Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NASM 6th Ed. CPT QUIZES > DUDE know these > Flashcards

DUDE know these Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
NASM ® CPT flashcards
1
Q

Vertical Loading

A

Performing exercises on the opt model one right after another Circuit Training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Blood Lipids

A

Also
known as cholesterol and triglycerides, blood lipids are carried in the bloodstream by protein molecules known as high-density lipoproteins (HDL) and low-density lipoproteins (LDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

EPOC

A

The state

in which the body’s metabolism is elevated after exercise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

RPE

A

rating of perceived exertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

HRR-

Heart Rate Reserve also known as the Karvonen method

A

Heart Rate Reserve also known as the Karvonen method, is a method of establishing training intensity on the basis of the difference between a client’s predicted maximal heart rate and their resting heart rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Right Ventricle

A

pumps deoxgentated blood to the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Left Ventricle

A

pumps oxygenated blood to the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Capillaries

A

smallest blood vessels, site of gas, chemical, and water exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Artia

A

Smaller, Superior chambers of the heart recied blood form veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Insulin

A

regulates energy from glucose metabolism in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

endocrine system

A

system of glands; secretes hormones to regulate bodily function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Arteries

A

Carry blood away from the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

stroke volume

A

amount of blood pumped with each contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

cardiac output

A

volume of blood pumped per minute; heart rate x stroke volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

inspiration

A

contracting inspiratory muscles to move air into lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Expiration

A

relaxing inspiratory muscles (passive), contracting expiratory muscles (active) to move air out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Venules

A

small veins: connect capillaries to larger veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

lever

A

rigid “bar” that rotates around stationary fulcrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Reciprocal inhibition

A

simultaneous contraction of one muscle, and relaxtion of its antagonist to allow movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Force velocity curve

A

as the velocity of a contraction increases, concentric force decrease and eccentric force increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

the primary function of proteins is

A

is to build and repair body tissues and structures

Proteins are made up of amino acids linked together by peptide bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

the primary function of proteins is

A

is to build and repair body tissues and structures

Proteins are made up of amino acids linked together by peptide bonds

.8/kg for adults

  1. 2–1.7 kg for athletes
  2. 2–1.4 kg endurance athletes

4 Calories per gram
10-35% of diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Carbohydrates

A

4 calories per gram
6-10 g/kg/day
25-38g from fiber
45-65% of diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Fats

A

9 calories per gram
should be 20-35% of total food intake
highly polyunsaturated-to-saturated is desriable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Hydration replacement

A

14-22 oz before exercise
6-12 oz of water for every 15-20 minutes exercise
16-22 oz of water or sports drink for every pound of mass loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

davies law states

A

Soft tissue models along the lines of stress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The principle that states the body will adapt to the demands that are placed upon it is called the Principle of

A

Specificity - (SAID) Specific Adaptation to Imposed Demands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q 
What is the FIRST step a fitness professional should take when coming across an emergency situation that will require CPR?
Select one:
a. Activate the EMS system.
b. Check the scene for hazards.
c. Open the airway.
d. Check for circulation.
A

b. Check the scene for hazards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

heart rate zones

A

1 Maximal heart rate 􏰆 0.65 Maximal heart rate 􏰆 0.75 2Maximal heart rate 􏰆 0.76 Maximal heart rate 􏰆 0.85 3Maximal heart rate 􏰆 0.86 Maximal heart rate 􏰆 0.95

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

purpose of heart rate zones

A 
One
Builds aerobic base and aids in recovery
Two
Increases aerobic and anaerobic endurance
Three
Builds high-end work capacity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The local core stabilizers

A

muscles that attach directly to the vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The primary muscles that make up the local stabilization system

A

transverse abdominis, internal obliques, multifidus, pelvic floor musculature, and diaphragm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Global Stabilization System

A 
Quadratus lumborum, Psoas major, External oblique, Portions of internal oblique, Rectus abdominis, Gluteus medius, Adductor complex
  Adductor magnus
  Adductor longus
  Adductor brevis
  Gracilis
  Pectineus
34
Q

diastolic (bottom number) regular is 80mm

A

indicates the forces used when your heart relaxes and fills with blood- regular is lower then 80mm

35
Q

systolic (top number) reg. between 90 and 120mm

A

regular is that’s between 90 and less than 120

36
Q

Which of the following vitamins and minerals are known to have the greatest potential for excess dosage in dietary supplements?
Select one:
a. Vitamin A, vitamin D, iron, and zinc
b. Vitamin B, vitamin C, folic acid, and biotin
c. Beta-Carotene, vitamin E, vitamin K, and niacin
d. Iodine, magnesium, copper, and fluoride

A

a. Vitamin A, vitamin D, iron, and zinc

37
Q

Which scenario is a component of the sliding filament theory?
Select one:
a. The result of two Z lines moving closer together.
b. The result of ATP production through aerobic respiration.
c. The pancreas releases glucagon into the bloodstream.
d. The pancreas releases insulin into the bloodstream.

A

a. The result of two Z lines moving closer together.

38
Q

Based on the 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans, which of the following is the recommended weekly amount of time for moderate-intensity aerobic activity?

A

150 minutes

39
Q 
Which of the following muscles is lengthened in Lower Crossed Syndrome?
Select one:
a. Psoas minor
b. Rectus femoris
c. Erector Spinae
d. Transverse abdominis
A

d. Transverse abdominis

40
Q 
Which of the following is the innermost layer of muscular connective tissue?
Select one:
a. Fasciculus
b. Endomysium
c. Perimysium
d. Epimysium
A

b. Endomysium

Layers (inner to outer)

  1. Musclefibers
  2. Endomysium
  3. Perimysium
  4. Epimysium
41
Q 
How many ounces of water should a client consume immediately after exercise for every pound lost?
Select one:
a. 6 to 12 ounces
b. 16 to 24 ounces
c. 24 to 32 ounces
d. 32 to 48 ounces
A

b. 16 to 24 ounces

42
Q

Which of the following describes the importance of active listening when engaging with a client?
Select one:
a. Providing the client with the right information.
b. Requiring the client to pay attention.
c. Convincing the client to do something.
d. Seeking a client’s perspective.

A

d. Seeking a client’s perspective.

43
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate intensity when training a client who is obese?

a) 20-30% of their max HR
b) 40-50% of their max HR
c) 60-70% of their max HR
d) 85-95% of their max HR

A

c) 60-70% of their max HR

44
Q 
During the overhead squat assessment, the trainer notices the client's feet turn out. Which of the following stretches should be used to lengthen the overactive muscles?
Select one:
a. Kneeling hip flexor
b. Standing calf
c. Standing adductor
d. Standing quadriceps
A

b. Standing calf

45
Q 
Although quality and brand recognition are important, people ultimately buy personal training services based on the desire to produce a meaningful outcome. Therefore, all buying decisions are based on:
Select one:
a. price.
b. knowledge.
c. pressure.
d. emotion.
A

d. emotion.

46
Q 
An active kneeling hip flexor stretch is an example of:
Select one:
a. autogenic inhibition.
b. reciprocal inhibition.
c. altered reciprocal inhibition.
d. synergistic dominance.
A

b. reciprocal inhibition.

47
Q 
A slow and controlled dumbbell chest press performed on a stability ball is an example of what type of specificity?
Select one:
a. Mechanical
b. Balance
c. Metabolic
d. Neuromuscular
A

d. Neuromuscular

48
Q 
When manually monitoring a client's pulse, the trainer counts 17 beats in 6 seconds. Which of the following is the client's heart rate?
Select one:
a. 85
b. 104
c. 117
d. 170
A

d. 170

49
Q

Which of the following are core-stabilization exercises designed to improve?
Select one:
a. Rate of force production of the core musculature
b. Anaerobic capacity of movement system muscles
c. Maximal strength of the rectus abdominis and external obliques
d. Neuromuscular efficiency and intervertebral stability

A

d. Neuromuscular efficiency and intervertebral stability

50
Q 
In the Maximal Strength Training (MST) phase, what should be the primary emphasis in the client’s program?
Select one:
a. Powerful movements
b. Joint stabilization
c. Increasing hypertrophy
d. Increasing load
A

d. Increasing load

51
Q 
Which of the following is the proper lower extremity position when performing a ball squat?
Select one:
a. Knee over second toe
b. Adduction of the hip
c. Pronation of the foot
d. Internal rotation of the hip
A

a. Knee over second toe

52
Q 
According to the NASM Code of Professional Conduct, a Certified Personal Trainer shall maintain accurate financial, contract appointments, and tax records including original receipts for a minimum of:
Select one:
a. six months.
b. twelve months.
c. two years.
d. four years.
A

d. four years.

53
Q

Which of the following describes a split routine in a resistance training program?
Select one:
a. It allows for the use of two exercises for antagonistic muscles within one set.
b. It allows for the use of multiple sets for each exercise.
c. It is a way of training that splits the day into two separate workouts.
d. It is a way of training that works different body parts on different days.

A

d. It is a way of training that works different body parts on different days.

54
Q 
Which of the following types of strength allows the neuromuscular system to perform dynamic eccentric, isometric, and concentric muscle actions in all three planes of motion?
Select one:
a. Postural
b. Structural
c. Functional
d. Neuromuscular
A

c. Functional

55
Q 
Which one of the following exercises is classified as a balance-strength exercise?
Select one:
a. Single-leg squat touchdown
b. Single-leg lift and chop
c. Single-leg balance and reach
d. Single-leg hop with stabilization
A

a. Single-leg squat touchdown

56
Q 
When performing a \_\_\_\_\_, the load must be placed in such a way to resist elbow extension.
Select one:
a. standing triceps extension
b. biceps curl 
c. standing cable row
d. dumbbell chest press
A

a. standing triceps extension

57
Q 
Which of the five principles of goal setting focuses on establishing goals that are challenging but not extreme?
Select one:
a. Attainable
b. Realistic
c. Specific
d. Timely
A

a. Attainable

58
Q 
Which of the following is an appropriate number of exercises per body part per session for a client who has the goal of muscular hypertrophy?
Select one:
a. 1 to 2
b. 2 to 4
c. 4 to 6
d. 6 to 10
A

b. 2 to 4

59
Q 
When a client performs reactive exercises in the Stabilization Level of training, they should hold the landing position for how many seconds before repeating the movement?
Select one:
a. 1 to 2 seconds 
b. 3 to 5 seconds
c. 6 to 7 seconds
d. 8 to 10 seconds
A

b. 3 to 5 seconds

60
Q 
Which of the following muscles is lengthened in Lower Crossed Syndrome?
Select one:
a. Psoas minor
b. Rectus femoris
c. Erector Spinae
d. Transverse abdominis
A

d. Transverse abdominis

61
Q

Which of the following should a trainer consider when designing a resistance training program for seniors?
Select one:
a. Progression should be from seated machines to standing exercises, 8 to 10 exercises.
b. Phase 1 of the OPT model should be used for 4 weeks before moving to Phases 2 through 5.
c. Phase 5 of the OPT model is contraindicated for senior clients due to increased safety considerations.
d. Training frequencies should start at 4 to 5 times per week.

A

a. Progression should be from seated machines to standing exercises, 8 to 10 exercises.

62
Q 
During an overhead squat assessment, a client demonstrates an excessive anterior pelvic tilt. Which of the following muscles is probably overactive?
Select one:
a. Bicep femoris
b. Piriformis
c. Transverse abdominus
d. Latissimus dorsi
A

d. Latissimus dorsi

63
Q 
Which of the following is the recommended rest interval when performing a circuit for Phase 5 resistance training?
Select one:
a. 0 to 30 seconds
b. 31 to 60 seconds
c. 1 to 2 minutes
d. 3 to 5 minutes
A

d. 3 to 5 minutes

64
Q 
A client has mastered the single-leg squat on the floor. Which of the following is a proprioceptive and challenging progression?
Select one:
a. Single-leg squat on an Airex pad
b. Two-leg squat on floor
c. Two-leg squat on Dyna disc
d. Single-leg squat on a Dyna disc
A

c. Two-leg squat on Dyna disc

65
Q 
Under the supervision of which of the following professionals is it appropriate for an adult client to follow an 800-1000 calorie diet?
Select one:
a. Certified Personal Trainer
b. Medical physician
c. Nutritionist
d. Performance Enhancement Specialist
A

b. Medical physician

66
Q

Which of the following is a sign that a client has completed an accurate one-rep maximum bench press estimation test?
Select one:
a. Your client fails after 8-12 repetitions.
b. Your client fails after 1 repetition.
c. Your client fails at 3 to 5 repetitions.
d. Your client fails right before their arms straighten

A

c. Your client fails at 3 to 5 repetitions.

67
Q 
The ability to react and change body position, with maximum rate of force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions during functional activities is:
Select one:
a. power.
b. speed.
c. quickness.
d. agility.
A

c. quickness.

68
Q 
A client shows signs of obesity, insulin resistance, and hypertension. The combination of these three symptoms are correlated with which of the following disorders?
Select one:
a. Metabolic syndrome
b. Restrictive lung disease
c. Peripheral edema condition
d. Coronary heart disease
A

a. Metabolic syndrome

69
Q 
Which of the following occurs at the shoulder while it is moving in the frontal plane?
Select one:
a. Flexion
b. Abduction
c. Extension
d. External rotation
A

b. Abduction

70
Q 
Which of the following muscles is the synergist when a client is performing a chest press?
Select one:
a. Anterior deltoid
b. Rotator cuff
c. Pectoralis major
d. Levator scapulae
A

a. Anterior deltoid

71
Q

Which of the following statements is true concerning client goal setting?
Select one:
a. Clients who are certain about what they want to accomplish are less likely to successfully make life changes.
b. A long-term goal keeps the client motivated for a longer period of time.
c. Setting achievable goals at the lower end of a client’s ability will build more confidence when accomplished.
d. Goals should be consistent with a client’s own ideals and ambitions

A

d. Goals should be consistent with a client’s own ideals and ambitions

72
Q 
Which of the following muscles is the prime mover when a client performs a row?
Select one:
a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Posterior deltoid
c. Pectoralis major
d. Pectoralis minor
A

a. Latissimus dorsi

73
Q

Which of the following is contraindicated when training a client who is pregnant?
Select one:
a. Fitness assessments should be performed using seated or standing exercises.
b. Stabilization Endurance training should be used during the second and third trimesters
c. Exercise should be done in a supine position after the first trimester.
d. Plyometric training may be done in the first trimester.

A

c. Exercise should be done in a supine position after the first trimester.

74
Q

General adaptation syndrome

A

Alarm reaction—initial reaction to a stressor, activates protective processes in the body.
Resistance development—body increases functional capacity to adapt to a stressor; once adapted, the
increased stress is needed to produce a new response.
Exhaustion—stressor is too much or lasting too long for systems to handle; causes breakdown or injury.

75
Q

Metabolic specificity

A

—the energy demand placed on the body.

76
Q

Neuromuscular specificity

A

—the speed of contractions and exercise selection.

77
Q

Mechanical specificity

A

—the weight and movements placed on the body

78
Q

The principle of progressive overload

A

training stimulus must exceed current capabilities to elicit

optimal physical, physiological, and performance adaptations.

79
Q

Intensity

A

—exercise level of effort compared to maximal effort; written as percentage of 1RM.

80
Q

Plyo- Stabilizatoin phase

A 
Little joint motion; establishes
optimal landing mechanics,
postural alignment, and reactive
neuromuscular efficiency; pause
to stabilize.
81
Q 
During a Phase 3: Hypertrophy workout, what is the recommended rest interval?
Select one:
a. 0-60 seconds
b. 1-2 minutes
c. 45-90 seconds
d. 3-5 minutes
A

a. 0-60 seconds

82
Q 
Which of the following is a catabolic hormone secreted by the adrenal glands and serves to maintain energy supply through the breakdown of carbohydrates, fats, and protein?
Select one:
a. Cortisol
b. Insulin
c. Testosterone
d. Norepinephrine
A

a. Cortisol

NASM 6th Ed. CPT QUIZES (28 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions