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NYCC Microbiology > Midterm 2 Review (4-7) > Flashcards

Midterm 2 Review (4-7) Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What is the symbiotic relationship in which one organism benefits at the expense of the host?

A

Parasitism

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2
Q

What type of parasite is found internally?

A

Endoparasite

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3
Q

What type of parasite is found on the skin and hair?

A

Ectoparasite

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4
Q

What are the two classifications of parasites?

A

Protozoans and Helminths

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5
Q

What is the active-growing form of the Protozoa called?

A

Trophozoite

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6
Q

What is the non-growing form of a Protozoa called?

A

Cyst

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7
Q

What type of Protozoa does not have the ability to move and reproduces by simple fission?

A

Sporozoa

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8
Q

What is the etiological agent for Malaria?

A

Plasmodium falciparum

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9
Q

What is the vector of transmission for Malaria?

A

Mosquito

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10
Q

What is the most prevalent parasitic disease worldwide?

A

Malaria

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11
Q

What is the etiologic agent of Toxoplasmosis?

A

Toxoplasma gondii

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12
Q

What is the vector of transmission of Toxoplasma?

A

Feces of infected domestic cats

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13
Q

What is the largest class of Protozoa that use flagella as its method of locomotion?

A

Mastigophora

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14
Q

What species of Protozoa only exists in the trophozoite form?

A

Mastigophora

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15
Q

What is the vector of transmission of Trichomonas vaginalis?

A

Sexually transmitted disease

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16
Q

What are some of signs and symptoms of a Trichomonas infection?

A

-Persistent vaginitis in females
-Prostatitis and urethritis in chronic infection in males

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17
Q

What is the etiologic agent for Sleeping sickness?

A

Tryponosoma

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18
Q

What is the vector of transmission for Tryponosoma infections?

A

Tsetse fly

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19
Q

What country is the Sleeping Sickness confined to?

A

Central Africa

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20
Q

What are some of the signs and symptoms of African Sleeping Sickness?

A

Fever, headache, impaired mental status leading to coma and death

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21
Q

What is the etiologic agent of Beaver Fever?

A

Giardia lamblia

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22
Q

What is the vector of transmission of a Giardia infection?

A

Fecal-oral

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23
Q

What are some of the signs and symptoms of Beaver Fever?

A

Diarrhea, cramping, flatulence, and anorexia

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24
Q

What is the etiologic agent of Oriental Sores?

A

Leishmania species

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25
Q

What is the vector of transmission for a Leishmania infection?

A

Sand flea

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26
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Oriental Sore?

A

Lymphadenopathy, Depigmented scar, itchy pustules (appears weekly to months after bite)

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27
Q

What is the only species of ciliate that infects the human intestines?

A

Balantidium coli

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28
Q

What is the vector of transmission of a Balantidium infection?

A

Fecal-oral (pig feces)

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29
Q

What are the two phyla of Helminths?

A

Platyhelminthes (flatworms) and Nemahelminths (roundworms)

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30
Q

What type of Helminths belongs to the class Cestodes?

A

Tapeworms

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31
Q

What type of Helminths belong to the class Trematodes?

A

Flukes

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32
Q

What type of Helminths belong to the class Nematodes?

A

Roundworms

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33
Q

What is the basic structure of a Cestode?

A

Scolex, regenerative neck region, and long segmented body

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34
Q

What is the function of a Scolex in a Tapeworm?

A

Attachment to epithelium

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35
Q

What is the function of the Mature Proglottids of a Tapeworm?

A

Sexually maturing section

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36
Q

What is the pathogenesis of a Tapeworm Infection?

A

-Can live in humans for decades
-Cause gastric discomfort, nausea, diarrhea, and weight loss

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37
Q

What are the requirements for a successful infection?

A

Entry, Establishment, Defeat host defenses, Damage the host, Exit the host to be transmitted to another host

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38
Q

What is the most common portal of entry for infection?

A

Respiratory tract

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39
Q

What is the second most common portal of entry for infection?

A

Gastrointestinal tract

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40
Q

Microbes that infect the genitourinary tract are sometimes called?

A

Sexually transmitted diseases

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41
Q

What route of infection refers to breaks in the skin a that allows the passage of microbes?

A

Parenteral

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42
Q

What factors are reasons why females obtain more urinary tract infections than males?

A

Shorter urethra and proximity to anus

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43
Q

What is the inherent ability of a pathogen to protect themselves via intrinsic or extrinsic factors against the host’s defenses?

A

Passive defense

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44
Q

What kind of defense attacks the host defense?

A

Active defense

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45
Q

What substance is found only in the walls of all gram + bacteria and inhibits phagocytosis?

A

M proteins

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46
Q

What feature of a Gram- cell wall produces an endotoxin that elicits a powerful immune response?

A

Lipid A

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47
Q

What cell wall feature is exhibited in Mycobacterium species that inhibits phagocytosis and antibiotics?

A

Mycolic acid

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48
Q

What type of bacterial enzyme destroys WBCs?

A

Leukocidins

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49
Q

What type of bacterial enzyme destroys both RBCs and WBCs?

A

Hemolysins

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50
Q

What type of bacterial enzyme forms fibrin clots?

A

Coagulase

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51
Q

What type of bacterial enzyme breaks down fibrin and destroys clots?

A

Kinase

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52
Q

What type of bacterial enzyme breaks down connective tissue?

A

Hyaluronidase

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53
Q

What type of bacterial enzyme breaks down collagen?

A

Collagenase

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54
Q

How many categories of bacteria toxins are there?

A

2 categories

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55
Q

What type of exotoxin kills cells?

A

Cytotoxins

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56
Q

What type of exotoxin interferes with neurological signaling?

A

Neurotoxins

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57
Q

What type of exotoxin affects the lining of the digestive tract?

A

Enterotoxins

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58
Q

What is the most dangerous effect of endotoxin poisoning?

A

Disseminated intravascular clotting

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59
Q

What are some examples of bacteria that produces cytotoxins?

A

Bacillus anthracis and Corynebacterium diphtheraie

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60
Q

What are some examples of bacteria that produce neurotoxins?

A

Clostridium tetani and Clostridium botulinum

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61
Q

What is the pathogenesis of a Clostridium tetani (Tetanus) infection?

A

-Toxin enters presynaptic terminals of lower motor neurons
-Patient presents with “Lockjaw” and Opisthotonus (feet touch the back of the head)

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62
Q

Lockjaw is the common name for what disease?

A

Tetanus

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63
Q

What is the pathogenesis of a Clostridium botulinum (Botulism) infection?

A

-Inhibits release of acetylcholine
-Flaccid paralysis of skeletal muscle
-Begins as cranial nerve palsy (blurred or double vision)

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64
Q

A place where pathogens grow and accumulate is called?

A

Reservoir

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65
Q

What diseases are transmitted from animals to humans called?

A

Zoonotic

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66
Q

When an uninfected person is exposed to a pathogen via touching an infected reservoir, what type of contact transmission has occurred?

A

Direct contact transmission

67
Q

When an uninfected person is exposed to a pathogen via touching an infected fomite, what type of contact transmission has occurred?

A

Indirect contact transmission

68
Q

When an uninfected individual inhales infected particulate matter expelled from an infected person, what type of contact transmission has occurred?

A

Droplet transmission

69
Q

What type of transmission occurs when a pathogen “rides”?

A

Vehicle transmission

70
Q

A biological vector transmission includes what?

A

Found inside insect (bites)

71
Q

A mechanical vector transmission includes what?

A

Found on insect body parts touching objects

72
Q

What is the most common vector of transmission?

A

Arthropods (mosquitoes, ticks, fleas0

73
Q

The hosts ability to mount an immune defense is called?

A

Immunocompetence

74
Q

What idea is Koch’s Postulates associated with?

A

Disease transmission and communicability

75
Q

In an illness, the earliest period free of signs and symptoms is called?

A

Incubation period

76
Q

In an illness, the first sign and symptoms of a disease appear in what period?

A

Prodromal period

77
Q

In an illness, the period of major signs and symptoms that produces an immune response is called?

A

Period of illness

78
Q

In an illness, the period that has the highest chance of secondary infection is called?

A

Period of decline

79
Q

What is the study of the factors and mechanisms involved in the frequency and spread of a disease?

A

Epidemiology

80
Q

The total number of people infected within a population at any given time is called?

A

Prevalence

81
Q

The number of new cases contracted within a set population in a specific period is called?

A

Incidence

82
Q

The number of individuals affected by a disease during a set period divided by the total population is called?

A

Morbidity

83
Q

The number of deaths due to a specific disease during a specific period divided by the total population is called?

A

Mortality

84
Q

What type of disease is found constantly within a population?

A

Endemic disease

85
Q

What type of disease is found suddenly higher than expected in a specific region?

A

Epidemic disease

86
Q

What are some of the characteristics of a Common Source Epidemic?

A

-Arises from contacts with contaminated substances
-Affects large number of people but once source is identified quickly subsides

87
Q

What are some of the characteristics of a Propagated Epidemic?

A
  • Amplification for the number of infected individuals as person-to-person contact occurs
  • Stays in the population for longer periods
  • More difficult to control (“Patient Zero”)
88
Q

Patient zero is most commonly associated with what type of disease?

A

Propagated epidemic disease

89
Q

What type of disease occurs in epidemic proportions throughout the world?

A

Pandemic disease

90
Q

What phase of a pandemic is COVID-19 in right now?

A

Post-peak

91
Q

What type of study is concerned with the physical aspects of patients and the spread of disease?

A

Descriptive Study

92
Q

What type of study focuses predominantly on cause and effect?

A

Analytical Study

93
Q

What type of study always uses a control group?

A

Analytical Study

94
Q

What nationally notifiable disease should never be seen again?

A

Smallpox

95
Q

What type of infection is acquired in a hospital/medical facility within 48 hours of visit?

A

Nosocomial Infections

96
Q

What is the most common organism in Nosocomial Infections?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

97
Q

What type of microbe are known as obligate intracellular parasites?

A

Viruses

98
Q

Infections that have never been seen before are considered?

A

Emerging infectious diseases

99
Q

What kinds of diseases are considered Emergent diseases?

A

Zika, Dengue hemorrhagic, Chikungunya, MERS, and COVID-19

100
Q

Diseases that were once thought of as being under control primarily due to antibiotics, vaccinations and insect control are considered?

A

Re-emerging infectious diseases

101
Q

What kind diseases are considered re-emerging infectious diseases?

A

Whooping cough, diphtheria, measles, mumps, polio

102
Q

What type of disease is condensed to India, Southeast Asia, and Micronesia that causes encephalitis or respiratory illness?

A

Nipah virus

103
Q

What is the vector of transmission for Nipah virus?

A

Fruit bats

104
Q

What is the most deadly form of influenza?

A

Avian influenza

105
Q

What emerging illness presents with fever and joint pain and is transmitted via infected mosquitoes?

A

Chikungunya Virus

106
Q

What type of virus causes Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS)?

A

Coronavirus

107
Q

What type of virus entered the US in 1999 and is found in most states?

A

West Nile Virus

108
Q

What is the vector of transmission for West Nile Virus?

A

Mosquito

109
Q

What is the deadliest type of viral hemorrhagic fevers?

A

Ebola

110
Q

What type of virus is transmitted to a human host by an insect bite?

A

Arboviruses

111
Q

Most of the emerging disease are considered what etiologic agent?

A

Viruses

112
Q

The stable reservoir of influenza is found where?

A

Aquatic birds

113
Q

What is the cause for the high TB rates in Africa?

A

HIV/AIDS epidemic

114
Q

What country has the highest TB rates that immigrate to the US?

A

Mexico

115
Q

What possible ways can a prion be treated with?

A

Cannot be destroyed (Resistatnt to cooking, autoclaving, disinfectants, and strong alkali treatment)

116
Q

Transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSEs) are considered what type of infection?

A

Prions

117
Q

What test is done to determine if a prion infections is present?

A

ELISA

118
Q

What was the first seen TSE found in sheep?

A

Scrapies (1762)

119
Q

What is the human version of TSE called?

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (can be new variant)

120
Q

What type of prion disease is spread in humans via cannibalism?

A

Kuru

121
Q

What is the medical term for whooping cough?

A

Pertussis

122
Q

80% of all acute respiratory tract infections are what type of microbe?

A

Viruses

123
Q

What is the mortality rate for uncomplicated influenza?

A

0.1-2.5%

124
Q

What is the vector of transmission of Sin Nombre?

A

Inhalation of dried rodent urine and feces

125
Q

What virus is known as “Sin Nombre” in the US?

A

Hantavirus

126
Q

What is the common name for a Coccidiomycosis infection?

A

Valley fever

127
Q

What is the most common normal flora to cause infection in the upper and lower respiratory tract?

A

Staphylococcus

128
Q

What human body system is involved in the majority of hospital acquired infections?

A

Urinary

129
Q

What factors contribute to the trends of emerging diseases?

A

Global travel, war, lack of vaccination

130
Q

Lipid A is what type of toxin?

A

Endotoxin

131
Q

An accumulation of bacteria residing on a surface is known as?

A

Biofilm

132
Q

The protein coat that surrounds the nucleic acid core of a virion is called the ____

A

capsid

133
Q

how many types of virions exist?

A

2

134
Q

The type of viral structure that involves coiling of the capsid and nucleic acid core is ____

A

helical symmetry

135
Q

The largest family of viruses to infect humans is ____

A

Herpesviridae

136
Q

The most stable form of a virus is ____

A

double stranded DNA
(eg. Herpesviridae)

137
Q

What happens to the virus-infected cell in a lysogenic infection?

A

the viral genome becomes part of the cell’s DNA

138
Q

What are viral envelopes?

A

pieces of the host cell’s plasma membrane

139
Q

The least stable form of a virus with the highest mutation rate is ____

A

single stranded RNA
(eg. Ebola)

140
Q

Air, food, and insects are considered to be ____

A

transmission mechanisms

141
Q

the process of assembling the virion in the host cell is known as ____

A

maturation

142
Q

Floral variegation is a result of infection by ____

A

viruses
(plants = variegation)

143
Q

“Oriental” sore is the common name for the disease ____

A

Leishmaniasis

144
Q

Acute African sleeping sickness is fatal because it infects the ____

A

brain

145
Q

What is the inactivated poliovirus vaccine?

A

Salk

146
Q

Rice water stools are associated with ____

A

cholera (vibrio cholerae)

147
Q

Rotavirus infection are dangerous in infants and toddlers because of ____

A

rapid dehydration

148
Q

What arbovirus is also known as “Breakbone Fever?”

A

Dengue Hemorrhagic fever

149
Q

African sleeping sickness is spreading of the bile by ____

A

tsetse fly

150
Q

The annual influenza season is an example of ____

A

antigenic drift

151
Q

The most common vector in the arboviruses is the ____

A

mosquito

152
Q

microbes that infect the genitourinary tract are sometimes referred to as ____

A

sexually transmitted diseases

153
Q

what are 3 potential reservoirs of pathogens?

A

animals, humans & non-living surfaces

154
Q

clostridia species produce some of the deadliest of the ____

A

neurotoxins

155
Q

enterotoxins work by damaging the lining of the ____

A

intestines

156
Q

which of the following types of epidemics is over more quickly: common source or propagated

A

common source

157
Q

lipid A is an ____

A

endotoxin

158
Q

direct damage to the host is controlled by ____

A

the immune response

159
Q

hemolysins are ____ that ____

A

exotoxins
destroy WBCs and RBCs

160
Q

endotoxins are released from dead ____ bacteria in the form of ____

A

gram-
lipid A

161
Q

what genus of bacteria have mycolic acid in their cell walls?

A

mycobacterium

162
Q

what disease may present with a pseudomembrane composed of bacteria fibrin and cell debris?

A

diphtheria

163
Q

lipid A elicits…

A

a strong immune response

164
Q

patient zero is most commonly associated with ____

A

propagated epidemic disease

NYCC Microbiology (17 decks)

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