether into a jugular vein or femoral vein and advancing it into the region of stenosis at the pulmonic outflow tract.

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28
Q

Which area of the heart is most commonly affected by infective endocarditis?

A

Mitral and aortic valves

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29
Q

What is highly suggestive of pyelonephritis in the urine?

A

Bacteria or white blood cell casts are highly suggestive of a past or present bacterial infection of kidneys

30
Q

What is highly suggestive of pyelonephritis in the urine?

A

Bacteria or white blood cell casts are highly suggestive of a past or present bacterial infection of kidneys

31
Q

What are the CS associated with pyelonephritis? How can you definitively diagnose?

A

CS - fever, anorexia, depression, vomiting
Definitely diagnose by renal biopsy and culture

32
Q

What is the treatment of choice for Nasal aspergillosis in dogs?

A

Topical antifungal therapy (Clotrimazole)

33
Q

What organism causes hydatid cyst disease in humans?

A

Echinococcus granulosus - hydatid tapeworm in dogs which is non-pathogenic in dogs but zoonotic and highly pathogenic to fatal in humans. Infection is acquired by dog eating raw sheep meet or visceral infected with parasite. If dog suspected to have this, treat with praziquantel.

34
Q

What is canine degenerative myelopathy and what breed does it affect the most?

A

Progressive, degenerative spinal cord disease most common seen in GSD 5-9 years of age. It causes random atonal degeneration in all spinal cord segments usually seen most severe at thoracic cord. Commonly mistaken for hip dysplasia.

35
Q

What is canine degenerative myelopathy and what breed does it affect the most?

A

Progressive, degenerative spinal cord disease most common seen in GSD 5-9 years of age. It causes random atonal degeneration in all spinal cord segments usually seen most severe at thoracic cord. Commonly mistaken for hip dysplasia.

36
Q

What are common causes of hemopericardum?

A

Idiopathic hemorrhagic effusion and neoplasia

37
Q

What age group is most suspectible to parvovirus?

A

6 weeks to 6 months
Have a few weeks of maternal antibodies at beginning of life

38
Q

What breed is predisposed to Progressive Retinal Atrophy?

A

Toy and minanture poodles

39
Q

What is Progressive Retinal Atrophy?

A

Also called progressive retinal degeneration which is an inherited retinal disease
Age of onset is variable
CS - night blindness progressing to complete blindness, bumping into things more at night. Fundic exam has tapetal hyperreflectivity, gray, vermiform lines on the fundus, retinal vascular attenuation, and pale optic disc.

40
Q

What type of urine are struvite stones most likely in?

A

Produced in alkaline urine, struvite crystals are rectangular in shape. Goal is to acidify the urine.

41
Q

What does a Malassezia infection look like in a dog?

A

CS - biting at the nails (sign of pruritus), multiple claws infected, red-brown discoloration of the claws, other symptoms of allergy (pruritus in summer months)

42
Q

What is Collie Eye Anomaly?

A

A congenital ocular anomaly characterized by choroidal Hypoplasia, manifested by varying degrees of visual dysfunction with signs of large bizarre choroidal vessels visible on Fundic exam. Seen in up to 80% of the breed. Other signs include optic disc coloboma, retinal hemorrhage, and retinal separation.

43
Q

What kind of eye diseases are cocker spaniels predisposed to?

A

Predisposed to cataracts, distichiasis, retinal abnormalities, and primary glaucoma.

44
Q

What kind of eye diseases are cocker spaniels predisposed to?

A

Predisposed to cataracts, distichiasis, retinal abnormalities, and primary glaucoma.

45
Q

What is the treatment of choice for VPCs (ventricular premature complexes)?

A

Lidocaine which is an anti-arrhythmic

46
Q

How do dogs become infected with Dipylidium caninum?

A

They become infected by swallowing fleas that carry tapeworm eggs, fleas are a required intermediate host. Finding segments of the tapeworm in feces or perianal indicates the dog has fleas.

47
Q

What is the drug of choice for treatment of perianal fistula?

A

Cyclosporine

48
Q

What are side effects of Azathioprine?

A

Acute pancreatitis, hepatotoxicty, bone marrow suppression, and GI upset, GI is most common

49
Q

What are CS of a snake bite without evidence of fang punctures in a dog?

A

Presence of echinocytes, thrombocytopenia, prolonged PT and PTT, and unilateral painful muzzle

50
Q

What type of urinary stone is most likely to form in an animal being treated with too much allopurinol?

A

Xanthine - inhibits enzyme xanthine oxidase which metabolizes xanthine
Allopurinol is used for TX of urate stones in Dalmatians

51
Q

What does dark red vaginal discharge indicate in a bitch 3 weeks after whelping?

A

Normal response that commonly occurs for up to 6 weeks after whelping

52
Q

What does melanoma look like on cytology in nail bed?

A

Cells with large nuclei, stippled chromatin with prominent and sometimes multiple nucleoli, some cells will have dark green black melanin granules.

53
Q

What is pemphigus vulgaris?

A

Autoimmune disorder causing vesicles, ulceration and crusting. Can affect the whole body but especially affects the mucocutaneous junctions and oral mucosa. Can be acute or chronic. Caused by an IgG antibody that binds to intracellular adhesions molecules causing a loss of cohesion between keratinocytes resulting in acantholysis, vesicle formation, and eventually ulceration. TX - immunosuppressive therapy with corticosteroids in addition to immunosuppressives like Azathioprine. Treatment is long term, causes serious side effects and prognosis is poor, euthanasia is often done

54
Q

What is tetralogy of Fallot in a dog?

A

Congenital defect of the heart which includes pulmonic stenosis, dextro-positioned aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and ventricular septal defect. It causes shunting of the venous blood across the VSD into the arterial circulation which leads to hypoxemia, and an increased drive for erythropoiesis, causing polycythemia.

55
Q

What is megaesophagus usually caused by?

A

Caused by myasthenia gravis, which is commonly seen with thymomas. Tx for thymomas is surgical excision. Myasthenia gravis will typically resolves after removal of the thymoma.

56
Q

What is canine thrombopathia? What breed is it seen in?

A

Autosomal recessive trait seen in Basset Hounds where platelets fail to aggregate and secrete their granules in response to normal stimuli. These dogs are at an increased risk for bleeding spontaneously, and an injury or surgical procedure could cause excessive hemorrhage. Platelets numbers and coagulation parameters are normal in this condition, issue of function not number.

57
Q

What are the most common serovars that play a role in canine lepto?

A

Grippotyphosa, Pomona, Bratislava

58
Q

What are the CS of leptospirosis and what is the standard diagnostic test used?

A

CS - anorexia, pyrexia, vomiting, dehydration, PU/PD, anuria, or oliguria
Standard diagnostic test is microscopic agglutination test (MAT)

59
Q

A oxygen saturation on SPO2 of 98-100% corresponds to how many mm Hg oxygen in arterial blood?

A

> 100 mg Hg

60
Q

A oxygen saturation on SPO2 of 95% corresponds to how many mm Hg oxygen in arterial blood?

A

80 mm Hg

61
Q

A oxygen saturation on SPO2 of 90% corresponds to how many mm Hg oxygen in arterial blood?

A

60 mm Hg

62
Q

A oxygen saturation on SPO2 of 50% corresponds to how many mm Hg oxygen in arterial blood?

A

30 mm Hg

63
Q

A oxygen saturation on SPO2 of 10% corresponds to how many mm Hg oxygen in arterial blood?

A

10 mm Hg

64
Q

What is the typical ultrasonography appearance of the abdomen in a dog with pancreatitis?

A

Hypoechoic pancreas (darker) with hyperechoic (brighter) surrounding mesentery

65
Q

What is a pheochromocytoma?

A

Tumor of the adrenal medulla, causes hypertension, tachyarrhythmias, seizures, and collapse. They secrete catecholamines.

66
Q

What are the two part of the adrenal gland?

A

Adrenal cortex (outer) - divided into Zona glomerulosa (aldosterone production), Zona fasciculata (glucocorticoid production like cortisol), and Zona reticularis (androgen production)
Adrenal medulla (inner) - consists of chromaffin cells (responsible for making catecholamines like Epinephrine and noreepinephrine)

67
Q

What are the classical electrolyte abnormalities found in Addisons dog?

A

Hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, azotemia, anemia, acidosis, hypoglycemia, low ACTH stim test and low resting cortisol

68
Q

What is a key clinical finding in dogs with parvovirus?

A

Will see leukopenia, decrease in WBC below normal

69
Q

What is a perianal hernia?

A

Results from a weakened pelvic diaphragm, hormonal component. Most likely seen in older intact male dogs such as Boxers, Collies, Kelpies, Pekingese, and Boston terriers.

70
Q

What does a uveal cyst look like in a dog?

A

Brown round circular masses FREE FLOATING in the anterior chamber, will transilluminate UNLIKE melanoma which is it commonly mistaken for which is not free floating, fleshy looking and will NOT transilluminate

71
Q

What is the treatment of glaucoma (primary or secondary) in a dog?

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

NAVEL Study Q's (15 decks)

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