Basic Knowledge Flashcards
When manually monitoring a client's pulse, the trainer counts 17 beats in 6 seconds. Which of the following is the client's heart rate? Select one: a. 85 b. 104 c. 117 d. 170
170
How many ounces of water should a client consume immediately after exercise for every pound lost? Select one: a. 6 to 12 ounces b. 16 to 24 ounces c. 24 to 32 ounces d. 32 to 48 ounces
b. 16 to 24 ounces
Which of the following is contraindicated when training a client who is pregnant?
Select one:
a. Fitness assessments should be performed using seated or standing exercises.
b. Stabilization Endurance training should be used during the second and third trimesters
c. Exercise should be done in a supine position after the first trimester.
d. Plyometric training may be done in the first trimester.
c. Exercise should be done in a supine position after the first trimester
Which of the following terms refers to the elevation of the body’s metabolism after exercise? Select one: a. RER b. EPOC c. HRR d. RPE
b. EPOC
Which of the following best describes the code of conduct for a fitness professional?
Select one:
a. A set of scientifically proven and evidence-based theories that a fitness professional can apply to specific fitness programs.
b. Guidelines to ensure that all professionals provide the highest level of service and respect for all colleagues, allied professionals, and the general public.
c. A set of records that allow a fitness professional to track his or her own progress career-wise.
d. A set of processes that help a fitness professional determine the number of clients he or she can handle at a given. time
b. Guidelines to ensure that all professionals provide the highest level of service and respect for all colleagues, allied professionals, and the general public
When talking to a client, conversational techniques that express the purported meaning of what was just heard are referred to as: Select one: a. reflections. b. affirmations. c. compliments. d. judgments.
a. reflections.
It is lawful for a Certified Personal Trainer who possesses no additional certifications or licensure to do which of the following?
Select one:
a. Massage a client.
b. Apply ultrasound to a client.
c. Design a nutrition plan for a client.
d. Design a cardiorespiratory program for a client.
d. Design a cardiorespiratory program for a client.
Based on the 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans, which of the following is the recommended weekly amount of time for moderate-intensity aerobic activity? Select one: a. 75 minutes b. 90 minutes c. 120 minutes d. 150 minutes
d. 150 minutes
Which of the following muscles is underactive if a client demonstrates an anterior pelvic tilt? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. Psoas c. Latissimus dorsi d. Gluteus maximus
d. Gluteus maximus
Which of the following is a sign that a client has completed an accurate one-rep maximum bench press estimation test?
Select one:
a. Your client fails after 8-12 repetitions.
b. Your client fails after 1 repetition.
c. Your client fails at 3 to 5 repetitions.
d. Your client fails right before their arms straighten.
c. Your client fails at 3 to 5 repetitions.
Based on Overhead Squat Assessment findings, if a client exhibits knees moving inward, which flexibility exercise is recommended? Select one: a. Abductor static stretch b. Adductor static stretch c. Piriformis foam roller d. Psoas foam roller
b. Adductor static stretch
Which of the following is the third step in the Stages of Change model? Select one: a. Action b. Precontemplation c. Contemplation d. Preparation
d. Preparation
What percent of predicted heart rate maximum is used in zone two of cardiorespiratory training? Select one: a. 56% to 65% b. 66% to 75% c. 76% to 85% d. 86% to 95%
c. 76% to 85%
A client cannot perform a full prone iso-abs exercise, which of the following would be an appropriate regression?
Select one:
a. Perform prone iso-abs with knees on floor.
b. Perform prone iso-abs with feet on stability ball.
c. Perform a back extension.
d. Perform a stability ball crunch.
a. Perform prone iso-abs with knees on floor.
Which of the following describes a split routine in a resistance training program?
Select one:
a. It allows for the use of two exercises for antagonistic muscles within one set.
b. It allows for the use of multiple sets for each exercise.
c. It is a way of training that splits the day into two separate workouts.
d. It is a way of training that works different body parts on different days.
d. It is a way of training that works different body parts on different days.
The client is ready to progress from Phase: Stabilization Endurance to Phase 2. Which of the following best describes the resistance training portion of her new Strength Endurance workout?
Select one:
a. Stabilization exercises with strength supersets
b. Strength with power supersets
c. Power exercises with strength supersets
d. Strength exercises with stabilization supersets
d. Strength exercises with stabilization supersets
How many times the heart beats per minute and how much blood is being pumped with each beat is known as: Select one: a. Stroke volume b. Heart rate c. Cardiac output d. Expiration
c. Cardiac output
After completing the Three-Minute Step Test, a 20-year-old male scored in zone 2. What is the correct heart rate range for when he does cardio training? Select one: a. 86% to 95% of HR max b. 76% to 85% of HR max c. 65% to 75% of HR max d. 55% to 60% of HR max
b. 76% to 85% of HR max
Which of the following is the correct repetition range and tempo for the Stabilization, Strength and Power Phases of the OPT model?
Select one:
a. 12-20/Slow, 1-12/ Moderate, 1-10/Explosive
b. 12-20/Moderate, 1-10/Explosive, 1-12/Slow
c. 1-10/Slow, 12-20/Moderate, 1-12/Explosive
d. 1-10/Moderate,12-20/Slow, 1-12/Explosive
a. 12-20/Slow, 1-12/ Moderate, 1-10/Explosive
What is a negative side effect associated with the chronic use of a high protein, low carbohydrate diet?
Select one:
a. A high protein diet is typically associated with higher intake of unsaturated fat and fiber which are risk factors for heart disease.
b. A high protein diet will require less water consumption for metabolism than is needed by carbohydrates or fat.
c. A high protein diet will increase glycogen stores which can lead to decreases in performance.
d. A high protein diet will cause the kidneys to work harder to eliminate the increased urea produced.
d. A high protein diet will cause the kidneys to work harder to eliminate the increased urea produced.
Which of the following is the proper lower extremity position when performing a ball squat? Select one: a. Knee over second toe b. Adduction of the hip c. Pronation of the foot d. Internal rotation of the hip
a. Knee over second toe
Which of the following is a measuring site of the Durnin–Womersley formula? Select one: a. Calf b. Mid-axillary line c. Subscapular d. Thigh
c. Subscapular
During an overhead squat assessment, a client demonstrates an excessive anterior pelvic tilt. Which of the following muscles is probably overactive? Select one: a. Bicep femoris b. Piriformis c. Transverse abdominus d. Latissimus dorsi
d. Latissimus dorsi
Hip flexor complex
Erector spinae
In the Stabilization Endurance Phase, exercises should be performed with which of the following types of intensity? Select one: a. High b. Low c. Maximal d. Moderate
b. Low