Canine 2.0 Flashcards

1
Q

What does enrofloxacin cause in young puppies? What age range?

A

Enrofloxacin causes cartilage abnormalities (bubble-like changes to articular cartilages)
Seen when given between 2-8 months

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2
Q

What does tetracycline antibiotics cause as a side effect in young animals?

A

Causes enamel hypoplasia and teeth staining in young animals

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3
Q

What is the Cushing’s response?

A

Increase in systolic mean arterial pressure …

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4
Q

What are CS of blastomycosis in a dog? Dx?

A
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5
Q

Which breeds are predisposed to GDV?

A

Large breed or giant pure bred dogs that are usually deep-chested such as Great Danes, Saint Bernards, Weimaraner, and Irish Setters

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6
Q

What does it mean when you find epithelial cells in a lymph node?

A

Not normal, usually means metasis

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7
Q

What is Dilated Cardiomyopathy (DCM)?

A

A primary myocardial disease characterized by cardiac enlargement and impaired systolic function.

DCM is the most common cardiomyopathy seen in dogs.

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8
Q

Which breeds are prone to develop DCM?

A
  • Doberman
  • Irish Wolfhound
  • Great Dane
  • St. Bernard
  • Newfoundland
  • Leonberger
  • Boxer
  • Giant Schnauzer
  • Cocker Spaniel
  • Flat Coat Retriever

These breeds are mainly large breed dogs.

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9
Q

What are early clinical signs of DCM?

A
  • Fainting
  • Lethargy
  • Exercise intolerance

Many dogs are asymptomatic until they suddenly exhibit symptoms associated with heart failure.

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10
Q

What heart failure signs are associated with left-sided congestive heart failure?

A

Respiratory distress.

Left-sided heart failure leads to fluid accumulation in the lungs.

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11
Q

What heart failure signs are associated with right-sided congestive heart failure?

A

Abdominal distention from ascites.

Right-sided heart failure leads to fluid accumulation in the abdomen.

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12
Q

How is DCM diagnosed?

A

Based on echocardiography, clinical signs, auscultation, and radiographic findings.

Echocardiography will show predominantly systolic cardiac dysfunction.

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13
Q

What does an echocardiogram show in cases of DCM?

A

Predominantly systolic cardiac dysfunction (poor contractility and shortening fraction).

This is essential for diagnosing DCM.

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14
Q

True or False: Many dogs with DCM exhibit symptoms of heart failure immediately.

A

False.

Many dogs are asymptomatic until they suddenly develop symptoms.

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15
Q

What is Familial Arrhythmogenic Cardiomyopathy primarily seen in?

A

Boxers.

This condition has key features that differ from DCM.

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16
Q
A
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17
Q

What is a controversial treatment for subclinical dogs?

A

Some cardiologists recommend ACE inhibitors and/or pimobendan

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18
Q

What therapy should be instituted for dogs with arrhythmias?

A

Therapy should be instituted for dogs with arrhythmias

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19
Q

What are treatment options for ventricular tachycardia in Boxers and Dobermans?

A
  • Sotalol
  • Amiodarone
  • Mexilitine
  • Very low dose Atenolol
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20
Q

What is Familial Arrhythmic Cardiomyopathy also known as?

A

Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricular Cardiomyopathy (ARVC)

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21
Q

What type of genetic trait does Familial Arrhythmic Cardiomyopathy appear to be?

A

Autosomal dominant trait

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22
Q

What is the major clinical sign of ARVC?

A

Syncope

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23
Q

What is required for the diagnosis of ARVC?

A

A 24 hour Holter monitor

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24
Q

Why is a brief ECG insufficient for diagnosing ARVC?

A

It may dramatically overestimate or underestimate the frequency of VPCs

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25
Q

How can ARVC be classified in terms of severity?

A

Three levels of severity

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26
Q

What is the threshold for >100 VPCs in asymptomatic dogs consistent with disease?

A

> 100 VPCs per 24 hours or runs of couplets, triplets, or ventricular tachycardia

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27
Q

What warrants treatment for asymptomatic dogs with VPCs?

A

> 1000 VPCs per 24 hours, runs of ventricular tachycardia, or evidence of R on T

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28
Q

What are two treatment options for symptomatic dogs with syncope?

A
  • Sotalol
  • Combination of mexilitine and atenolol
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29
Q

What should be done if a poor response is seen with one treatment option for symptomatic dogs?

A

The other option may be more effective

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30
Q

How should dogs with systolic dysfunction and heart failure be treated?

A

As dogs with DCM

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31
Q

What supplement do some cardiologists advocate for dogs with heart failure?

A

L-carnitine

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32
Q

What is diabetes mellitus in dogs and cats caused by?

A

Inadequate insulin production or peripheral insulin resistance

Diabetes mellitus is a common endocrine problem in these animals.

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33
Q

What are the key clinical signs of diabetes in dogs and cats?

A

PU/PD, polyphagia, weight loss

Less common signs include plantigrade stance in cats and cataracts in dogs.

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34
Q

How is diabetes mellitus diagnosed in dogs and cats?

A

By documenting persistent hyperglycemia, glucosuria, and/or ketonuria.

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35
Q

What are the treatments for diabetes mellitus in dogs and cats?

A

Dietary changes and insulin.

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36
Q

What are the two presentations of diabetes in dogs and cats?

A

Healthy diabetic and severe diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).

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37
Q

What are the clinical signs of a healthy diabetic?

A
  • PU/PD
  • Polyphagia
  • Weight loss
  • Recurrent infections
  • Plantigrade stance (cats)
  • Cataracts (dogs)
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38
Q

What are the clinical signs of severe diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

A
  • Anorexia
  • Vomiting
  • Weakness
  • Severe metabolic acidosis
  • Blood glucose > 500 mg/dl
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39
Q

True or False: A healthy diabetic may have a previous history of signs similar to those seen in severe DKA.

A

True.

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40
Q

What is a common blood glucose level indicating hyperglycemia?

A

> 300 mg/dl

Stress can cause hyperglycemia, particularly in cats.

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41
Q

What are the two types of glucosuria that may be present in a diabetic patient?

A

Glucosuria +/- ketonuria

Stress in cats can also cause glucosuria.

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42
Q

What are common blood-work abnormalities associated with diabetes?

A
  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Elevated liver enzymes
  • Elevated cholesterol
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43
Q

What do ancillary tests like fructosamine and glycosylated hemoglobin reflect?

A

The patient’s glycemic status

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44
Q

What is the primary treatment for a healthy diabetic dog or cat?

A

Insulin injections

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45
Q

What percentage of cats require insulin injections?

A

90%

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46
Q

What types of insulin are acceptable for managing healthy diabetics?

A
  • Vetsulin
  • PZI
  • NPH
  • Lente
  • Ultralente
  • Glargine
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47
Q

How often should insulin injections typically be administered?

A

Twice daily

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48
Q

What should insulin therapy be monitored by?

A

Blood glucose curves

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49
Q

What is the purpose of monitoring insulin therapy with blood glucose curves?

A

To ensure sufficient potency and duration without causing a Somogyi effect

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50
Q

What are oral hypoglycemics used for?

A

To decrease insulin requirements or insulin resistance

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51
Q

What is the most widely used oral hypoglycemic?

A

Glipizide (Glucotrol)

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52
Q

What is the efficacy of Glipizide?

A

Controversial

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53
Q

Name two other oral hypoglycemics that are not well evaluated in dogs and cats.

A
  • Metformin (Glucophage)
  • Rosiglitazone (Avandia)
  • Acarbose
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54
Q

What is critical for the diet of a diabetic patient?

A

Consistency in type of food, amount, and time of feeding

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55
Q

What type of diet is recommended for diabetic patients?

A
  • High fiber
  • Moderately fat-restricted
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56
Q

What type of diet may be beneficial for diabetic cats?

A

High protein and low carbohydrate diets

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57
Q

What is the primary treatment for severe DKA?

A

Aggressive IV Fluids - 0.9% saline with potassium and phosphate supplementation as needed.

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58
Q

What type of insulin is preferred for treating severe DKA?

A

Regular insulin

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59
Q

How can regular insulin be administered in severe DKA?

A

Intermittently (q 6-8 hrs) or by continuous IV infusion.

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60
Q

What is necessary when administering insulin for severe DKA?

A

Frequent blood glucose monitoring and insulin dose adjustment.

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61
Q

When should bicarbonate therapy be considered in DKA treatment?

A

If metabolic acidosis is severe and/or not improving with IV fluids.

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62
Q

What should be identified and addressed in patients with severe DKA?

A

Any concurrent infections or diseases.

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63
Q

What is heartworm disease in dogs caused by?

A

Dirofilaria immitis

Dirofilaria immitis is the scientific name for the heartworm.

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64
Q

Is heartworm disease more common in dogs or cats?

A

Dogs

Heartworm disease is less common in cats but has important differences.

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65
Q

What is the primary vector for the transmission of heartworm?

A

Mosquito

Mosquitoes transmit the L3 larvae of Dirofilaria immitis.

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66
Q

What is a key method for diagnosing heartworm in dogs?

A

Heartworm antigen test

The antigen test is effective in dogs but not all cats.

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67
Q

What treatment is commonly used for heartworm in dogs?

A

Melarsomine

Treatment with melarsomine must be done carefully to avoid complications.

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68
Q

What is the recommended prevention method for heartworm?

A

Monthly ivermectin

Ivermectin is recommended for heartworm prevention in dogs.

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69
Q

How long can adult Dirofilaria worms live?

A

3-5 years

Adult worms can grow to be 15-30 cm long and reside in the pulmonary artery.

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70
Q

What condition can result from the presence of Dirofilaria worms in dogs?

A

Right ventricular hypertrophy

The presence of worms leads to changes in the heart’s structure.

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71
Q

What are some clinical signs of heartworm disease in dogs?

A

Exercise intolerance, cough, dyspnea, ascites

These signs may be consistent with right heart failure.

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72
Q

What type of larvae are transmitted through mosquito bites in heartworm disease?

A

L3 larvae

L3 larvae are the infective stage of Dirofilaria immitis.

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73
Q

What bacteria has been identified in heartworms in recent years?

A

Wohlbachia

Wohlbachia is an endosymbiotic bacteria found in heartworms.

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74
Q

What are the two presentations of heartworm in cats?

A

Acute and Chronic

Acute presentation is due to worms dying and resulting embolism/inflammation.

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75
Q

List some signs of acute heartworm presentation in cats.

A
  • Salivation
  • Tachycardia
  • Shock
  • Hemoptysis
  • Neurologic signs
  • Acutely dying

These signs can indicate severe reactions to heartworm infestation.

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76
Q

What is HARD in cats?

A

Heartworm associated respiratory disease

HARD appears similar to asthma but occurs secondary to heartworm infestation.

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77
Q

List some clinical signs associated with chronic heartworm presentation in cats.

A
  • Cough
  • Dyspnea
  • Exercise intolerance
  • Vomiting
  • Anorexia
  • Weight loss

These signs reflect the impact of chronic heartworm infestation on a cat’s health.

78
Q

What is the test of choice for diagnosing heartworm in dogs?

A

Heartworm antigen test

This test detects antigens from adult female worms.

79
Q

What might the modified Knott’s test detect?

A

Microfilaria

It is less sensitive than the antigen test.

80
Q

What are some diagnostic findings for heartworm in dogs?

A
  • Right sided cardiac enlargement on thoracic radiographs
  • Enlarged pulmonary arteries
  • Proteinuria
  • Eosinophilia

These findings can indicate heartworm infestation in dogs.

81
Q

What issue may affect the heartworm antigen test in cats?

A

False negatives due to low worm burden or all male infections

This means a negative result does not always rule out infection.

82
Q

What does the heartworm antibody test indicate in cats?

A

Exposure but not necessarily infection

Antibody tests can show prior exposure to heartworms.

83
Q

What diagnostic tools can provide a diagnosis of heartworm in cats?

A
  • Thoracic radiographs
  • Echocardiography

These tools can help visualize heartworm presence in some cases.

84
Q

On an echocardiogram, how do heartworms appear?

A

As a distinct ‘double lined echodensity’

This characteristic appearance helps in identifying heartworms.

85
Q

What is the treatment of choice for dogs with heartworm?

A

Melarsomine

The American Heartworm Society recommends a split protocol for adulticide therapy.

86
Q

What does the split protocol for adulticide therapy include?

A

A single injection followed in 4-6 weeks by 2 injections 24 hours apart

This protocol minimizes the risk of thromboembolic disease.

87
Q

What bacteria found in heartworm can be treated to enhance effectiveness of heartworm treatment?

A

Wohlbachia

Treatment options include doxycycline, azithromycin, or rifampin.

88
Q

What alternative treatment is not currently recommended by the American Heartworm Society?

A

Using monthly heartworm preventative and waiting for adults to die

This method is less effective compared to melarsomine treatment.

89
Q

Name two historical treatments for heartworm.

A

Thiacetarsamide and levamisole

These treatments are no longer commonly used.

90
Q

Why do cats not tolerate melarsomine well?

A

Cats typically have a different response to the drug

Treatment for cats is usually symptomatic.

91
Q

What is the usual treatment approach for heartworm in cats?

A

Symptomatic treatment with heartworm preventative, bronchodilators, and/or corticosteroids

This continues until the worms die, which can take 2-3 years.

92
Q

List two oral options for heartworm prevention in dogs and cats.

A
  • Ivermectin (Heartgard™)
  • Milbemycin (Sentinel™)

These are effective preventative measures.

93
Q

List two topical options for heartworm prevention.

A
  • Selamectin (Revolution™)
  • Moxidectin and imidacloprid (Advantage Multi™)

These topical treatments also provide effective prevention.

94
Q

What is Hemangiosarcoma (HSA)?

A

HSA is a malignancy of endothelial cells that line blood vessels, commonly occurring in the spleen of dogs.

95
Q

What are the two forms of Hemangiosarcoma?

A

The two forms are visceral and cutaneous Hemangiosarcoma.

96
Q

What induces cutaneous Hemangiosarcoma?

A

Cutaneous Hemangiosarcoma is induced by ultraviolet radiation from the sun.

97
Q

Which breeds are most commonly affected by Hemangiosarcoma?

A

Large breed dogs such as German Shepherds, Golden Retrievers, and Labrador Retrievers are most commonly affected.

98
Q

What is the most commonly affected organ in Hemangiosarcoma?

A

The spleen is the most commonly affected organ.

99
Q

What are other commonly affected organs in Hemangiosarcoma?

A

Other commonly affected organs include the right atrium, liver, retroperitoneal space, and subcutaneous tissue.

100
Q

What is significant about Hemangiosarcoma in relation to the brain?

A

It is the most common tumor to metastasize to the brain.

101
Q

How do dogs often present with Hemangiosarcoma?

A

Dogs often present with acute hemoabdomen, hypovolemic shock, or pericardial effusion and cardiogenic shock.

102
Q

What might a dog with Hemangiosarcoma experience in terms of symptoms?

A

Dogs may have a history of ‘good days’ and ‘bad days’ associated with small bouts of internal hemorrhaging.

103
Q

How does Hemangiosarcoma metastasize?

A

It is highly metastatic via blood vessels and direct contact seeding within the abdomen if the tumor ruptures.

104
Q

What is the median survival time for dogs with Hemangiosarcoma?

A

Median survival times generally do not exceed 1 year, regardless of treatment.

105
Q

What diagnostic tool is used for Hemangiosarcoma?

A

Abdominal ultrasound is used to identify free abdominal fluid and lesions.

106
Q

What does Hemangiosarcoma often appear as on an abdominal ultrasound?

A

HSA often appears cavitary and fluid-filled.

107
Q

What is a limitation of fine needle aspirate cytology in diagnosing Hemangiosarcoma?

A

Fine needle aspirate cytology is often unrewarding as samples are filled with blood and the tumor is poorly exfoliative.

108
Q

What is the recommended procedure for suspected splenic lesions?

A

Splenectomy

Recommended for lesions with a chance of rupturing, such as cavitary or large fluid-filled lesions.

109
Q

What is a risk associated with incisional biopsies that do not remove the entire tumor?

A

Hemorrhage

Incisional biopsies include techniques like Tru-cut and punch biopsy.

110
Q

What is the purpose of thoracic radiographs in the context of suspected splenic lesions?

A

To identify pulmonary metastasis and pericardial effusion

111
Q

What is the sensitivity of cardiac ultrasound for finding cardiac masses?

A

Questionable unless effusion is present

112
Q

Why are CT or MRI often recommended for surgical planning in cases of HSA?

A

They are used for tumors affecting the subcutaneous space or retroperitoneal space

113
Q

What common findings can be seen in a CB, chemistry panel, and urinalysis?

A

Anemia, thrombocytopenia, presence of schistocytes

Anemia may occur with or without a regenerative response.

114
Q

What coagulation issue may arise if there is disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

A

Prolonged clotting times

115
Q

What should be ruled out in questionable cases of hemoabdomen?

A

Rodenticide toxicity

116
Q

What is the initial treatment for hemoabdomen?

A

Resuscitate and stabilize with IV fluids and blood products

117
Q

What surgical procedure is performed to address the primary tumor?

A

Exploratory surgery to remove the primary tumor and biopsy abnormal tissues

118
Q

What chemotherapy is used to help delay the development of metastasis?

A

Adriamycin-based chemotherapy

119
Q

What factors influence the prognosis of the splenic form of the disease?

A

Stage of the disease and administration of Adriamycin

120
Q

What is the median survival time with surgery alone?

A

3 weeks to 3 months

121
Q

What is the median survival time for Stage I treated with surgery and Adriamycin-based chemotherapy?

122
Q

What is the median survival time for Stage II treated with surgery and Adriamycin-based chemotherapy?

A

5 to 6 months

123
Q

What is the median survival time for Stage III treated with Adriamycin chemotherapy?

A

3.5 months

124
Q

What is Cutaneous Hemangiosarcoma induced by?

A

Chronic sun exposure

This type of cancer is specifically related to prolonged exposure to sunlight.

125
Q

Which breeds of dogs are at increased risk for Cutaneous Hemangiosarcoma?

A
  • Breeds with unpigmented skin and white haircoat
  • Thin short hair
  • High amounts of sun exposure
  • Fawn colored Pit Bulls
  • Whippets
  • Dalmatians
  • English Pointers

These breeds are particularly vulnerable due to their coat and skin characteristics.

126
Q

What are the commonly affected sites for Cutaneous Hemangiosarcoma?

A
  • Sparsely haired areas
  • Ventral abdomen
  • Medial thighs
  • All sun-exposed areas

These areas are more susceptible to malignant transformation.

127
Q

What is the relationship between Cutaneous Hemangiosarcoma and squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Can occur in conjunction with solar-induced squamous cell carcinoma

This indicates that dogs with one type of skin cancer may be at risk for developing another.

128
Q

How does the biological behavior of Cutaneous Hemangiosarcoma differ from visceral and subcutaneous forms?

A

About 1/3 may metastasize and are more likely associated with advanced, invasive forms of the disease

This highlights the severity and potential spread of this cancer type.

129
Q

What is the primary treatment for invasive or problematic lesions of Cutaneous Hemangiosarcoma?

A

Surgery to remove invasive or problematic lesions

This is a common approach to manage the condition when it becomes severe.

130
Q

What preventive measures can be taken for dogs at risk of Cutaneous Hemangiosarcoma?

A
  • Apply sunblock
  • Keep indoors during intense sunlight hours

These measures are particularly important for dogs with thin hair coats and unpigmented skin.

131
Q

What is the prognosis for dogs with Cutaneous Hemangiosarcoma?

A

May live for years with these tumors

However, new tumors will form since all of the affected skin is abnormal.

132
Q

What is hypothyroidism in dogs commonly associated with?

A

Older dogs

Hypothyroidism can also be congenital (cretinism) in rare cases.

133
Q

What are key clinical signs of hypothyroidism in dogs?

A
  • Weight gain
  • Lethargy
  • Alopecia
  • Pyoderma
  • Other skin changes
134
Q

What is the typical initial diagnostic test for hypothyroidism in dogs?

A

Basal T4 levels

Additional endocrine tests are often needed for confirmation.

135
Q

What is the treatment for hypothyroidism in dogs?

A

Synthetic thyroid hormone (levothyroxine) orally

136
Q

What is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in dogs?

A

Lymphocytic thyroiditis

137
Q

What syndrome can lead to misdiagnosis of hypothyroidism in dogs?

A

Euthyroid sick syndrome

138
Q

What hormones does the thyroid gland synthesize?

A
  • Thyroxine (T4)
  • Triiodothyronine (T3)
139
Q

What physiological effects do thyroid hormones have?

A
  • Increase metabolic rate
  • Increase oxygen consumption
  • Increase heart rate
  • Promote erythropoiesis
  • Enhance catecholamine response
140
Q

What are catabolic effects of thyroid hormones?

A

Effects on muscle and adipose tissue

141
Q

What are common clinical signs of hypothyroidism related to skin?

A
  • Alopecia - often bilaterally symmetric
  • Pyoderma
  • Hyperkeratosis
  • Seborrhea
  • Hyperpigmentation
142
Q

What cardiovascular signs may be associated with hypothyroidism in dogs?

A
  • Bradycardia
  • Weak pulses
  • Low voltage ECG complexes
143
Q

What are common abnormalities found on routine blood work?

A
  • Mild non-regenerative anemia
  • Hypercholesterolemia

These abnormalities can indicate underlying health issues in dogs.

144
Q

What is the preferred screening test for hypothyroidism in dogs?

A

Serum total T4 level

Normal ranges for serum total T4 levels can vary by laboratory.

145
Q

True or False: Dogs with normal T4 levels can be considered hypothyroid.

A

False

Dogs with normal T4 levels are not hypothyroid.

146
Q

What should be done if a dog has low T4 levels?

A

Confirm with at least one of the following:
* Treat any identified underlying conditions
* cTSH and free T4 by equilibrium dialysis levels
* TSH stimulation test
* Trial of T4 replacement therapy and assess response

These steps help determine if the dog is truly hypothyroid.

147
Q

What results indicate hypothyroidism in dogs when checking cTSH and free T4 levels?

A
  • Increased cTSH
  • Low free T4

These results are crucial for confirming hypothyroidism.

148
Q

What should be expected from a TSH stimulation test in hypothyroid dogs?

A

Low T4, even after TSH stimulation

This test helps to assess the thyroid’s response to stimulation.

149
Q

What is the recommended treatment for hypothyroidism in dogs?

A

Oral administration of levothyroxine

This medication replaces the deficient thyroid hormone.

150
Q

How should the dosing of levothyroxine be determined?

A

Based on the dog’s ideal body weight

Optimal dosing varies among dogs and requires regular evaluation of T4 levels.

151
Q

What should be done after beginning levothyroxine therapy?

A

Evaluate T4 levels

Monitoring is essential to ensure the effectiveness of the treatment.

152
Q

What can hypoadrenocorticism be described as in clinical presentations?

A

The Great Imitator

153
Q

What are the classic signs associated with Addison’s disease?

A

Vague and mild clinical signs, bloodwork abnormalities, severe gastrointestinal signs, cardiac abnormalities

154
Q

Name a key tip-off sign of hypoadrenocorticism.

A

Bradycardia in the face of cardiovascular collapse

155
Q

What is the significance of a Na: K ratio < 27?

A

It is a key diagnostic indicator for hypoadrenocorticism

156
Q

What is the diagnostic test of choice for hypoadrenocorticism?

A

ACTH stimulation test

157
Q

What fluid is considered the best choice for rapid infusion in critical therapies for Addison’s disease?

158
Q

What is the primary cause of inadequate adrenal production in hypoadrenocorticism?

A

Idiopathic adrenocortical atrophy

159
Q

What are glucocorticoids necessary for?

A

Homeostatic function and glucose regulation

160
Q

What can mineralocorticoid deficiency lead to?

A

Inability to retain sodium, excrete potassium and hydrogen, resulting in hypotonic dehydration, hyperkalemia, and metabolic acidosis

161
Q

True or False: Hypoadrenocorticism is extremely common in species other than dogs.

162
Q

Fill in the blank: A severe episode of hypoadrenocorticism may be brought on by _______.

A

stress (new household member, a move, a medical procedure, etc.)

163
Q

What critical therapies are used in the treatment of Addison’s disease?

A

Rapid infusion of fluids, treatment of severe hyperkalemia, corticosteroids

164
Q

What are atypical patients with hypoadrenocorticism deficient in?

A

Only glucocorticoids or mineralocorticoids

165
Q

What is the typical age range for dogs affected by the condition described?

A

3-7 years, mean 4 years old

166
Q

What percentage of affected dogs are female?

A

70% females

167
Q

Which breeds are predisposed to the condition?

A
  • Standard Poodles (black)
  • Portuguese Water Dogs
  • Great Danes
  • Rottweilers
  • West Highland White Terriers
  • Wheaton Terriers
168
Q

What acute clinical signs may be observed?

A
  • Hypovolemic shock
  • Weakness
  • Vomiting (may include hematemesis)
169
Q

What chronic signs may worsen during stressful periods?

A
  • Polyuria
  • Polydipsia
170
Q

What electrolyte imbalances are associated with this condition?

A
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Hyponatremia (Na: K ratio of < 27)
  • Hypochloremia
  • Hypercalcemia
  • Hypoglycemia
171
Q

What can pre-renal azotemia be confused with?

A

Renal failure

172
Q

What is the specific gravity value indicative of the condition?

A

Low specific gravity (<1.030)

173
Q

What is absent on CBC that is typically present in stress leukograms?

A

Stress leukogram

174
Q

What are the characteristics of a stress leukogram?

A
  • Neutrophilia
  • Lymphopenia
  • Monocytosis
  • Eosinopenia
175
Q

What lab findings indicate gastrointestinal blood loss?

A
  • Decreased albumin from protein losing enteropathy
  • Increased BUN from gastrointestinal bleeding
176
Q

What cardiac abnormalities may be observed?

A
  • Bradycardia
  • ECG changes consistent with hyperkalemia (tall tented T waves, diminished to absent P waves, prolonged P-R interval, wide QRS complexes)
177
Q

What findings may be seen on ultrasound?

A
  • Megaesophagus
  • Microcardia
  • Small adrenal glands
178
Q

What is the test of choice for diagnostic confirmation?

A

ACTH Stimulation Test

179
Q

What cortisol levels are considered normal after ACTH stimulation?

A

Post-stimulation cortisol levels >10 ug/dl

180
Q

What post-stimulation cortisol level is considered diagnostic?

A

Post-stimulation levels <2 ug/dl

181
Q

What effect does administration of steroids other than dexamethasone have on the ACTH Stimulation Test?

A

It will invalidate the test

182
Q

What is the initial treatment for acute presentation of adrenal insufficiency?

A

Rapid administration of fluids

60-90 ml/kg is commonly cited as a ‘shock dose’, but many prefer incremental boluses of 10-30 ml/kg.

183
Q

What fluid is classically the fluid of choice in the treatment of acute adrenal crisis?

A

0.9% NaCl

This helps restore perfusion to organs and reduce hyperkalemia.

184
Q

What is the purpose of administering calcium gluconate in cases of hyperkalemia?

A

Temporary cardio-protection

It may be necessary in addition to glucose, insulin, or bicarbonate to promote intracellular shift of potassium.

185
Q

Which intravenous glucocorticoid is often preferred and why?

A

Dexamethasone SP

It will not interfere with diagnostic tests.

186
Q

What is the starting dose of prednisone for chronic adrenal insufficiency treatment?

A

0.5 mg/kg/day

This is a supraphysiologic dose for one week before tapering down to maintenance.

187
Q

What is the typical maintenance dose range for prednisone or prednisolone?

A

0.1-0.2 mg/kg/day

This is after starting at a supraphysiologic dose.

188
Q

What should be done during times of stress regarding corticosteroid dosing?

A

Give 2-4X maintenance dose

This is crucial for managing stress in patients with adrenal insufficiency.

189
Q

What are the options for lifetime mineralocorticoid supplementation?

A

Oral fludrocortisone or injectable DOCP

Fludrocortisone is given daily; DOCP is administered every 3-4 weeks.

190
Q

Fill in the blank: The rapid administration of fluids helps to restore _______.

A

blood volume

191
Q

True or False: Fluid therapy alone is always sufficient to treat hyperkalemia.

A

False

Cardiac abnormalities may require additional treatments.