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NASM 6th Ed. CPT QUIZES > Midterm > Flashcards

Midterm Flashcards

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1
Q 
During the pushing assessment, the client’s shoulders elevate, what strengthening exercise is most appropriate?
Select one:
a. Ball wall squats
b. Chin tuck
c. Ball cobra 
d. Quadruped arm/ opposite leg raise
A

c. Ball cobra

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2
Q

Which of the following is a benefit of integrated cardiorespiratory training?
Select one:
a. It decreases resting heart rate.
b. It decreases glucose tolerance.
c. It decreases high-density lipoproteins.
d. It decreases oxidative capacity of muscle.

A

a. It decreases resting heart rate.

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3
Q 
Which of the following assessments measures muscular endurance of the upper body?
Select one:
a. Pulling assessment
b. Bench press assessment
c. Push-up assessment 
d. Pushing assessment
A

c. Push-up assessment

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4
Q 
Which of the following exercises is considered a back-stabilization exercise?
Select one:
a. Standing cable row 
b. Seated cable row
c. Seated lat pull down
d. Medicine ball pull over throw
A

a. Standing cable row

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5
Q 
In what position should the ankles, knees, and hips be during the takeoff position of the squat jump?
Select one:
a. Abduction
b. Flexion 
c. Adduction
d. Extension
A

b. Flexion

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6
Q 
Dynamic stretching improves soft tissue extensibility by using which of the following?
Select one:
a. Wolff’s law
b. Davis’s law
c. Autogenic inhibition
d. Reciprocal inhibition
A

d. Reciprocal inhibition

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7
Q

James performs a multiplanar lunge to balance. After first stepping out into the lunge, which of the following should he perform as the next step in this exercise?
Select one:
a. Hold balance on the back leg
b. Push off the front foot through the heel
c. Rotate 90 degrees
d. Hold the lunge for 5 seconds

A

b. Push off the front foot through the heel

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8
Q 
During a static postural assessment, a client displays an anterior pelvic tilt. Which muscle is likely to be shortened?
Select one:
a. Transverse abdominis
b. Internal oblique
c. Hamstring complex
d. Hip flexor complex
A

d. Hip flexor complex

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9
Q

Which method, also known as the Karvonen method, is used for establishing training intensity based on the difference between a client’s predicted maximal heart rate and his or her resting heart rate?
Select one:
a. Peak maximal heart rate (MHR) method
b. Heart rate reserve (HRR) method
c. Ratings of perceived exertion (RPE) method
d. Peak metabolic equivalent (MET) method

A

b. Heart rate reserve (HRR) method

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10
Q 
Which of the following balance exercises is appropriate for a client training in Phase 2 of the OPT™ model?
Select one:
a. Single-leg squat touchdown 
b. Single-leg lift and chop
c. Single-leg balance reach
d. Single-leg box hop-up
A

a. Single-leg squat touchdown

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11
Q 
A client experiences difficulty in performing the prone iso-abs exercise. Which of the following should be suggested as an regression?
Select one:
a. Cable rotation
b. Rolling active resistance row
c. Quadruped arm and opposite leg raise 
d. Cable chop
A

c. Quadruped arm and opposite leg raise

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12
Q

Body mass index (BMI) is a quick and easy method to determine which of the following?
Select one:
a. Whether a client’s weight is appropriate for his or her height
b. A client’s muscle mass
c. Whether a client’s fat mass is within his or her percent fat recommendations
d. A client’s lean body mass

A

a. Whether a client’s weight is appropriate for his or her height

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13
Q

Which scenario demonstrates a personal trainer correctly assessing a first-time client?
Select one:
a. Refer the client to a health care professional if he answers “no” to one or more questions on the PAR-Q.
b. Assess the client’s cardiorespiratory fitness after reviewing a current health-history questionnaire.
c. Avoid movement assessments if a client has been diagnosed with hypertension.
d. Have the client fill out a PAR-Q medical history after the overhead squat assessment is performed.

A

b. Assess the client’s cardiorespiratory fitness after reviewing a current health-history questionnaire.

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14
Q

Which of the following is considered objective information gathered during a fitness evaluation?
Select one:
a. A client’s current injuries
b. If they wear shoes with elevated heels
c. Body composition testing results
d. PAR-Q results

A

c. Body composition testing results

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15
Q 
A client reports acute soreness and tightness in her calf muscle after a long run. She describes feeling knots in the muscle. Which of the following flexibility techniques should the client use first?
Select one:
a. Self-myofascial release
b. Active-isolated stretching
c. Dynamic stretching
d. Static stretching
A

a. Self-myofascial release

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16
Q 
What is the term for the client's pulse found on their wrist?
Select one:
a. Popliteal pulse
b. Brachial pulse
c. Carotid pulse
d. Radial pulse
A

d. Radial pulse

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17
Q 
During which of the following are optimal landing mechanics first established?
Select one:
a. Balance-stabilization training
b. Plyometric-stabilization training 
c. Balance-strength training
d. Reactive-strength training
A

b. Plyometric-stabilization training

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18
Q 
A client who has been training at high intensities in preparation for a triathlon reports joint pain, excess fatigue, and the inability to sustain normal workouts. In which stage of the general adaptation syndrome is this client?
Select one:
a. Exhaustion 
b. Alarm reaction
c. Resistance development
d. Overtraining
A

a. Exhaustion

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19
Q 
During functional movement patterns, a client demonstrates excessive spinal motion. Which of the following core exercises should the trainer recognize as being most appropriate for this individual?
Select one:
a. Back extension
b. Two-leg floor bridge 
c. Ball medicine pullover throw
d. Reverse crunch
A

b. Two-leg floor bridge

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20
Q 
During a static postural assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client has pronated feet, as well as adducted and internally rotated knees. Which muscles would he or she expect to be shortened?
Select one:
a. Gluteus maximus
b. Gluteus medius
c. Hip external rotators
d. Adductors
A

d. Adductors

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21
Q

Daniel is foam-rolling the piriformis after a workout. Which of the following steps should he take when he encounters a tender spot?
Select one:
a. Roll away from the tender spot.
b. Perform a large rolling motion across the spot.
c. Hold the spot for 30 seconds.
d. Oscillate on the tender spot.

A

c. Hold the spot for 30 seconds

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22
Q 
Which of the following assessments would be most important for a new client who recently recovered from a shoulder injury?
Select one:
a. Pushing/pulling assessments 
b. Body composition
c. Shark skill test
d. 1RM strength assessment
A

a. Pushing/pulling assessments

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23
Q 
How long should a client hold the landing position in a squat jump with stabilization exercise?
Select one:
a. 6–7 seconds
b. 8–10 seconds
c. 3–5 seconds 
d. 1–2 seconds
A

c. 3–5 seconds

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24
Q 
Which of the following is the appropriate tempo for a core exercise when training for hypertrophy?
Select one:
a. Fast
b. Slow
c. Explosive
d. Medium
A

d. Medium

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25
Q 
A squat, curl, to two-arm press is an example of an exercise from which level in the OPT model?
Select one:
a. Power
b. Stabilization
c. Corrective
d. Strength
A

d. Strength

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26
Q 
What term refers to the simultaneous contraction of one muscle and the relaxation of its antagonist?
Select one:
a. Reciprocal inhibition 
b. Postural distortion
c. Autogenic inhibition
d. Arthrokinetic dysfunction
A

a. Reciprocal inhibition

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27
Q 
The first exercise during Strength Endurance training involves a traditional strength exercise, such as a bench press, that is performed in a stable environment in order to elicit which of the following?
Select one:
a. Antagonist muscle strength
b. Prime mover strength 
c. Neutralizer strength
d. Fixator strength
A

b. Prime mover strength

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28
Q 
When performing the static latissimus dorsi ball stretch, which of the following is a correct body position?
Select one:
a. Anteriorly rotated pelvis
b. 90° horizontally abducted humerus 
c. Posteriorly rotated pelvis
d. 90° internally rotated humerus
A

b. 90° horizontally abducted humerus

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29
Q 
When performed as fast and as explosively as possible, ice skaters are categorized in which of the following phases?
Select one:
a. Power 
b. Maximal Strength
c. Strength Endurance
d. Stabilization Endurance
A

a. Power

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30
Q

Which of the following would be most useful in determining shoulder complex compensations?
Select one:
a. Shark skill test, anterior view
b. L.E.F.T. test, lateral view
c. Pushing assessment, lateral view
d. Overhead squat assessment, anterior view

A

c. Pushing assessment, lateral view

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31
Q 
During a standing pulling assessment, a client compensates by moving his head forward. Which of the following static stretches would be appropriate for this client?
Select one:
a. Erector spinae
b. Piriformis
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Levator scapulae
A

d. Levator scapulae

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32
Q 
Which type of training involves performing exercises as fast and explosively as possible?
Select one:
a. Stabilization-endurance
b. Reactive-power 
c. Reactive-stabilization
d. Strength-power
A

b. Reactive-power

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33
Q 
Which of the following body mass index (BMI) ranges indicates a person is overweight?
Select one:
a. 20 to 24.99
b. 15 to 19.99
c. 25 to 29.99 
d. 10 to 14.99
A

c. 25 to 29.99

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34
Q 
When training for balance, exercises that involve dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion are categorized as which of the following?
Select one:
a. Balance-stabilization
b. Balance-strength
c. Balance-plyometric 
d. Balance-power
A

b. Balance-strength

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35
Q

Which of the following was designed to determine the safety or possible risk of exercise for a client based on the answers to specific health history questions?
Select one:
a. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)
b. Remote Associates Test (RAT)
c. Inhibitory control test
d. McGill Pain Questionnaire

A

a. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)

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36
Q

Which of the following cues is appropriate to give a client who will be performing a floor bridge exercise?
Select one:
a. “Press your lower back onto the floor.”
b. “Raise hips up as high as possible to activate erector spinae.”
c. “Lay prone on the floor and retract your shoulder blades.”
d. “Squeeze your glutes.”

A

d. “Squeeze your glutes.”

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37
Q 
Which is the preferred pulse point to record a person’s heart rate?
Select one:
a. Carotid artery
b. Brachial artery
c. Axillary artery
d. Radial artery
A

d. Radial artery

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38
Q

Which balance-power exercise involves lifting one leg directly beside balance leg, hopping off the box and landing on ground on one leg; keeping toes pointing straight ahead and knees directly over the toes, and holding this position for 3 to 5 seconds?
Select one:
a. Multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization
b. Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization
c. Multiplanar step-up to balance
d. Multiplanar lunge to balance

A

b. Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization

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39
Q 
For which exercise is a single-leg position a progression?
Select one:
a. Kneeling cable rotation
b. Medicine ball chest pass
c. Floor crunch
d. Back extension
A

b. Medicine ball chest pass

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40
Q 
A client is currently training in the Hypertrophy Phase of the OPT model. Which phase of the flexibility continuum would be the most appropriate?
Select one:
a. Dynamic
b. Corrective
c. Active 
d. Functional
A

c. Active

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41
Q 
While observing a new client perform the pushing assessment, the personal trainer notices that his head protrudes forward. Which of the following groups of muscles are probably overactive?
Select one:
a. Middle trapezius
b. Erector spinae
c. Levator scapulae 
d. Rhomboids
A

c. Levator scapulae

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42
Q 
n which phase of the OPT model would ice skaters be an appropriate exercise?
Select one:
a. Phase 4: Maximal Strength
b. Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance
c. Phase 2: Strength Endurance
d. Phase 5: Power
A

d. Phase 5: Power

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43
Q 
What refers to the weight and movements placed on the body?
Select one:
a. Mechanical specificity
b. Metabolic specificity
c. Cardiovascular specificity
d. Neuromuscular specificity
A

a. Mechanical specificity

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44
Q 
When assessing a client's overhead squat, which of the following is an indication of overactivity in the lateral gastrocnemius?
Select one:
a. Knees move inward
b. External rotation of the feet 
c. Arms fall forward
d. Low back arches
A

b. External rotation of the feet

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45
Q

To which of the following does the term body composition refer?
Select one:
a. The relative percentage of body weight that is fat versus fat-free tissue
b. The relative percentage of body weight that is epithelial tissue
c. The percentage of body weight that is muscle compared to bones and organs
d. The relative percentage of body weight that is water versus muscle

A

a. The relative percentage of body weight that is fat versus fat-free tissue

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46
Q 
If a client's knees move inward during an overhead squat assessment, which of the following muscles should be foam rolled?
Select one:
a. Adductors 
b. Vastus medialis oblique
c. Gluteus medius
d. Gluteus maximus
A

a. Adductors

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47
Q 
When performing a peripheral heart action workout for strength, which of the following exercises would you perform immediately after a barbell squat?
Select one:
a. Seated row 
b. Romanian deadlift
c. Single-leg cable row
d. Squat jump
A

a. Seated row

48
Q 
When performing a peripheral heart action workout for strength, which of the following exercises would you perform immediately after a barbell squat?
Select one:
a. Seated row 
b. Romanian deadlift
c. Single-leg cable row
d. Squat jump
A

a. Seated row

49
Q 
A new client with limited exercise experience has recently begun a Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance training program. Which of the following is the most appropriate way for this client to increase muscular endurance?
Select one:
a. Drop-set training
b. Circuit training 
c. Plyometric-strength training
d. Pyramid system training
A

b. Circuit training

50
Q

A client is able to successfully reach their shins when performing the single-leg squat touchdown. What is the next progression this client should work toward for this exercise?

Select one:

a. Reaching all the way to the foot.
b. Perform the exercise on two legs with dumbbells.
c. Perform the exercise with a stability ball.
d. Stand on a balance pad.

A

a. Reaching all the way to the foot.

51
Q

What types of SAQ drills are most appropriate for Phase 1 training?
Select one:
a. Those allowing grater horizontal inertia
b. Those allowing unpredictability
c. Those with limited horizontal inertia
d. Those allowing maximal horizontal inertia

A

c. Those with limited horizontal inertia

52
Q 
Which of the following should be kept in a neutral position during exercise?
Select one:
a. Lateral spine 
b. Sacral spine
c. Coccygeal spine
d. Cervical spine
A

d. Cervical spine

53
Q 
n order to most effectively target the tensor fascia latae (TFL) while standing, a client's back leg should be in which of the following positions?
Select one:
a. Adducted 90°
b. Abducted 90°
c. Externally rotated
d. Internally rotated
A

c. Externally rotated

54
Q 
Which of the following is part of the objective information collected in a fitness assessment?
Select one:
a. Physiological measurements 
b. Occupation
c. Lifestyle
d. Food consumption habits
A

a. Physiological measurements

55
Q 
A client's head protrudes during a pulling assessment. Which of the following muscles should be stretched?
Select one:
a. Longus capitis
b. Longus coli
c. Sternocleidomastoid 
d. Supraspinatus
A

c. Sternocleidomastoid

56
Q

A personal trainer observes a client’s knees moving inward while performing the overhead squat assessment. Which of the following muscles are probably underactive?
Select one:
a. Biceps femoris (short head) and tensor fascia latae (TFL)
b. Lateral gastrocnemius and soleus
c. Gluteus medius and gluteus maximus
d. Adductor complex and vastus lateralis

A

c. Gluteus medius and gluteus maximus

57
Q 
Which of the following exercises is the most effective at improving dynamic stabilization, concentric strength, eccentric strength, and neuromuscular efficiency of the entire kinetic chain?
Select one:
a. Reverse crunch
b. Prone iso-abs 
c. Supported dumbbell row
d. Dumbbell snatch
A

a. Reverse crunch

58
Q 
In a client with lower crossed syndrome, which of the following muscles is lengthened?
Select one:
a. Soleus
b. Gluteus maximus 
c. Erector spinae
d. Gastrocnemius
A

b. Gluteus maximus

59
Q 
When performing a squat, an overactive hip flexor complex can decrease neural drive to the gluteus maximus; what is this an example of?
Select one:
a. Synergistic dominance 
b. Relative flexibility
c. Autogenic inhibition
d. Altered reciprocal inhibition
A

d. Altered reciprocal inhibition

60
Q 
Which of the following is a leg-stabilization exercise whose preparatory step involves standing in front of a box or platform with feet pointed straight ahead?
Select one:
a. Single-leg lift and chop
b. Lunge to balance
c. Single-leg Romanian deadlift
d. Step-up to balance
A

d. Step-up to balance

61
Q 
What is a primary cause of musculoskeletal degeneration in the adult population?
Select one:
a. High blood sugar level 
b. Spina bifida
c. Low-back pain
d. Vitamin K deficiency
A

c. Low-back pain

62
Q 
When performed at an appropriate tempo, which of the following exercises would offer the best improvement of the power of a client's pectoralis major?
Select one:
a. Floor push-ups
b. Medicine ball rotation chest pass
c. Ball dumbbell chest press 
d. Single-leg throw and catch
A

b. Medicine ball rotation chest pass

63
Q 
Performing resistance training exercises in a circuit fashion in order to burn more calories is an example of which of the following principles of specificity?
Select one:
a. Mechanical
b. Metabolic
c. Neuromuscular
d. Overload
A

b. Metabolic

64
Q 
Which method of cardio should be avoided for a client who demonstrates low-back arching as a movement compensation?
Select one:
a. Treadmills 
b. Group exercise classes
c. Bicycles
d. Elliptical trainers
A

c. Bicycles

65
Q

What is the focus in stage II of cardiorespiratory training?
Select one:
a. Increasing capacity needed for Power-Level exercise
b. Reducing heart rate through interval training
c. Reducing the speed, incline, or level
d. Increasing capacity needed for Strength-Level exercise

A

d. Increasing capacity needed for Strength-Level exercise

66
Q 
What measurement needs to be taken prior to the start of the Rockport walk test?
Select one:
a. Weight 
b. Height
c. Body fat
d. Heart rate
A

a. Weight

67
Q

Which of the following is a balance-strength exercise that requires an individual to step forward with toes pointing straight ahead and then pushing off of the front foot through heel onto the back leg and maintain balance on the back leg?
Select one:
a. Lunge to balance
b. Single-leg box hop-up with stabilization
c. Step-up to balance
d. Single-leg box hop-down with stabilization

A

a. Lunge to balance

68
Q

What exercise is considered a total-body Strength Level exercise?
Select one:
a. Multiplanar step-up to balance, curl, to overhead press
b. Kettlebell hang clean and jerk
c. Squat, curl, to two-arm press
d. Barbell clean

A

c. Squat, curl, to two-arm press

69
Q 
Which of the following is characterized by flat feet and adducted and internally rotated knees?
Select one:
a. Lower extremity movement syndrome
b. Lower crossed syndrome
c. Pronation distortion syndrome 
d. Upper crossed syndrome
A

c. Pronation distortion syndrome

70
Q

What effect do beta-blockers have on a client?
Select one:
a. Blocks mechanoreceptors from overstimulating muscles
b. Decrease blood pressure
c. Has no effect
d. Increase blood pressure

A

b. Decrease blood pressure

71
Q

Which of the following statements is true of the body mass index (BMI)?
Select one:
a. BMI helps in developing weight loss goals as it actually measures body composition.
b. The skin-fold measurement is the best technique of measuring the BMI of an obese person.
c. The risk of disease increases in proportion to the rise in BMI in both adults and adolescents.
d. BMI is used to estimate body weight ranges based on a person’s age.

A

c. The risk of disease increases in proportion to the rise in BMI in both adults and adolescents.

72
Q 
Which of the following is considered subjective information?
Select one:
a. Taking radial pulse
b. Circumference measurements
c. Overhead squat assessment
d. Lifestyle questions
A

d. Lifestyle questions

73
Q

When performing self-myofascial release of the adductors, the focus should be on foam rolling what location on the body?
Select one:
a. The short head of the biceps femoris
b. The quadriceps along the vastus medialis
c. The entire inner thigh region
d. The groin region inside the upper thigh

A

d. The groin region inside the upper thigh

74
Q 
Shortly after starting his new job as an editor and writer, Mark begins to complain of pain in the neck and shoulders. Which of the following postures are most likely to have led to his discomfort?
Select one:
a. Knees caved in and feet turned out
b. Forward head and shoulder elevation 
c. Arms fallen forward
d. Excessive forward lean
A

b. Forward head and shoulder elevation

75
Q 
A client has been training in Phase 2 for 4 months. She is now experienceing joint pain and emotional fatigue. What stage of the general adaptation syndrome is she most likely in?
Select one:
a. DOMS
b. Resistance development
c. Exhaustion 
d. Alarm reaction
A

c. Exhaustion

76
Q 
What refers to the weight and movements placed on the body?
Select one:
a. Cardiovascular specificity
b. Neuromuscular specificity
c. Metabolic specificity
d. Mechanical specificity
A

d. Mechanical specificity

77
Q 
During a single-leg squat assessment, a personal trainer notices a client's knee drifting inward. Which of the following muscles is probably underactive?
Select one:
a. Vastus lateralis
b. Biceps femoris
c. Gluteus medius 
d. Adductor brevis
A

c. Gluteus medius

78
Q

Knee injuries involving ligaments lead to which of the following?
Select one:
a. A decrease in the neural control to muscles that stabilize the patella
b. Increased neural control to stabilizing muscles of the core of the knee
c. An increase in the neural control to the gluteus medius and gluteus maximus muscles
d. Decreased neural control of the rotator cuff muscles

A

a. A decrease in the neural control to muscles that stabilize the patella

79
Q

Which of the following is a precaution that should be taken while performing the reverse crunch exercise?
Select one:
a. Avoid swinging the legs when performing the exercise.
b. Avoid rounding the lower back when performing the exercise.
c. Avoid a large stride length to protect the low back.
d. Keep the chin tucked while performing the exercise.

A

a. Avoid swinging the legs when performing the exercise.

80
Q 
Which of the following has the objective of uniformly strengthening the deep and superficial muscles that stabilize, align, and move the trunk of the body?
Select one:
a. Flexibility training
b. Volume training
c. Core training 
d. Interval training
A

c. Core training

81
Q 
Which of the following is a proper equation when determining a clients heart rate for zone 1?
Select one:
a. (200-client's age)x (60% and 70%)
b. (220-client's age)x (65% and 70%)
c. (220-client's age)x (65% and 75%) 
d. (200-client's age)x (60% and 75%)
A

c. (220-client’s age)x (65% and 75%)

82
Q 
If a client exhibits increased force output of his hamstrings and adductor magnus to compensate for a weakened gluteus maximus during hip extension, this is an example of which of the following?
Select one:
a. Arthrokinetic dysfunction
b. Synergistic dominance 
c. Pattern overload
d. Reciprocal inhibition
A

b. Synergistic dominance

83
Q 
Which of the following is the correct number to subtract age from when calculating a person's estimated maximal heart rate?
Select one:
a. 220 
b. 230
c. 200
d. 210
A

a. 220

84
Q

Which of the following have a linear relationship during dynamic exercise?
Select one:
a. Heart rate and oxygen uptake
b. Blood pressure and carbon dioxide release
c. Heart rate and carbon dioxide uptake
d. Blood pressure and oxygen release

A

a. Heart rate and oxygen uptake

85
Q

Performing the drawing-in maneuver or bracing can do what?
Select one:
a. Result in lower endurance for stabilization
b. Affect posture and muscle balance
c. Cause narrowing of openings in the vertebrae
d. Help retrain motor control of local and global stabilization systems

A

d. Help retrain motor control of local and global stabilization systems

86
Q

Body mass index (BMI) is a quick and easy method to determine which of the following?
Select one:
a. Whether a client’s fat mass is within his or her percent fat recommendations
b. A client’s lean body mass
c. Whether a client’s weight is appropriate for his or her height
d. A client’s muscle mass

A

c. Whether a client’s weight is appropriate for his or her height

87
Q 
What is the balance-stabilization exercise that involves lifting one leg directly beside the balance leg while maintaining optimal alignment including level hips and shoulders and holding this position for 5-20 seconds?
Select one:
a. Multiplanar step-up to balance
b. Single-leg balance 
c. Multiplanar hop with stabilization
d. Single-leg Romanian deadlift
A

b. Single-leg balance

88
Q 
Which of the following is the method used to estimate the amount of subcutaneous fat beneath the skin?
Select one:
a. Circumference measurement
b. Skinfold measurement 
c. Body mass index
d. Body weight measurement
A

b. Skinfold measurement

89
Q 
How many weeks should a client spend during the Stabilization Phase of core training?
Select one:
a. 4 
b. 8
c. 9
d. 10
A

a. 4

90
Q

A personal trainer observes that a client leans forward excessively while performing an overhead squat. Which of the following muscles should be stretched?
Select one:
a. Anterior tibialis, gracilis, and sartorius
b. Medial hamstrings, hip extensor complex, and erector spinae
c. Anterior tibialis, gluteus maximus, and erector spinae
d. Soleus, gastrocnemius, hip flexor complex, and abdominal complex

A

d. Soleus, gastrocnemius, hip flexor complex, and abdominal complex

91
Q

The rate of force production relates to the ability of muscles to do which of the following?
Select one:
a. Release energy in a controlled manner
b. Exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time
c. Decrease the reaction time of the muscle action spectrum
d. React to a stimulus without hesitation

A

b. Exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time

92
Q 
Which term refers to the cumulative sensory input to the central nervous system from all mechanoreceptors that sense body position and limb movement?
Select one:
a. Iactioception
b. Inception
c. Nociception
d. Proprioception
A

d. Proprioception

93
Q

Practicing self-myofascial release through the use of a foam roller creates autogenic inhibition by which of the following?
Select one:
a. Exciting the muscle spindle
b. Decreasing signal to the motor neurons
c. Stimulating the Golgi tendon organ
d. Inhibiting signal to the interneuron

A

c. Stimulating the Golgi tendon organ

94
Q 
Which of the following training types involves little motion through the spine and pelvis?
Select one:
a. Core-reactive
b. Core-strength
c. Core-power
d. Core-stabilization
A

d. Core-stabilization

95
Q 
Which of the following is a kinetic chain checkpoint for the overhead squat assessment, when assessing from the lateral view?
Select one:
a. Ankles
b. Feet
c. Shoulder complex 
d. Knees
A

c. Shoulder complex

96
Q 
What is the BMI range with the lowest risk of disease?
Select one:
a. less than 18.5
b. 25-29.9
c. more than 30
d. 22-24.9
A

d. 22-24.9

97
Q 
Which of the following is an example of a strength exercise during resistance training workouts?
Select one:
a. Step-up to balance
b. Squat jump
c. Medicine ball chest pass
d. Bench press
A

d. Bench press

98
Q 
In a client with lower crossed syndrome, which of the following muscles is most likely lengthened?
Select one:
a. Erector spinae
b. Internal oblique
c. Soleus
d. Gastrocnemius
A

b. Internal oblique

99
Q 
What is a multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization an example of?
Select one:
a. Balance-stabilization exercise
b. Balance-modification exercise
c. Balance-strength exercise
d. Balance-power exercise
A

d. Balance-power exercise

100
Q 
Which of the following assessments will best allow the personal trainer to view potential postural imbalances surrounding the feet, ankles, knees, lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC), shoulder, and cervical complex?
Select one:
a. Overhead squat assessment 
b. Shark skill test
c. Davies test
d. Pulling assessment
A

a. Overhead squat assessment

101
Q

What is blood pressure (BP)?
Select one:
a. It is the pressure within the ventricles before the heart contracts.
b. It is the pressure within the atria after the heart contracts.
c. It is the pressure created by the heart each time it interrupts blood flow.
d. It is the pressure of the circulating blood against the walls of the blood vessels.

A

d. It is the pressure of the circulating blood against the walls of the blood vessels.

102
Q 
During a 40-yard dash, the hamstring complex begins to do most of the work for a weakened gluteus maximus. Which of the following best describes this action?
Select one:
a. Arthrokinematic dysfunction
b. Length-tension relationships
c. Force-couple relationships
d. Synergistic dominance
A

d. Synergistic dominance

103
Q

What is the best example of performing an exercise in a proprioceptively enriched environment?
Select one:
a. Dumbbell chest press on stability ball
b. Seated military press
c. Leg press exercise
d. Machine chest press

A

a. Dumbbell chest press on stability ball

104
Q 
Which of the following is a formula that determines a client's target heart rate during exercise?
Select one:
a. Peak Maximal Heart Rate Method
b. Heart rate reserve (HRR) method 
c. Peak Metabolic Equivalent Method
d. VO2 Reserve Method
A

b. Heart rate reserve (HRR) method

105
Q

Which of the following have a linear relationship during dynamic exercise?
Select one:
a. Blood pressure and oxygen release
b. Blood pressure and carbon dioxide release
c. Heart rate and oxygen uptake
d. Heart rate and carbon dioxide uptake

A

c. Heart rate and oxygen uptake

106
Q 
Which of the following exercises is a plyometric-power exercise?
Select one:
a. Repeat box jumps 
b. Repeat butt kicks
c. Proprioceptive plyometrics
d. Box jump-up with stabilization
A

a. Repeat box jumps

107
Q

Which of the following is a movement involved in the single-leg squat assessment?
Select one:
a. Slowly squat as if sitting in a chair, reaching hand opposite of balance leg toward foot.
b. Bend from the waist and slowly reach hand down toward the toes of the balance leg.
c. Push through both heels and stand upright, balancing on one leg.
d. Squat as if sitting in a chair, flexing at hips, knees, and ankles and lower to first point of compensation.

A

d. Squat as if sitting in a chair, flexing at hips, knees, and ankles and lower to first point of compensation.

108
Q 
Which of the following concepts is demonstrated when a tight psoas decreases the neural drive of the gluteus maximus?
Select one:
a. Altered reciprocal inhibition
b. Synergistic dominance
c. Pattern overload
d. Arthrokinetic dysfunction
A

a. Altered reciprocal inhibition

109
Q

Which of the following assessments is the MOST appropriate to evaluate any shoulder complex compensations?
Select one:
a. L.E.F.T. test, lateral view
b. Pushing assessment, lateral view
c. Shark skill test, anterior view
d. Overheard squat assessment, anterior view

A

b. Pushing assessment, lateral view

110
Q

Which of the following assessments is used to gauge lower-extremity agility and neuromuscular control?
Select one:
a. Davies test
b. Overhead squat assessment
c. Shark skill test
d. Lower-extremity strength assessment: squat

A

c. Shark skill test

111
Q

Practicing self-myofascial release through the use of a foam roller creates autogenic inhibition by which of the following?
Select one:
a. Exciting the muscle spindle
b. Decreasing signal to the motor neurons
c. Stimulating the Golgi tendon organ
d. Inhibiting signal to the interneurons

A

c. Stimulating the Golgi tendon organ

112
Q

A client is performing a standing cable row with her shoulders elevated. What cue should be used to correct her form?
Select one:
a. Internally rotate the humerus to activate the lower trapezius.
b. Slightly arch the lower back to stabilize the trunk and rotator cuff.
c. Perform scapular winging to increase activation of the rhomboids.
d. Depress the shoulder blades to activate the scapular retractors.

A

d. Depress the shoulder blades to activate the scapular retractors.

113
Q 
Which of the following is part of the subjective information gathered in a fitness assessment?
Select one:
a. Body composition
b. Pulse
c. Occupation 
d. Physiological measurement
A

c. Occupation

114
Q

Which of the following is a balance-strength exercise that requires an individual to step forward with toes pointing straight ahead and then pushing off of the front foot through heel onto the back leg and maintain balance on the back leg?
Select one:
a. Step-up to balance
b. Single-leg box hop-up with stabilization
c. Lunge to balance
d. Single-leg box hop-down with stabilization

A

c. Lunge to balance

115
Q 
What is the appropriate percentage to increase after each set when performing an upper-extremity (bench press) strength assessment?
Select one:
a. 10%-15%
b. 5%-10% 
c. 1%-2%
d. 15%-20%
A

b. 5%-10%

116
Q 
When training a client for speed, agility, and quickness, which of the following exercises would be most appropriate?
Select one:
a. Butt kicks
b. Tuck jump
c. One-ins 
d. Box jump
A

c. One-ins

NASM 6th Ed. CPT QUIZES (28 decks)

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